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Course Introduction
Human Movement Science explores the physiological, biomechanical, and psychological principles underlying human motion. This course examines the structure and function of the musculoskeletal, nervous, and cardiorespiratory systems, and how they interact to produce and control movement. Students learn to analyze movement patterns, assess factors that influence performance, and apply this knowledge to improve health, prevent injury, and enhance athletic or everyday activities. The course integrates concepts from anatomy, kinesiology, motor learning, and exercise science, preparing students for advanced study or careers related to physical therapy, sports science, and rehabilitation.
Recommended Textbook
Clinical Kinesiology and Anatomy 5th Edition by Lynn S. Lippert PT MS
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Q1) Sliding your foot under your chair to prepare to stand involves knee
A) flexion.
B) extension.
C) inversion.
D) abduction.
Answer: A
Q2) Turning your head to look over your left shoulder involves cervical
A) left rotation.
B) right rotation.
C) left lateral bend.
D) right lateral bend.
Answer: A
Q3) When a person steps forward to release a bowling ball,what type of motion of the body is occurring?
A) Angular motion
B) Linear motion
C) Kinematic motion
D) Torque motion
Answer: B
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Q1) A bone marking that consists of a sharp ridge or border is called a A) foramen.
B) crest.
C) head.
D) fossa.
Answer: B
Q2) The type of bone that makes up most of the appendicular skeleton is the A) irregular bone.
B) flat bone.
C) long bone.
D) sesamoid bone.
Answer: C
Q3) A bone marking that consists of a hollow or depression is called a A) foramen.
B) crest.
C) head.
D) fossa.
Answer: D
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Q1) A broad,flat tendinous sheet is called
A) linea alba.
B) aponeurosis.
C) elastic cartilage.
D) labrum.
Answer: B
Q2) Joints serve which of the following functions?
A) Bear weight and provide stability
B) Allow motion
C) Contain fluid that lubricates and nourishes the cartilage
D) All of the above
Answer: D
Q3) Which of the following types of joints is NOT a fibrous joint?
A) Gomphosis
B) Synarthrosis
C) Synovial joint
D) Syndesmosis
Answer: C
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Q1) Hip abduction is an example of which type of motion?
A) Arthrokinematic
B) Osteokinematic
C) Angular
D) Torque
Q2) According to the convex-concave law,the convex femoral head during hip flexion moves in which direction in relation to the direction the femur moves?
A) Same direction
B) Opposite direction
C) First the same direction,then the opposite direction at the end of the movement D) It depends on whether the person is standing or lying down.
Q3) The loose-packed position of the hip is best described as
A) 30 degrees flexion,30 degrees abduction,and slight external rotation.
B) full extension.
C) full extension and internal rotation.
D) full flexion.
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT true of an eccentric contraction?
A) Contraction produces a greater force than a concentric contraction.
B) Contraction is used as an acceleration activity.
C) Muscle attachments move farther apart.
D) Movement occurs with gravity.
Q2) The ability of a muscle to respond to a stimulus is referred to as which of the following?
A) Irritability
B) Contractility
C) Extensibility
D) Elasticity
Q3) The deltoid muscle can effectively contract through its entire ROM because of the upward rotation of the scapula,which serves to maintain tension in the deltoid muscle.If the deltoid loses tension,it becomes
A) passively insufficient.
B) actively insufficient.
C) noncontractile.
D) None of the above
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Q1) A person experiencing "ape hand" has damage to which of the following nerves?
A) Radial nerve
B) Median nerve
C) Femoral nerve
D) Common peroneal nerve
Q2) A person with weakness of knee extension has damage to which of the following nerves?
A) Radial nerve
B) Median nerve
C) Femoral nerve
D) Common peroneal nerve
Q3) At which level of the spinal column is damage to the spinal cord no longer a concern?
A) C7
B) T8
C) T10
D) L1
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Q1) The joining of vessels to provide alternate circulation in case of a blood vessel blockage is referred to as which of the following?
A) Aneurysm
B) Anastomosis
C) Arteriole
D) Angion
Q2) The main branch artery that supplies blood to the forearm and hand is which of the following?
A) Radial and ulnar
B) Axillary
C) Subclavian
D) Internal iliac
Q3) The main branch artery that supplies blood to the knee is which of the following?
A) External iliac
B) Femoral
C) Posterior tibial
D) Popliteal
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Q1) If a PTA wishes to manually resist the knee extensors for an athlete and wishes to make the exercise as difficult as possible for the client,the best placement of her hand would be which of the following?
A) Proximal to the knee joint
B) Just distal to the tibial tuberosity
C) Midpoint of the tibia
D) Just proximal to the talus
Q2) Most concentric exercises done in the body are considered to be which type of lever?
A) First class
B) Second class
C) Third class
D) Fourth class
Q3) Two forces acting in equal but opposite directions and resulting in a turning effect is called a
A) stabilizing force.
B) dislocating force.
C) moment of force.
D) force couple.
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Q1) A client who needs a stretch to the middle trapezius and rhomboids must position the scapula in which of the following positions?
A) Scapular protraction
B) Scapular retraction
C) Scapular depression
D) Scapular downward rotation
Q2) The levator scapula and rhomboids have which of the following motions in common?
A) Elevation
B) Depression
C) Upward rotation
D) Depression.
Q3) Weakness of the pectoralis minor muscle could indicate trauma to which of the following nerves?
A) Cranial nerve XI
B) Dorsal scapular nerve
C) Long thoracic nerve
D) Medial pectoral nerve
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Q1) Which of the following muscles perform shoulder hyperextension?
A) Teres major
B) Anconeus
C) Latissimus dorsi
D) Infraspinatus
Q2) Which muscle originates on the lateral clavicle,the top of the acromion,and the scapular spine and inserts on the midpoint of the humerus on the lateral side?
A) All fibers of the deltoid
B) All fibers of the trapezius
C) All fibers of the pectoralis major
D) Latissimus dorsi
Q3) The reason you have your client laterally rotate his shoulder when moving between 90 and 180 degrees of shoulder abduction is to prevent what structure from hitting the acromion process?
A) Deltoid tuberosity
B) Lesser tubercle
C) Adductor tubercle
D) Greater tubercle
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Q1) The position of the elbow and shoulder that could potentially make the biceps brachii muscle actively insufficient would be which of the following?
A) Shoulder extension and elbow flexion
B) Shoulder flexion and elbow extension
C) Shoulder flexion and elbow flexion
D) Shoulder extension and elbow extension
Q2) Weakness of the triceps brachii muscle could indicate trauma to which of the following nerves?
A) Musculocutaneous nerve
B) Median nerve
C) Ulnar nerve
D) Radial nerve
Q3) Which muscle originates on the humeral medial epicondyle and proximal ulna and spans the elbow anteriorly to attach on the lateral surface of the radius near its midpoint?
A) Supinator
B) Pronator teres
C) Anconeus
D) Brachialis
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Q1) Which muscle originates on the medial epicondyle of the humerus and inserts on the palmar fascia?
A) Palmaris longus
B) Extensor carpi radialis longus
C) Flexor carpi ulnaris
D) Extensor carpi ulnaris
Q2) Which muscle originates on the lateral epicondyle of the humerus and inserts at the base of the third metacarpal?
A) Palmaris longus
B) Extensor carpi radialis longus
C) Extensor carpi radialis brevis
D) Extensor carpi ulnaris
Q3) If the emphasis for the above exercise is eccentric strengthening,how would you instruct your client to pace the exercise?
A) Emphasis on the "up" motion
B) Emphasis on the "down" motion
C) Both directions will work the muscle eccentrically.
D) Emphasis on holding the wrist in neutral position for 5 to 10 seconds
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Q1) The intrinsic muscle mass on the little finger side of the palm is made up of which set of muscles?
A) Thenar muscles
B) Radial muscles
C) Opponens muscles
D) Hypothenar muscles
Q2) Carpal tunnel syndrome involves compression of which of the following nerves?
A) Radial
B) Ulnar
C) Median
D) Brachial
Q3) With the palm down on the table,raise the second finger off the table.This requires muscle action of the
A) flexor digitorum longus.
B) flexor indicis.
C) extensor indicis.
D) extensor digiti minimi.
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Q1) Which prime movers of the TMJ are innervated by the facial nerve?
A) Temporalis
B) Masseter
C) Lateral pterygoid
D) None of the above
Q2) The TMJ motion named for opening of the mouth is which of the following?
A) Elevation
B) Depression
C) Lateral deviation
D) Retrusion
Q3) Protraction is primarily achieved by which of the following muscles?
A) Lateral pterygoid
B) Medial pterygoid
C) Masseter
D) A and B
Q4) All of the following muscles are prime movers in mandibular elevation EXCEPT the A) lateral pterygoid.
B) medial pterygoid.
C) temporalis.
D) masseter.

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Q1) The trunk muscle whose primary function is compression of abdominal contents is the
A) rectus abdominis.
B) internal oblique.
C) external oblique.
D) transverse abdominis.
Q2) The trunk muscle that originates on the pubis and inserts on the costal cartilages of the fifth,sixth,and seventh ribs is the
A) external oblique.
B) internal oblique.
C) transverse abdominis.
D) rectus abdominis.
Q3) Which muscle originates on the transverse process of a vertebra and inserts on the spinous process of the vertebra above?
A) Interspinalis
B) Intertransversarii
C) Transversospinalis
D) Erector spinae
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Q1) A person with a spinal cord injury above which of the following levels would require ventilator dependency?
A) L1
B) T8
C) C6
D) C3
Q2) You read in a trauma patient's chart that he has rib fractures and a collapsed lung.Another term for collapsed lung is which of the following?
A) Pneumothorax
B) Pneumonia
C) Pleurisy
D) Hyperventilation
Q3) The most inferior tip of the sternum is called the A) xiphoid process.
B) manubrium.
C) demifacet.
D) tubercle.
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Q1) A normal finding for a lumbosacral angle would be which of the following?
A) 10 degrees
B) 30 degrees
C) 45 degrees
D) 60 degrees
Q2) A person with tight hamstrings will likely adopt which of the following compensatory postures?
A) Posterior tilt of pelvis and flattened lumbar curve
B) Anterior tilt of pelvis and lumbar curve hyperextension
C) Posterior tilt of pelvis and lumbar curve hyperextension
D) Anterior tilt of pelvis and flattened lumbar curve
Q3) The muscle groups activated when you have a patient do a supine posterior pelvic tilt are the
A) hip flexors and trunk flexors.
B) hip flexors and trunk extensors.
C) hip eExtensors and trunk flexors.
D) Hip extensors and trunk flexors.
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Q1) Which muscle has its distal attachment on the pes anserine with the gracilis and the sartorius?
A) Semitendinosus
B) Adductor magnus
C) Tensor fascia latae
D) Semimembranosus
Q2) Which muscle originates on the ischium and pubis and inserts on the entire linea aspera and adductor tubercle?
A) Adductor brevis
B) Adductor longus
C) Adductor magnus
D) Vastus lateralis
Q3) Trauma to the femoral nerve could impair any of the following muscles EXCEPT the A) sartorius.
B) pectineus.
C) gluteus maximus.
D) rectus femoris.
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Q1) The knee extensor that is located deep to the rectus femoris is the
A) popliteus.
B) vastus medialis.
C) semimembranosus.
D) vastus intermedialis.
Q2) The quadriceps muscles are all innervated by which of the following nerves?
A) Tibial nerve
B) Common peroneal nerve
C) Sciatic nerve
D) Femoral nerve
Q3) Lying supine,instruct your client to move the right leg toward the ceiling,keeping the right knee straight.What type of contraction is occurring with the right quadriceps muscles?
A) Isokinetic
B) Isometric
C) Concentric
D) Eccentric
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Q1) With an ankle sprain,the most common direction of the twist and the tissue damaged is which of the following?
A) Rolling to an everted position and spraining the deltoid ligament
B) Rolling to an everted position and spraining the lateral ligament
C) Rolling to an inverted position and spraining the deltoid ligament
D) Rolling to an inverted position and spraining the lateral ligament
Q2) You are asked to strengthen the muscles that support the arch of the foot (stirrup muscles).You would choose exercises for which of the following pairs of muscles?
A) Peroneus longus and anterior tibialis
B) Anterior tibialis and posterior tibialis
C) Peroneus longus and extensor hallucis longus
D) Peroneus longus and peroneus brevis
Q3) Shin splints is an overuse syndrome that can be caused by which of the following?
A) Sports that involve repetitive jumping
B) Running on tiptoes
C) Running on hard surfaces
D) Any of the above
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Q1) In observing standing posture,you note a flattened longitudinal arch of the foot.You would document this as which of the following?
A) Pes planus
B) Pes cavus
C) Claw toe
D) Hammer toe
Q2) Which two spinal curves are considered to be the secondary (antigravity)curves?
A) Cervical and thoracic
B) Thoracic and sacral
C) Cervical and lumbar
D) Lumbar and sacral
Q3) Pressure on the vertebral discs is greatest in which of the following positions?
A) Supine
B) Side-lying
C) Seated
D) Standing upright
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Q1) A gait pattern characterized by a wide base of support and unsteady movements is called
A) Parkinsonian gait.
B) scissors gait.
C) ataxic gait.
D) antalgic gait.
Q2) Your patient has a tendency to cross the unsupported limb in front of the other during swing phase.This could indicate spasticity of which of the following muscle groups?
A) Hip flexors
B) Hip adductors
C) Knee extensors
D) Ankle plantar flexors
Q3) If you are describing a gait abnormality that occurs when the heel leaves the ground but the ball of the foot and toes remain in contact with the ground,you are speaking of which portion of the stance phase?
A) Initial contact
B) Midstance
C) Terminal stance
D) Terminal swing
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