Human Microbiology
Mock Exam
Course Introduction
Human Microbiology is an in-depth study of microorganisms that interact with the human body, including bacteria, viruses, fungi, and protozoa. The course explores the roles these microbes play in health, disease, and the human microbiome, emphasizing mechanisms of pathogenicity, host immune responses, and the impact of microbiological techniques on diagnosis and treatment. Topics include microbial structure and function, infection processes, epidemiology, sterilization and control methods, antimicrobial therapies, and emerging infectious diseases. Through laboratory exercises and case studies, students gain practical skills and critical insights into the complex relationships between humans and microorganisms.
Recommended Textbook
Microbiology The Human Experience Preliminary Edition by John W. Foster
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Chapter 1: Microbes Shape Our History
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Q1) In 1884,the Gram stain was devised to distinguish bacteria from ________ cells.
Answer: human
Q2) What would John Tyndall have needed to use to disprove the theory of spontaneous generation with his experiments?
A) a swan-neck flask
B) a microscope
C) an autoclave
D) organic media
Answer: C
Q3) Regarding the natural source for the production of antibiotics,the best weapon we have against pathogenic microorganisms is
A) medical doctors.
B) acclaimed scientific researchers.
C) other microorganisms that can exist with the pathogenic microorganisms.
D) the CDC.
Answer: C
Q4) The involvement of bacteria in ________ explains why their presence is essential to the continued existence of plants and animals.
Answer: geochemical cycling
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Chapter 2: Basic Concepts of Infectious Disease
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Q1) An island nation normally has low background level of cholera.After an earthquake,sanitation is disrupted and cholera cases spike to high levels on the island but not in other areas of the world.The spike in cholera cases is an example of a(n)
A) endemic disease.
B) epidemic disease.
C) pandemic disease.
D) opportunistic infection.
Answer: B
Q2) A mosquito can transmit a viral pathogen into humans.The mosquito is an example of a(n)
A) fomite.
B) symptom.
C) vector.
D) endoparasite.
Answer: C
Q3) The ability of a microbe to attach to a body surface is known as ________.
Answer: 1 one
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Chapter 3: Observing Microbes
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Q1) Bacteria that grow as rods are commonly referred to as ________,whereas bacteria that grow as spheres are known as ________.
Answer: bacilli;cocci
Q2) In the Gram stain,which step is critical in differentiating Gram-positive from Gram-negative cells?
A) crystal violet
B) safranin
C) mordant
D) ethanol
Answer: D
Q3) Assume you stain Bacillus with malachite green with heat and then counterstain with safranin.Through the microscope,the green structures are
A) cell walls.
B) capsules.
C) endospores.
D) bacteria.
Answer: C
Q4) Magnification without increase in resolution is called ________.
Answer: empty magnification
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Chapter 4: Living Chemistry: From Atoms to Cells
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Q1) What is osmosis and why is it important for cells to maintain osmotic balance?
Q2) Fill in the blanks with the pair of words below that make the sentence correct. ________ takes up small extracellular particles via membrane invaginations while ________ takes up larger particles.
A) Endocytosis;phagocytosis
B) Phagocytosis;endocytosis
C) A pseudopod;endocytosis
D) A pseudopod;a lysosome
Q3) DNA is synthesized by enzymes that use which of the following as substrates?
A) NTPs
B) dNTPs
C) NDPs
D) dNDPs
Q4) A molecule of ATP undergoes hydrolysis yielding AMP and two molecules of phosphate.Which of the following is true of this reaction?
A) The entropy has decreased.
B) The change in free energy,DG,is positive.
C) The change in free energy,DG,is negative.
D) The reaction is endergonic.
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Chapter 5: Cell Biology of Bacteria and Eukaryotes
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Q1) What is the cellular target of penicillin (the first antibiotic discovered)?
A) the DNA genome
B) the cell wall
C) ribosomes
D) ABC transporters
Q2) Which organelle is NOT part of the endomembrane system?
A) mitochondrion
B) lysosome
C) peroxisome
D) Golgi complex
Q3) What evidence would suggest that a newly discovered eukaryotic organelle was formed via endosymbiosis?
Q4) Compare and contrast the Gram-negative and Gram-positive cell envelopes.
Q5) Which of the following is FALSE of teichoic acids?
A) They reinforce the cell wall.
B) They may help pathogens attach to host cells.
C) They are recognized by the host immune system.
D) They repel the Gram stain.
Q6) Explain how bacterial cells can divide so rapidly,some in as little as ten minutes between generations.
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Bacterial Growth, Nutrition, and Differentiation
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Q1) Fastidious organisms would be best grown on which type of media?
A) enriched
B) synthetic
C) minimal
D) selective
Q2) If an error occurred during the sporulation process and small acid-soluble proteins were not included in the spore,what would be the effect?
A) The spore would only exist for 100 years.
B) The spore will be more likely to germinate.
C) The spore will be less resistant to heat.
D) The spore will be less resistant to ultraviolet light.
Q3) Which of the following can be used to directly count bacterial cells without the use of a microscope?
A) viable counts
B) optical density
C) fluorescence-activated cell sorter
D) Petroff-Hauser counting chamber
Q4) Explain what effect the loss of heterotrophs would have on the carbon cycle and the world.
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Chapter 7: Bacterial Metabolism
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Q1) Which of the following is true of metabolic reactions?
A) They are all catalyzed by enzymes.
B) They all release energy.
C) Reactions are unique to particular organisms.
D) They always use or produce ATP.
Q2) Which of the following is true of nitrogen fixation?
A) It requires ATP but not reducing agents.
B) It requires reducing agents but not ATP.
C) It is an important reaction carried out by organisms in all three domains of life.
D) Only prokaryotes have the metabolic capability to fix nitrogen.
Q3) In a metabolic reaction involving the conversion of NADH to NAD
A) NADH loses electrons and gains energy.
B) NADH gains electrons and gains energy.
C) NADH loses electrons and loses energy.
D) NADH gains electrons and loses energy.
Q4) Why does sugar production from CO require NADPH in addition to ATP? In other words,why is ATP not sufficient?
Q5) The Embden-Myerhof-Parnas (EMP)pathway is also known as ________.
Q6) Biosynthetic reactions are also known as ________ reactions.
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Bacterial Genetics and Biotechnology
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Q1) PrfA protein is a global regulator of virulence genes in Listeria,a bacterium that can cause severe food poisoning.Below host body temperatures PrfA mRNA exists in a conformation that hides the ribosome binding site.Upon entry into a host and a rise in temperature,hydrogen bonds in the mRNA break,exposing the ribosome binding site.What level of gene regulation is seen here?
A) changing the DNA sequence
B) transcription control
C) translation control
D) posttranslational control
Q2) What energy source is used to drive translation?
A) ATP
B) GTP
C) NADPH
D) the energy released when peptide bonds form
Q3) Which of the following is NOT normally found in human cells?
A) cDNA
B) DNA
C) mRNA
D) tRNA
Q4) Transcription of genes starts at regions of the genome called ________.
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Chapter 9: Bacterial Genomes and Evolution
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Q1) ________ is important for analyzing and comparing the genomic sequences of organisms.
Q2) Which of the following domains of life contain ether linkages in their membranes?
A) viral
B) eukarya
C) bacteria
D) archaea
Q3) Wolbachia appears to be developing into a(n)________ of its host.
A) mitochondria
B) chloroplast
C) organelle
D) endosymbiont
Q4) Which of the following does NOT lead to divergence?
A) fossilization
B) mutations
C) transposition
D) transduction
Q5) Ancient ________ give evidence to the fact that all life originated from microorganisms.
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Chapter 10: Bacterial Diversity
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Q1) Describe the two developmental stages of the Chlamydias.
Q2) Which of the following does NOT accurately describe Pseudomonas aeruginosa?
A) causes opportunist infections in human surgical wounds
B) may form biofilms on pulmonary lining of cystic fibrosis patients
C) commonly grows in soil as a decomposer
D) may infect fleas,which transmit P.aeruginosa to humans
Q3) A blue-green bloom of cyanobacteria leads to an ocean beach closure.What is the primary concern?
A) Cyanobacteria indicate the presence of fecal matter in the water,which could lead to intestinal illnesses.
B) Cyanobacteria are frequently pathogenic and could infect swimming humans.
C) Liver-damaging toxins produced by cyanobacteria could affect humans who come in contact with the water.
D) Cyanobacteria consume oxygen in the water,and fish begin accumulating toxins as oxygen levels drop.
Q4) Explain how changes in a bacterial genome could cause a nonpathogenic bacterium to develop into a pathogen.
Q5) The form of a Chlamydia species outside of a host cell is referred to as a(n)________ body.
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Chapter 11: Eukaryotic Microbes and Invertebrate Infectious Agents
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Q1) One drug target for antifungals is the membrane lipid
A) chitin.
B) hyphae.
C) triazole.
D) ergosterol.
Q2) A free-living soil ameba may contaminate contact lens solutions and cause amebic keratitis.What is the genus name of one common causative agent of amebic keratitis?
A) Acanthamoeba
B) Entamoeba
C) Babesia
D) Toxoplasma
Q3) Why is it frequently more difficult to treat fungal infections in humans than it is to treat bacterial infections?
A) The cells found in fungi and humans are more similar than cells of bacteria and humans.
B) Humans have not developed medications capable of targeting fungi.
C) Fungi normally grow in and on humans,and treating fungal infections would cause death of the human.
D) Fungi undergo evolution at a much faster rate than bacteria do.
Page 13
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Chapter 12: Viruses
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Q1) ________ is an example of a virus that causes major economic losses in the agriculture industry.
A) Tobacco mosaic virus
B) Measles virus
C) HIV
D) Influenza
Q2) Which of the following is NOT caused by an aberrant protein?
A) Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease
B) scrapie
C) hepatitis
D) kuru
Q3) Explain why the HIV virion structure contains a tRNA from the host.
Q4) Lentiviruses like HIV can be used positively for ________.
Q5) Which of the following is NOT a level of viral evolution?
A) within an organelle
B) within a host community
C) within a viral species population
D) within an individual organism
Q6) A phage genome integrated into the DNA of the bacterial host cell is known as a
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Chapter 13: Sterilization, Disinfection, and Antibiotic Therapy
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Q1) ________ is the process by which all living cells,spores,and viruses are destroyed on an object.
Q2) Which of the following does NOT affect the sensitivity of a microorganism to food irradiation?
A) genome size
B) rate of repair of DNA damage
C) whether the food is fresh or frozen
D) the presence of heat-shock enzymes
Q3) Viruses cause more illnesses on an everyday basis than do bacteria.Why are there so few antiviral agents compared to antibacterial agents?
A) Viruses are a bigger problem in developing countries where they do not have the funds to develop antiviral drugs.
B) Since viruses are not living,there are no drugs that can stop their proliferation.
C) Viruses use functions of the host to replicate themselves,so achieving selective toxicity is difficult.
D) Viruses do not cause as many deadly diseases and therefore have not been targeted with antivirals.
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Chapter 14: Normal Human Microbiota: a Delicate Balance of Power
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Q1) Explain two potential negative effects of using phage therapy to treat bacterial infections.
Q2) Sequestered body sites tend to be ________.
Q3) Which of the following forms of treatment do(es)NOT evolve as pathogens evolve?
A) phage therapy
B) fecal transplant
C) probiotics
D) antibiotics
Q4) What is wrong with the situation described below?
After vaginal delivery,a gnotobiotic mouse was moved to an axenic environment.
Q5) Describe the positive and negative side of enterotoxins.
Q6) Which of the following would NOT be a good organism choice for a vaccine delivery system?
A) Streptococcus salivarius
B) Lactobacillus acidophilus
C) Staphylococcus epidermidis
D) Staphylococcus aureus
Q8) Give an example of how our cells communicate with the microbiome. Page 16
Q7) Colonization of the stomach requires the ability to withstand ________ conditions.
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Chapter 15: The Immune System: Inflammation and Innate Immunity
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Q1) Toll-like receptors recognize ________ on pathogenic microorganisms.
Q2) Compare and contrast the innate and adaptive immune responses.
Q3) The complement cascade produces all of the following outcomes EXCEPT
A) creating pores in bacterial membranes.
B) increasing phagocytosis.
C) attracting white blood cells.
D) decreasing inflammation.
Q4) Which of the following is NOT a cardinal sign of inflammation?
A) heat
B) edema
C) pain
D) pus formation
Q5) An example of oxygen-dependent killing is
A) lactoferrin.
B) superoxide ion.
C) lysozyme.
D) defensins.
Q6) Substances that cause fever are known as ________.
18
Q7) Cytokines that have chemotactic properties are called ________.
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Chapter 16: The Immune System: Adaptive Immunity
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Q1) If you had a box of 200 beads that were different shapes and you randomly chose and linked together 3 beads,you would be performing a process analogous to the way
A) T cells are able to use 200 genes to produce 3 receptor types.
B) 200 B cells are able to produce 3 different antibodies.
C) antigens are processed by antigen-presenting cells.
D) antibody diversity is created within our bodies.
Q2) Proteins that do not require antigen processing and presentation are referred to as ________.
Q3) Why does B-cell proliferation and differentiation often require assistance from helper T cells?
A) Capping does not occur unless epitopes are found in multiple copies.
B) B cells require antigen presentation by helper T cells.
C) Microbes often destroy B-cell receptors and then B cells require help from T cells.
D) Helper T cells are required to move epitopes closer together for capping by B cells.
Q4) A two-month-old baby is found to lack class I MHC molecules.How would this defect impact an adaptive immune response?
Q5) Helper T cells display the surface antigen ________.
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Chapter 17: Immune Disorders, Tools, and Vaccines
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Q1) Which item is from the patient in a direct ELISA test?
A) antigen
B) substrate for the enzyme
C) antibodies against the antigen
D) antihuman immune serum
Q2) How does immune surveillance work inside the host?
A) Cancer cells are sought out but not destroyed.
B) The immune system is suppressed.
C) Immune cells are unable to recognize cancerous cells.
D) Cancer cells are marked with surface antigens not present on normal cells.
Q3) Patients with primary immunodeficiencies and who are immunosuppressed are prone to developing cancers.Which is the most commonly developed cancer for these patients?
A) Epstein-Barr
B) B-cell lymphomas
C) myelomas
D) mononucleosis
Q4) Draw and label the key mediators of a type 1 hypersensitivity.Be sure to indicate where medical intervention can take place.
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Chapter 18: Microbial Pathogenesis
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Q1) Most pathogenicity island genes were acquired by ________ transmission.
Q2) The purpose of the Tat protein in an HIV infection is to
A) down regulate CD4 and MHC class 1 expression.
B) inhibit virus assembly.
C) accelerate HIV transcription by the host cell.
D) protect the cell from being killed by CD8 cytotoxic cells.
Q3) All of the following are methods of microbial attachment EXCEPT A) capsids.
B) pili.
C) fimbriae.
D) type IV secretion systems.
Q4) Which of the following is true regarding type II secretion systems?
A) The type II secretion genes are homologous to the type IV pilus.
B) Type II secretion mechanisms are static with no twitching motility.
C) Proteins secreted by type II secretion systems are secreted directly out of the cell.
D) Shiga toxin is a well-known example of a protein that a type II secretion mechanism expels.
Q5) Some microbes use tiny molecular syringes called ________ to inject proteins directly into the host cytoplasm.
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Chapter 19: Infections of the Skin and Eye
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Q1) All of the following are characteristic of Pseudomonas aeruginosa EXCEPT
A) Gram-positive cell wall.
B) resistance to many types of antibiotics.
C) production of pyocyanin.
D) exotoxin production.
Q2) A 17-year-old boy has pus-filled cysts on his face and upper back.Microscopic examination reveals Gram-positive rods.This infection is caused by A) herpes simplex virus.
B) Propionibacterium acnes.
C) Staphylococcus aureus.
D) Streptococcus pyogenes.
Q3) Compare and contrast the virulence factors associated with Staphylococcus and Streptococcus.Which of these agents is the most difficult to treat? Explain your answer.
Q4) All of the following are classified as dermatophytic fungi EXCEPT
A) Malassezia.
B) Epidermophyton.
C) Trichophyton.
D) Microsporum.
Q5) Opthalmia neonatorum is a serious eye disease of infants caused by ________.
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Chapter 20: Infections of the Respiratory Tract
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Q1) A patient with a respiratory infection who is unresponsive to treatment with antibiotics,lacks a clearly defined presentation,and has seemingly unrelated symptoms
A) is more likely to be infected by a fungus than a virus or bacteria.
B) is more likely to be infected by a virus than a fungus or bacteria.
C) is most likely carrying an antibiotic-resistant form of bacteria.
D) would likely have a positive TB skin test.
Q2) A viral disease of the lower respiratory tract would likely present with A) runny nose.
B) sinus congestion.
C) facial pain.
D) cough.
Q3) An AIDS patient with a fungal infection develops meningoencephalitis,which is the most prevalent form of A) histoplasmosis.
B) coccidioidomycosis.
C) cryptococcosis. D) blastomycosis.
Q4) The two bacterial diseases of the respiratory system that are prevented by the DTaP vaccine are ________.
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Chapter 21: Systemic Infections
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Q1) A human vaccine is available to prevent A) bubonic plague.
B) salmonellosis.
C) typhoid fever.
D) Lyme disease.
Q2) Explain how Chlamydophila pneumoniae may play a role in the development of atherosclerosis.
Q3) The spirochete bacterial disease that leads to complications including arthritis and heart rhythm abnormalities and is transmitted by deer ticks is known as A) Lyme disease.
B) brucellosis.
C) tularemia.
D) bubonic plague.
Q4) Bacterial endocarditis affects the A) thinner lining of the heart.
B) muscle of the heart.
C) sac surrounding the heart.
D) lining of blood vessels exiting the heart.
Q5) Inflammation of the sac covering the heart is defined as ________.
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Chapter 22: Infections of the Digestive System
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Q1) Cynthia travels to Honduras and eats raw oysters from a small restaurant out in the middle of nowhere.After feeling sick for a while,she goes to the clinic when jaundice appears.Cynthia is very concerned that she is going to die.What does the health care worker tell her?
A) She should be fine,as the virus causing her condition is self-limited and will be cleared by her immune system.
B) She should be fine since she came in quickly and will respond well to antiviral drugs.
C) She will need to be hospitalized,but with the right treatment,she will eventually be fine.
D) She has a fatal condition.
Q2) Individuals with ________ find eating and swallowing to be painful.
A) gingivitis
B) trench mouth
C) dental caries
D) plaque
Q3) How would you distinguish between gingivitis,periodontal disease,and trench mouth?
Q4) ________ results when intestinal mucosal cells increase ion secretion.
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Chapter 23: Infections of the Urinary and Reproductive
Tracts
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Q1) What is the treatment for bacterial vaginosis?
A) oral and topical antibiotics
B) antifungals
C) antivirals
D) There is no treatment.
Q2) All of the following can cause non-sexually transmitted infections of the reproductive tract EXCEPT
A) sexual intercourse.
B) fluctuations in pH.
C) a change in vaginal microbiome.
D) IV drug abuse.
Q3) All of the following are true about a chlamydial infection EXCEPT that A) it is caused by a Gram-negative intracellular pathogen.
B) it is not very common in the United States.
C) women are usually asymptomatic.
D) the organism is able to "hitchhike" on sperm.
Q4) Primary syphilis is an inflammatory reaction at the site of infection called a
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Q5) Sperm are produced in the testes and mature inside the male in a process known as
Chapter 24: Infections of the Central Nervous System
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Q1) CASE HISTORY
In June,Mitch,a 47-year-old resident of Oklahoma,was admitted to the hospital with rapid onset of progressive dizziness,blurred vision,slurred speech,difficulty swallowing,and nausea.Findings on examination included absence of fever,drooping eyelids,facial paralysis,and impaired gag reflex.He developed breathing difficulties and required mechanical ventilation.The patient reported that during the 24 hours before onset of symptoms,he had eaten home-canned green beans and a stew containing roast beef and potatoes.Analysis of the patient's stool detected botulinum type a toxin,but no Clostridium botulinum organisms were found.The patient was hospitalized for 49 days,including 42 days on mechanical ventilation,before being discharged. Briefly describe the likely progress of Mitch's disease from exposure to hospitalization.Is antibiotic therapy likely to be useful in the treatment of Mitch's disease? Why or why not?
Q2) A pathologist detects Negri bodies while examining a brain section taken at autopsy.What was the cause of death?
A) rabies
B) poliomyelitis
C) spongiform encephalopathy
D) West Nile encephalitis
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Chapter 25: Diagnostic Clinical Microbiology
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Q1) Describe the group of bacteria classified by Lancefield classification and explain the differences that define the classifications.
Q2) Identification of the antigenic type(s)of Streptococcus pneumoniae in two patients with pneumonia is useful in
A) determining the appropriate antibiotic treatment.
B) determining whether the patients are producing antibodies.
C) identifying the source of the bacterium.
D) identifying whether the bacterium will grow easily in a laboratory.
Q3) Ten patients are diagnosed with shigellosis.Explain the importance of having a clinical laboratory identify the strains of Shigella in each patient.
Q4) Identifying infectious agents is important because
A) it costs less money to run numerous tests than to treat with antibiotics empirically. B) antibiotic-resistant bacteria are becoming a major global threat. C) pathogens must be identified before antibiotics are effective.
D) antibiotics are only effective against viruses.
Q5) API 20E test strips contain wells with media that test for specific ________ reactions.
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Chapter 26: Epidemiology: Tracking Infectious Diseases
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Q1) During the spring and summer of 2014 an online epidemiological search indicated an increase in U.S.searches for signs and symptoms associated with Ebola,a disease previously found in West Africa.What was the most likely cause of this trend?
A) Many individuals in the United States were infected with Ebola.
B) Media reports of Ebola in other countries led to online searches in the United States.
C) Individuals infected with Ebola fled to the United States.
D) An Ebola epidemic occurred within the United States.
Q2) One potential bioweapon is a virus that has been eradicated from natural populations;only two WHO-sanctioned laboratories still maintain vials of this virus.This virus is ____.
Q3) Anyone with a computer and Internet access can use Google Trends to investigate the search frequency for diseases such as influenza.What are two reasons that explain why online searches for an infectious disease will crudely track actual cases of the disease?
Q4) The etiologic agent of a microbe,the agent's reservoir,the mode of transmission,and its host make up what is known as the ______.
Q5) A disease transmitted from animals to humans is called a _______ disease.
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Chapter 27: Environmental and Food Microbiology
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Q1) What is the most available carbon-based nutrient in milk that is used by microbes during anaerobic fermentation?
A) lactose
B) glucose
C) protein
D) fat
Q2) Carbon dioxide in the atmosphere traps solar heat in a process known as the ________.
Q3) The fixed form of nitrogen (ammonium ion and ammonia)can be oxidized for energy by
A) methanogens.
B) nitrifiers.
C) lithotrophs.
D) fermenters.
Q4) Curds from milk fermentation are particularly valuable because they
A) are a source of concentrated protein.
B) contain more vitamins than milk.
C) contain acetic acid that can be used to preserve other foods.
D) have an indefinite shelf life and do not require refrigeration.
Q5) What are the three factors that control the ways in which food spoils?
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 30