Human Neurobiology Exam Review - 3327 Verified Questions

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Course Introduction

Human Neurobiology Exam Review

Human Neurobiology explores the structure and function of the human nervous system, from cells and molecular signaling to complex neural networks underlying behavior and cognition. This course examines neuronal development, sensory and motor systems, neuroplasticity, and the neurobiological basis of diseases and disorders. Emphasis is placed on understanding key experimental methods, current research, and the clinical relevance of neurobiological discoveries. Through lectures and hands-on activities, students gain insight into how the brain and nervous system govern human physiology and behavior.

Recommended Textbook

Biological Psychology 11th Edition by James W. Kalat

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15 Chapters

3327 Verified Questions

3327 Flashcards

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Chapter 1: The Major Issues

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Sample Questions

Q1) The sea dragon is a fish that looks and acts like kelp in order to attract its food. The explanation that proposed that this is due to genetic modification that expands smaller appendages already present in these fish's ancestors would be the ____ explanation.

A) functional

B) evolutionary

C) otogenetic

D) biological

Answer: B

Q2) A strand of DNA serves as a template (model) for the synthesis of ____.

A) chromosomes

B) RNA

C) Proteins

D) Carbohydrates

Answer: B

Q3) Researchers have found specific genes linked to certain specific behaviors.

A)True

B)False

Answer: True

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Chapter 2: Nerve Cells and Nerve Impulses

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Sample Questions

Q1) Glial cells transmit information across long distances.

A)True

B)False

Answer: False

Q2) Voltage-activated channels are channels for which a change in the voltage across the membrane alters their:

A) permeability.

B) length.

C) number.

D) threshold.

Answer: A

Q3) Dendrites and cell bodies are capable of producing action potentials.

A)True

B)False

Answer: False

Q4) Neurons can have any number of dendrites, but no more than one axon.

A)True

B)False

Answer: True

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Chapter 3: Synapses

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Sample Questions

Q1) Only sensory neurons are found in a reflex arc.

A)True

B)False

Answer: False

Q2) An EPSP is a(n):

A) graded depolarization.

B) depolarization with a rebounding hyperpolarization.

C) graded hyperpolarization.

D) action potential in a reflex arc.

Answer: A

Q3) Opiate drugs bind to receptors in the brain for:

A) endorphins.

B) catecholamines.

C) indolamines.

D) monoamines.

Answer: A

Q4) Marijuana withdrawal is more intense than opiate withdrawal.

A)True

B)False

Answer: False

Page 5

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Chapter 4: Anatomy of the Nervous System

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Sample Questions

Q1) Functionally, cranial nerves carry which kind of information?

A) Motor and sensory

B) Motor only

C) Sensory only

D) Sympathetic only

Q2) Which neurotransmitter is most often used by postganglionic neurons in the sympathetic nervous system?

A) Dopamine

B) Serotonin

C) Acetylcholine

D) Norepinephrine

Q3) The term pons (meaning "bridge") is named as such because:

A) the sensory and motor neurons connect with each other.

B) passing axons skip over the pons.

C) axons within the pons cross over from one side to the other.

D) neurons compete with one another, as in the game of bridge.

Q4) The parasympathetic nervous system activates the "fight or flight" response.

A)True

B)False

Q5) Name the major parts of the ventricular system.

Page 6

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Chapter 5: Development and Plasticity of the Brain

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Sample Questions

Q1) A lesion in the hypothalamus can lead to decreased activity in the cerebral cortex, even though the cerebral cortex is undamaged. The decreased activity in the cortex because of the loss of incoming neurons is called:

A) diaschisis.

B) deafferentation.

C) cytotoxicity.

D) hyperpolarization.

Q2) Which of the following would most likely interfere with migration of neurons during development?

A) altering the chemical paths

B) damaging dendrites

C) loss of myelin

D) increased differentiation

Q3) After deafferenting a monkey's forelimb, it generally fails to use it because:

A) the muscles are too weak.

B) moving it is painful.

C) they have no motor control in the limb.

D) walking on three limbs is easier than moving the impaired limb.

Q4) Define myelination during neural development.

Q5) Describe how axons reach their targets during development.

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Chapter 6: Vision

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Sample Questions

Q1) What would be the likely outcome of a person who was blind at birth, and had vision restored later in life by the removal of cataracts (clouded lenses)?

A) quick development of normal vision

B) trouble describing the shapes of objects

C) trouble identifying the location of light

D) inability to use touch and sound cues to maneuver around in a building

Q2) Parvocellular cells respond strongly to moving stimuli and large overall patterns.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Rods are to ____ as cones are to ____.

A) the periphery; the fovea

B) red; blue

C) vertebrates; invertebrates

D) reading text; reading road signs

Q4) Which ganglion cells, if any, are located mostly in or near the fovea?

A) Parvocellular

B) Magnocellular

C) Koniocellular

D) They are all distributed equally.

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Chapter 7: The Other Sensory Systems

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Sample Questions

Q1) The scala vestibuli makes up part of the:

A) tympanic membrane.

B) cochlea.

C) middle ear.

D) ossicles.

Q2) The receptors for taste are not true neurons, but are actually modified skin cells. In what way are these cells like neurons?

A) Once taste receptors die, they are never replaced.

B) They release neurotransmitters.

C) They have axons.

D) They are covered with a myelin sheath.

Q3) The miracle of miracle berries is that after eating them:

A) they become tasteless.

B) salty substances taste sour.

C) you don't gain any weight.

D) sour substances can taste sweet.

Q4) Pain axons release what two neurotransmitters in the spinal cord?

Q5) Taste receptors are continually being replaced.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 8: Movement

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Sample Questions

Q1) Early symptoms of Huntington's disease usually include:

A) paralysis.

B) jerky arm movements and body tremors.

C) rapid fatigue.

D) difficulty coordinating the left hand with the right hand.

Q2) Parkinson's disease is caused by degeneration of a pathway of neurons that releases which neurotransmitter?

A) Acetylcholine

B) Substance P

C) Serotonin

D) Dopamine

Q3) The part of the cortex that responds mostly to the sensory signals that lead to a movement is the:

A) premotor cortex.

B) prefrontal cortex.

C) supplementary motor cortex.

D) tabes dorsalis.

Q4) Describe the significance of mirror neurons.

Q5) Briefly describe the cellular organization of the cerebellum.

Q6) How do fast and slow-twitch muscle fibers differ?

Page 10

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Chapter 9: Wakefulness and Sleep

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Sample Questions

Q1) A small branch of the optic nerve, known as the ____ extends directly from the retina to the SCN.

A) opticthalamic path

B) retinohypothalamic path

C) opticretinal path

D) retinothalamic path

Q2) Melatonin is released by the SCN.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Orexin, produced by neurons in the hypothalamus, appears to be necessary for:

A) getting to sleep.

B) waking up.

C) raising body temperature.

D) staying awake.

Q4) The role of the reticular formation in arousal is that it is:

A) the single, critical system in arousing the cortex.

B) only one of several systems involved in arousal.

C) activated only by external stimuli.

D) activated only by internal stimuli.

Q5) List some examples of "zeitgebers".

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Chapter 10: Internal Regulation

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Sample Questions

Q1) In the control of appetite, CCK, leptin, and insulin converge their effects onto hypothalamic cells that release transmitters in the ____ family.

A) melanocortin

B) endorphin

C) acetylcholine

D) purine

Q2) Humans are a partial exception to which rule?

A) Adults can all drink milk.

B) They all have a declining level of lactose tolerance as they age.

C) All children limit dairy products.

D) Milk causes stomach cramps in all humans.

Q3) The two types of thirst are ____ and ____.

A) osmotic thirst; hypervolemic thirst

B) osmotic thirst; hypovolemic thirst

C) hypovolemic thirst; set point thirst

D) vasopressin thirst; osmotic thirst

Q4) The paraventricular nucleus normally inhibits meal size.

A)True

B)False

Q5) How does cholecystokinin limit meal size?

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Chapter 11: Reproductive Behaviors

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Sample Questions

Q1) If a female rat is exposed to highly stressful experiences late in pregnancy, what happens to the sexual development of her offspring?

A) The genetic males become responsive to male partners.

B) The genetic females become responsive to female partners.

C) Both male and female offspring become unresponsive to all sexual partners.

D) Both male and female offspring become highly aggressive in their sexual behaviors.

Q2) When do the organizing effects of sex hormones occur in rats?

A) well before birth

B) shortly before and after birth

C) during their juvenile period

D) at approximately two months of age

Q3) Sexual orientation has been linked to all of the following EXCEPT:

A) prenatal stress.

B) mother's immune system.

C) genetics.

D) adult hormone levels.

Q4) The sex hormones include the estrogens, progesterone, and the androgens.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 12: Emotional Behaviors

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Sample Questions

Q1) The common measure of fear or anxiety that is popular because it can be used with non-humans as well as humans is:

A) facial expressions.

B) the startle response.

C) spontaneous muscle twitches.

D) hyperventilation.

Q2) Someone who had developed a tolerance to alcohol is likely to show a cross-tolerance to:

A) benzodiazepines.

B) amphetamines.

C) lithium.

D) antidepressants.

Q3) Many cells in the amygdala get input from sensory modalities, especially the ____ nuclei.

A) basolateral and central

B) lateral and medial

C) hypothalamic

D) brain stem

Q4) Describe the action of the HPA axis during stress.

Q5) Describe the role of serotonin synapses in aggressive behavior.

Page 14

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Chapter 13: The Biology of Learning and Memory

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Sample Questions

Q1) A person with damage to their cerebellum may experience several problems, including:

A) poor eyesight.

B) inability to be classically conditioned.

C) weakened conditioned eye blinks.

D) exaggerated eye blinking.

Q2) As with Korsakoff's patients, Alzheimer's patients have impairments in ____ memory, but are relatively unimpaired in ____ memory.

A) short-term; long-term

B) implicit; explicit

C) procedural; declarative

D) declarative; procedural

Q3) Lashley found that a deep cut in a rat's cerebral cortex completely eliminated the effects of learning under what circumstances, if any?

A) if the cut was made after the learning

B) if the learned task was simple

C) if the learned task was complex

D) under none of the circumstances he studied

Q4) Describe the difference between declarative and procedural memory.

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Chapter 14: Cognitive Functions

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Sample Questions

Q1) The nonhuman species that has made the most spectacular progress toward learning to communicate by an approximation of human language is the:

A) common chimpanzee.

B) bonobo chimpanzee.

C) gorilla.

D) dolphin.

Q2) Children are asked to feel two fabrics and to determine whether they are the same or different. This is more difficult for ____ children who have to feel the fabrics with ____.

A) younger; the same hand

B) younger; different hands

C) older; the same hand

D) older; different hands

Q3) The left hemisphere of the human brain receives visual input from the:

A) retina of the left eye.

B) retina of the right eye.

C) left half of each retina.

D) right half of each retina.

Q4) Neurologically, severe epilepsy is a condition characterized by what activity?

Q5) What is Broca's apahsia?

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Chapter 15: Mood Disorders and Schizophrenia

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Sample Questions

Q1) What is curious about the psychotic effects of phencyclidine (angel dust)?

A) The hallucinations tend to be auditory.

B) The hallucinations are more intense in females.

C) Consuming alcohol lessens the psychotic experiences.

D) The effects are minor or absent in preadolescents.

Q2) For someone who has recovered from schizophrenia, PCP:

A) induces a long-lasting recovery.

B) induces a long-lasting relapse.

C) is quite ineffective in inducing behavioral changes.

D) produces depression instead.

Q3) Lithium is most commonly prescribed for which disorder?

A) seasonal affective disorder

B) endogenous depression

C) reactive depression

D) bipolar disorder

Q4) St. John's wort appears to act in the same way as:

A) SSRIs.

B) atypical antidepressants.

C) tricyclics.

D) antipsychotics.

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