Human Microbiology
Midterm Exam
Course Introduction
Human Microbiology explores the complex interactions between humans and microorganisms, focusing on the roles that bacteria, viruses, fungi, and parasites play in health and disease. The course covers fundamental principles of microbial structure, function, and genetics, as well as the mechanisms by which microbes cause disease and how the human body defends itself through the immune system. Emphasis is placed on the clinical relevance of microbiology, including routes of transmission, diagnostics, antimicrobial therapies, and the prevention and control of infectious diseases. Throughout the course, real-world applications such as emerging diseases, antibiotic resistance, and public health challenges are examined to provide a comprehensive understanding of the impact of microorganisms on human life.
Recommended Textbook
Microbiology With Diseases By Taxonomy 5th Edition Robert W. Bauman
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Page 2
Chapter 1: A Brief History of Microbiology
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Q1) The work of (Needham/Redi/Spallanzani)using infusions in sealed vials provided strong evidence that spontaneous generation does not occur.
Answer: Spallanzani
Q2) Fermentation can occur in the absence of living cells.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) An explanation of observations and data supported by the experimental results of many scientists for many years is
A) a theory.
B) a hypothesis.
C) scientific method.
D) popular opinion.
E) a control group.
Answer: A
Q4) A scientist conducts experiments to test a(n)(observation/hypothesis/theory).
Answer: hypothesis
Q5) A(n)(photosynthetic/algae/plant)organism makes its own food using light energy.
Answer: photosynthetic
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Chapter 2: The Chemistry of Microbiology
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Q1) When a base dissolves in water it releases a(n)(electron/cation/hydrogen ion).
Answer: cation
Q2) Which of the following statements about proteins is FALSE?
A) They are composed of amino acids.
B) They have multiple levels of structural organization.
C) They can be hydrophobic, hydrophilic, or both.
D) Their primary function is energy storage.
E) They are formed by dehydration synthesis reactions.
Answer: D
Q3) Which of the following is a property of water?
A) it has a high capacity for heat.
B) it is not a common reactant in metabolic reactions.
C) It is not a good solvent.
D) it is liquid in a very narrow temperature range.
E) it is a nonpolar molecule.
Answer: A
Q4) The electron shells of atoms hold eight electrons each.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Chapter 3: Cell Structure and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Fragments of (LPS/NAM/NAG)released from Gram-negative bacteria into the bloodstream produce fever and shock.
Answer: LPS
Q2) Bacterial protein synthesis can begin before the reading of the gene is complete.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) Peroxisomes contain enzymes used to digest nutrients that have been brought into the cell through phagocytosis.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q4) Some ________ use group translocation as a means of transport.
A) eukaryotes
B) bacteria
C) archaea
D) protozoa
E) eukaryotes and prokaryotes
Answer: B
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Chapter 4: Microscopy, Staining, and Classification
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Sample Questions
Q1) An important function of nomenclature is to A) facilitate unambiguous communication.
B) clarify relationships among organisms.
C) provide an understanding of evolutionary relationships.
D) define the characteristics used for classification.
E) provide a detailed description of an organism.
Q2) Discuss the ways in which light rays can be manipulated to increase resolution and/or contrast.
Q3) One-thousandth of a meter is a A) yard.
B) millimeter (mm).
C) micrometer ( m).
D) nanometer (nm).
E) centimeter (cm).
Q4) You are a scientist studying the highly specific interactions of bacteriophages with their host cells when they first encounter the cell.Discuss what microscope(s)and preparation procedures you might use for this study.
Q5) The system of taxonomy used today was originated by (Linnaeus/Darwin/Woese).(Be sure to capitalize your answer.)
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Chapter 5: Microbial Metabolism
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Q1) Electrons are transferred in the Krebs cycle in the form of (oxygen/hydrogen)atoms to NAD+ and FAD.
Q2) Which of the following can be the final electron acceptor in anaerobic respiration in bacteria?
A) nitrate only
B) pyruvic acid only
C) sulfate only
D) both nitrate and sulfate
E) nitrate, pyruvic acid, and sulfate
Q3) Amino acids are converted to substrates of the Krebs cycle by (beta-oxidation/deamination/transamination).
Q4) Reactions involving ligases are typically ________ reactions.
A) anabolic
B) catabolic
C) both anabolic and catabolic
D) neither anabolic nor catabolic
E) exergonic
Q5) The purpose of electron transport is to create a proton (concentration/gradient/pump)across a membrane that can then be used to make ATP.
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Chapter 6: Microbial Nutrition and Growth
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Q1) A(n)(autotroph/lithotroph/organotroph)uses inorganic molecules as electron donors.
Q2) The events of binary fission are I.the cell doubles in size
II.the DNA is replicated III.the cell forms a septum IV.the cell separates from its offspring
The correct order of these events is
A) I, III, II, IV.
B) II, III, I, IV.
C) IV, I, III, II.
D) II, I, III, IV.
E) I, II, IV, III.
Q3) Nitrogen fixation results in the production of atmospheric nitrogen gas (N2).
A)True
B)False
Q4) Explain how temperature and pH levels can influence microbial infections in the human body.
Q5) The (peroxide/superoxide/hydroxyl)radical is formed during the incomplete reduction of O2 during electron transport in aerobes.
Page 8
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Chapter 7: Microbial Genetics
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Q1) Prokaryotic operons typically include a(n)________ and a(n)________ with multiple genes.
A) operator; terminator
B) operator; promoter
C) promoter; repressor
D) inducer; repressor
E) CAP-binding site; inducer
Q2) The full set of genetic instructions of an organism is its (phenotype/genome/genotype).
Q3) Semiconservative DNA replication means that
A) each daughter DNA molecule is composed of one original strand and one new strand.
B) nucleotides are constantly being recycled as cells make DNA.
C) the cell can proofread its newly synthesized DNA only part of the time.
D) the sequence of a DNA molecule is preserved as it is being replicated.
E) each strand of a double-stranded DNA molecule is replicated differently.
Q4) Compare and contrast the lactose operon with the tryptophan operon.
Q5) A(n)(genome/codon/operon)is a set of prokaryotic genes that are regulated and transcribed as a unit.
Q6) The phenotype of an organism is its set of (genes/traits/chromosomes).
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Recombinant DNA Technology
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Q1) Reverse transcriptase synthesizes a DNA molecule from an RNA template.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following statements regarding vectors is FALSE?
A) Vectors are usually autonomously replicating DNA molecules.
B) A useful vector contains multiple restriction sites for insertion of DNA.
C) Vectors are generally over 100,000 base pairs in size.
D) Cloning vectors frequently contain sequences necessary for expression of inserted sequences.
E) Cloning vectors include a "marker" to facilitate identification of cells containing them.
Q3) Sticky-end fragments generated by EcoRI will hydrogen bond to any other sticky-end sequence.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Nucleic acid molecules used to deliver new genes to cells are called (plasmids/vectors/clones).
Q5) Discuss some of the impacts that tools and techniques of recombinant DNA technology have had on medicine.
Q6) Outline a procedure for producing a useful new recombinant product.
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Controlling Microbial Growth in the Environment
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Q1) A scientist develops a new medication that is a protein compound and that must be administered by injection.Which of the following would be the most effective and safest means of preparing a sterile solution of the new medication?
A) autoclaving
B) filtration
C) dilution with alcohol
D) lyophilization
E) ultraviolet irradiation
Q2) The contents of a bottle labeled "Tincture of iodine" is
A) an alcohol solution of iodine.
B) a variety of organic compounds containing iodine.
C) also known as betadine.
D) a mixture of iodine and chloramine.
E) a detergent solution of iodine.
Q3) What is the method of action of aldehydes?
A) They disrupt cytoplasmic membranes.
B) They inhibit enzymes.
C) They damage nucleic acids.
D) They disrupt membranes and enzyme function.
E) They damage proteins and DNA.
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Chapter 10: Controlling Microbial Growth in the Body: Antimicrobial Drugs
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Q1) Biofilms contribute to the spread of resistance to antimicrobials.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Antisense nucleic acids interfere with protein synthesis.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Nucleic acid analog drugs have no effect on human cell replication function.
A)True
B)False
Q4) AZT and Valaciclovir are antiviral nucleoside analogs that interfere with A) protein synthesis.
B) cell wall synthesis.
C) cell membrane component synthesis.
D) nucleic acid synthesis.
E) viral attachment.
Q5) Antiviral medications frequently block unique (proteins/enzymes/molecules)to prevent production of a new virus.
Q7) Explain the concept of selective toxicity. Page 12
Q6) Discuss the cellular factors that might make a drug's spectrum of action narrow rather than broad.
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Chapter 11: Characterizing and Classifying Prokaryotes
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Q1) Contamination with ________ is a concern because they are highly resistant to killing.
A) archaea
B) endospores
C) pleomorphs
D) vegetative cells
E) vibrios
Q2) Halophiles grow equally well in the presence or absence of high salt concentrations.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Describe the major taxonomic divisions of prokaryotic organisms.
Q4) Most of the methane produced by methanogens is oxidized by other types of bacteria before it affects Earth's climate.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The genus of pathogenic cocci responsible for a wide range of human disease and whose members grow in chains is (Staphylococcus/Streptococcus/Enterococcus).
Q6) Explain the significance of endospores.
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Chapter 12: Characterizing and Classifying Eukaryotes
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Q1) The asexual reproductive spores produced at the tips of hyphae and not enclosed in a sac are (conidiospores/ascospores/sporangiospores).
Q2) Which of the following protozoa genera helps termites digest wood?
A) Trichonympha
B) Nosema
C) Trichomonas
D) Pfiesteria
E) Naegleria
Q3) Simple eukaryotes that carry out oxygenic photosynthesis and reproduce by means of alternation of generations are known as A) algae.
B) fungi.
C) slime molds.
D) euglenids.
E) arachnids.
Q4) Fungi and insects both use the nitrogenous polysaccharide (cellulose/chitin/silica)as a protective molecule in their outer surfaces.
Q5) The vegetative stage of a protozoan is called a (cyst/trophozoite/zygote).
Q6) Describe the ways in which algae and fungi are useful microbes.
Page 15
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Chapter 13: Characterizing and Classifying Viruses, Viroids, and Prions
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Q1) One mechanism by which viruses may cause cancer is to interrupt the genetic regulatory sequences of repressor proteins.Which of the following types of viruses is most likely to be involved in causing cancer by this mechanism?
A) +ssRNA viruses
B) dsRNA viruses
C) -ssRNA viruses
D) retroviruses
E) both +ssRNA and -ssRNA viruses
Q2) Which of the following statements regarding virus taxonomy is true?
A) Viruses are classified on the basis of the taxonomy of their host organisms.
B) Virus classes are well established.
C) Some virus family names are derived from the name of an important member of the family.
D) The species epithet is a latin descriptor of the virion structure.
E) Virus classes are based on the domain of the host organism.
Q3) Most viruses cannot be seen by light microscopy.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Another term for a lysogenic phage is a (temperate/latent/prophage)phage.
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Q5) Continuous cell cultures are developed from (embryonic/haploid/neoplastic)cells.
Chapter 14: Infection, Infectious Diseases, and Epidemiology
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Q1) The bacterium that causes tuberculosis can be expelled from the lungs by a cough and remain viable in the air for an hour or more.If a person inhales the bacteria from the air,what type of transmission has occurred?
A) indirect contact
B) airborne
C) waterborne
D) foodborne
E) bodily fluid
Q2) Which of the following is a sign of disease?
A) headache
B) dizziness
C) fever
D) nausea
E) cramps
Q3) Influenza is an example of a chronic disease.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Compare and contrast analytical,descriptive and experimental epidemiology.
Page 17
Q5) The study of the cause of disease is known as (epidemiology/etiology/pathology).
Q6) Virions attach to target host cell by means of (capsules/capsids/ligands).
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Chapter 15: Innate Immunity
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Q1) The components of the second line of defense against microbes may be characterized as
A) responders to invasion.
B) passive barriers.
C) mechanisms to strengthen the first line of defense.
D) detecting the unique features of specific pathogens.
E) both passive barriers and detecting specific pathogen features.
Q2) Proteins on the surface of phagocytes called ________ aid in the detection of pathogen molecules.
A) lectins
B) TLRs
C) NOD proteins
D) lectins and C3 protein
E) both TLRs and NOD proteins
Q3) Histamine and prostaglandins are involved in inflammatory reactions.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The proportion of (plasma/leukocytes/RBCs),as determined by a differential white blood cell count,can serve as a sign of disease.
Q5) What are macrophages,and what are their functions?
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Chapter 16: Adaptive Immunity
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Q1) Class I MHC molecules are essential for
A) presentation of endogenous antigens.
B) recognition of chemokines.
C) detection of IL-2.
D) recognition of class II MHC.
E) presentation of exogenous antigens.
Q2) Adaptive immunity is sometimes also called acquired immunity.Which of the following statements provides a basis for the alternative name?
A) Lymphocytes of the adaptive immune system are highly specific for a single antigenic determinant.
B) Activated lymphocytes produce daughter cells that are identical in specificity and function.
C) To become activated, lymphocytes require exposure to the antigenic determinant for which they are specific.
D) Activated lymphocytes may persist for years in the body.
E) Lymphocytes reactive to normal body components are removed.
Q3) The (constant/end/variable)regions from the light and heavy chains of an antibody combine to form antigen-binding sites.
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Chapter 17: Immunization and Immune Testing
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Q1) Chemically or thermally modified toxins that are used for vaccination are called (adjuvants/antigens/toxoids).
Q2) Edward Jenner was the physician who first used cowpox to vaccinate individuals against smallpox.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Antisera directed against toxins are known as (antibodies/antitoxins/anti-antibodies).
Q4) The discovery of antibodies and the understanding of their actions lead to A) improved vaccine design.
B) the development of genetically engineered vaccines.
C) improved methods of immunization.
D) the development of passive immunotherapy.
E) the use of the technique known as variolation.
Q5) Discuss the concept of herd immunity and its importance in creating and maintaining a healthy population.
Q6) Agglutination tests are used to detect soluble antigens.
A)True
B)False
Q7) How has modern technology helped to produce new types of vaccines?
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Chapter 18: Immune Disorders
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Q1) Which of the following could result in hemolytic disease of the newborn?
A) Rh-negative mother and Rh-negative father
B) Rh-positive mother and Rh-positive father
C) Rh-positive mother and Rh-negative father
D) Rh-negative mother and Rh-positive father
E) either Rh-positive mother and Rh-negative father or Rh-negative mother and Rh-positive father
Q2) An agricultural worker experiences difficulty breathing which becomes progressively worse.Tests show inflammation and damage of the lung tissue,but IgE antibodies and granulocytes are in the normal ranges.With which disorder of the immune system are these signs and symptoms consistent?
A) allergic reaction
B) type III (immune complex-mediated) hypersensitivity
C) type IV (delayed) hypersensitivity
D) autoimmunity
E) acquired immunodeficiency
Q3) Although autoantibodies to nucleic acids are characteristics of (HIV/RA/SLE),many other autoantibodies are produced.
Q4) The most common type of transplant involves an (allograft/autograft/isograft).
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Chapter 19: Pathogenic Gram Positive Bacteria
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Q1) A lab report on a respiratory patient's sample contains the notation MDR-TB.What does this mean?
A) The two standard drugs for TB, isoniazid and rifampin, are not effective.
B) The patient has a mild case of TB.
C) There are almost no drugs that will treat the infection.
D) Most standard drugs for treatment of TB are recommended.
E) The bacteria responsible for the infection are moderately resistant to isoniazid and rifampin.
Q2) The bacterium Clostridium (botulinum/difficile/perfringens)is an opportunistic pathogen that can cause a severe,potentially fatal diarrhea.
Q3) Otitis media may lead to dangerous meningitis in children due to infection with A) Streptococcus agalactiae.
B) Streptococcus pneumoniae.
C) Streptococcus mutans.
D) Enterococcus.
E) Mycoplasma pneumoniae.
Q4) Bacterial food poisoning resulting from Clostridium (botulinum/difficile/perfringens)contamination is characterized by watery diarrhea accompanied by intestinal cramping but not fever,and it resolves in about a day.
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Chapter 20: Pathogenic Gram-Negative Cocci and Bacilli
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Q1) Members of the Enterobacteriaceae produce toxins known as (enterotoxins/hemolysins/siderophores)to capture iron for their use.
Q2) Unlike other Gram-negative opportunistic bacilli,Bacteroides are (aerotolerant/facultative/strict)anaerobes.
Q3) Bordetella pertussis causes disease by
A) the development of pneumonia.
B) interfering with the action of the ciliated epithelial cells of the trachea.
C) suppressing the production of mucus by the respiratory lining.
D) forming a pseudomembrane that obstructs the larynx.
E) irritating the diaphragm, which leads to severe coughing attacks.
Q4) Legionnaires' disease is diagnosed by
A) the microbe's characteristic growth on common laboratory media.
B) the microbe's staining properties under the microscope.
C) serological diagnostic procedures.
D) the clinical symptoms in infected patients.
E) the microbe's sensitivity to all antimicrobial agents.
Q5) Why is treatment with antimicrobial drugs not encouraged in patients with diarrhea caused by enteric bacteria?
Q6) Cat scratch disease is caused by Bartonella (bacilliformis/henselae/quintana).
Page 24
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Chapter 21: Rickettsias, Chlamydias, Spirochetes, and Vibrios
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Q1) Infection with ________ may result in peptic ulcers and stomach cancer.
A) Campylobacter jejuni
B) Helicobacter pylori
C) Borrelia recurrentis
D) Vibrio parahaemolyticus
E) Rickettsia rickettsii
Q2) The (body louse/cat flea/dog tick)is the primary vector of epidemic typhus.
Q3) People who handle birds infected with ________ may develop pneumonia-like disease.
A) Chlamydophila pneumonia
B) Chlamydophila psittaci
C) Chlamydia trachomatis
D) Ehrlichia chaffeensis
E) Orientia tsutsugamushi
Q4) The most important virulence factor of Vibrio cholerae is
A) the presence of two axial flagella.
B) the fact that it is oxidase positive.
C) its ability to survive in fresh water.
D) its ability to produce a potent exotoxin.
E) its ability to live in estuarine and marine environments all over the world.
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Chapter 22: Pathogenic Fungi
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Q1) An avid gardener in eastern North America begins to have a fever and cough.A sample from her lungs contains yeast cells and pus.She may be infected with
A) Amanita phalloides.
B) Blastomyces dermatitidis.
C) Claviceps purpurea.
D) Mucor.
E) Paracoccidioides brasiliensis.
Q2) The best strategy for preventing fungal disease is (avoidance/prophylatic treatment/vaccination).
Q3) Which of the following dermatophytes infects hair as well as skin?
A) Microsporum canis
B) Malassezia furfur
C) Fonsecaea pedrosoi
D) Epidermophyton floccosum
E) Trichophyton rubrum
Q4) A fungus in the genus (Candida/Penicillium/Trichophyton)has recently been recognized as an opportunistic pathogen of AIDS patients.
Q5) Compare and contrast dermatophytosis and pityriasis.
Q6) Why are mycoses among the most difficult diseases to treat?
Page 26
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Chapter 23: Parasitic Protozoa, Helminths, and Arthropod
Vectors
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Q1) Humans become infected with Fasciola by
A) ingesting cysts on vegetation.
B) consuming cysticerci in contaminated meat.
C) ingesting water contaminated with eggs.
D) the penetration of cercariae through the skin.
E) the bite of infected mosquitoes.
Q2) Which of the following regarding all of the tapeworms that infect humans is TRUE?
A) They all have non-human intermediate hosts.
B) The larva can directly infect humans upon contact with skin.
C) Humans are the normal intermediate hosts.
D) They are transmitted by insect vectors.
E) They reside in the muscle tissue of the definitive host.
Q3) Which of the following parasitic infections can be diagnosed using a blood smear?
A) African sleeping sickness
B) toxoplasmosis
C) malaria
D) African sleeping sickness and malaria
E) toxoplasmosis and malaria
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Chapter 24: Pathogenic DNA Viruses
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Q1) The disease known as molluscum contagiosum is cause by a (herpesvirus/papillomavirus/poxvirus).
Q2) Characteristic features of the herpesvirus used for diagnosis include the
A) presence of recurring lesions in the lip or genital regions.
B) presence of syncytia in infected tissue.
C) presence of recurring lesions in the lip or genital regions and syncytia in infected tissue.
D) ability of the virus to be transmitted to neonates.
E) presence of viruses intracellularly years after recovery from the infection.
Q3) A teenager shows up at a clinic with lesions on his face.The sores are raised,light-colored bumps with a waxy texture.A few similar lesions are present on the torso as well.With which of the following viruses might he be infected?
A) human herpesvirus 1
B) B19 virus
C) human herpesvirus 4
D) molluscum contagiosum
E) papillomavirus
Q4) Human herpesvirus (1/2/3/4)is usually associated with lesions on the genitalia.
Q5) Papillomaviruses are transmitted by (aerosols/direct contact/secretions).
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Chapter 25: Pathogenic RNA Viruses
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Q1) The human T-lymphotropic virus 1 causes
A) hairy cell leukemia.
B) adult acute T-cell lymphocytic leukemia.
C) Hodgkin's lymphoma.
D) hepatic cancer.
E) Burkitt's lymphoma.
Q2) Norovirus is the leading cause of viral gastroenteritis in the United States.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A distinctive characteristic of rotavirus virions is the presence of (dsRNA/-ssRNA/segemented RNA).
Q4) The common childhood illness called "hand-foot-and-mouth disease" because it causes lesions in these areas is caused by A) an echoviruse.
B) a rhinoviruse.
C) a strain of coxsackie A virus.
D) a strain of coxsackie B virus.
E) the rubella virus.
Q5) The dengue viruses are spread by (fleas/mosquitoes/ticks).
Q6) Why was the discovery of reverse transcriptase a momentous event in biology?
Page 29
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Chapter 26: Applied and Environmental Microbiology
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Q1) The process of preserving foods in brine is called (canning/pickling/salting).
Q2) Amino acid and vitamin supplements are prepared from extracts of microbial cultures.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Garlic contains an antimicrobial substance called (acetic acid/allicin/benzoic acid).
Q4) Which of the following is considered an intrinsic factor for food spoilage?
A) degree of processing
B) acidity
C) storage temperature
D) water content
E) storage packaging
Q5) Reducing the water content of food is a highly effective way of reducing food spoilage.
A)True
B)False
Q6) The anthrax attack of fall 2001 was accomplished by mailing the agent in ordinary envelopes.This method of delivery took advantage of the ability of Bacillus anthracis to produce (aerosols/endospores/spores).
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