Human Microbiology
Midterm Exam
Course Introduction
Human Microbiology explores the structure, function, and diversity of microorganisms that interact with the human body. The course examines the biology of bacteria, viruses, fungi, and protozoa, focusing on their roles in health and disease. Topics include microbial genetics, immune responses, mechanisms of pathogenicity, epidemiology of infectious diseases, and methods for diagnosis, treatment, and prevention. The impact of microbes on human health, antibiotic resistance, and strategies for controlling microbial infections are also discussed, providing students with a comprehensive understanding of microbiology in the context of human biology.
Recommended Textbook
Microbiology with Diseases by Body System 5th Edition by Robert W. Bauman
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Chapter 1: A Brief History of Microbiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Louis Pasteur demonstrated that fermentation to produce alcohol is caused by A) aerobes.
B) facultative anaerobes.
C) obligate parasites.
D) archaea.
E) prokaryotes.
Answer: B
Q2) The work of Albert Kluyver and C. B. van Niel contributed to the development of (biochemistry/epidemiology/etiology).
Answer: biochemistry
Q3) Koch's postulates can be used to determine the causes of infectious diseases.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q4) Lazzaro Spallanzani was the first scientist to provide evidence disproving the spontaneous generation of microorganisms.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Chapter 2: The Chemistry of Microbiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) The folding of a polypeptide into a three-dimensional shape is its (secondary/tertiary/quaternary) structure.
Answer: tertiary
Q2) Which of the following is an atomic particle that has no electrical charge?
A) electron
B) neutron
C) element
D) proton
E) isotope
Answer: B
Q3) Which of the following is an accurate description of ATP?
A) ATP is a form of long term energy storage.
B) ATP is a compound formed of ionic bonds.
C) ATP does not readily react with other cellular macromolecules.
D) ATP serves as a recyclable energy for cells.
E) ATP is a structural component of DNA.
Answer: D
Q4) A chemical reaction in which a water molecule is a reactant is known as a (dehydration/endothermic/hydrolysis) reaction.
Answer: hydrolysis
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Chapter 3: Cell Structure and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Some bacteria have a water-soluble outer slime layer composed of A) carbohydrate.
B) lipid.
C) peptidoglycan.
D) protein.
E) lipoteichoic acid.
Answer: A
Q2) ATP is expended in which of the following processes?
A) facilitated diffusion
B) diffusion
C) group translocation
D) active transport
E) both active transport and group translocation
Answer: E
Q3) A structural molecule found in eukaryotic cytoskeletons, flagella, cilia, and centrioles is (flagellin/tubulin/fibrin).
Answer: tubulin
Q4) The semiliquid matrix of the nucleus is called the (cytoplasm/nucleoid/nucleoplasm).
Answer: nucleoplasm
Page 5
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Chapter 4: Microscopy, Staining, and Classification
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following classification methods relies on the morphology of organisms?
A) phage typing
B) physical characteristics
C) biochemical tests
D) analysis of nucleic acids
E) serological tests
Q2) Histological samples prepared with the ________ stain may reveal the presence of abnormal cells.
A) acid-fast
B) Gram
C) simple safranin
D) methylene blue
E) hematoxylin and eosin (HE)
Q3) The total magnification using a 10 ocular and a 100 objective would be (110/1000/10000)×. (Be sure your answer is a numeral.)
Q4) Carl Woese and George Fox proposed the (phylum/domain/family), a taxon that contains multiple kingdoms.
Q5) Compare and contrast the light microscope with the electron microscope.
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Chapter 5: Microbial Metabolism
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Sample Questions
Q1) Beta-oxidation of fatty acids produces a substrate of the
A) pentose phosphate pathway.
B) protein synthesis pathways.
C) Embden-Meyerhof pathway.
D) Krebs cycle.
E) Calvin-Benson cycle.
Q2) Where is the majority of ATP generated in prokaryotic cells?
A) in the cytoplasmic membrane
B) in the cytosol
C) in the thylakoids
D) in the inner mitochondrial membrane
E) on ribosomes
Q3) Noncyclic photophosphorylation produces
A) ATP only.
B) oxygen.
C) NADPH only.
D) ATP and NADPH.
E) water and ATP.
Q4) A(n) (oxidation/reduction/transport) reaction is one in which a molecule accepts an electron.
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Chapter 6: Microbial Nutrition and Growth
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Sample Questions
Q1) Some organisms use vitamins as (oxidizers/antioxidants/peroxidases) to be able to live as aerobes.
Q2) Creating conditions in the laboratory that promote the growth of some microbes while inhibiting the growth of others is called
A) complex culturing.
B) reducing conditions.
C) enrichment culturing.
D) transport conditions.
E) differential culturing.
Q3) A growth curve plots the (concentration/number/percentage) of viable organisms in a growing population over time.
Q4) Organisms that can grow with or without oxygen present are A) obligate aerobes.
B) facultative anaerobes.
C) aerotolerant anaerobes.
D) obligate anaerobes.
E) either facultative anaerobes or aerotolerant anaerobes.
Q5) Culturing of intracellular parasites generally requires (enrichment/cell culture/low oxygen) conditions.
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Chapter 7: Microbial Genetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) If the codon AAA is changed to AAG, it still codes for the amino acid lysine; this is an example of a
A) silent mutation.
B) nonsense mutation.
C) frameshift mutation.
D) dimer formation.
E) missense mutation.
Q2) In contrast to leading strand synthesis, the lagging strand is synthesized 3' to 5', which is why it is slower.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The (codon/anticodon/loop) of a transfer RNA molecule is complementary to a codon in a messenger RNA molecule.
Q4) Nucleotide analogs cause frameshift mutations.
A)True
B)False
Q5) While studying a bacterial strain, a scientist notes a short DNA sequence between inverted repeats is present in both the chromosome and a plasmid within the cell. This sequence is most likely a(n) (phage/transposon/F plasmid).
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Chapter 8: Recombinant DNA Technology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Nucleic acid molecules used to deliver new genes to cells are called (plasmids/vectors/clones).
Q2) Which of the following is essential in PCR?
A) DNA polymerase
B) antisense RNAs
C) reverse transcriptase
D) DNA primers
E) both DNA primers and DNA polymerase
Q3) Single-strand DNA molecules are fixed to a glass slide or nylon membrane for the production of
A) microarrays.
B) DNA clones.
C) real time PCR probes.
D) FISH assays.
E) templates for Sanger sequencing.
Q4) Sticky-end fragments generated by EcoRI will hydrogen bond to any other sticky-end sequence.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Outline a procedure for producing a useful new recombinant product.
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Controlling Microbial Growth in the Environment
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Sample Questions
Q1) Slow freezing is more damaging to microbial cells than quick freezing.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Betadine contains what type of chemical agent?
A) alcohol
B) aldehyde
C) halogen
D) heavy metal
E) phenolic
Q3) Which of the following statements is TRUE of disinfectants?
A) They are effective in destroying endospores.
B) They are used on living tissue.
C) They are used for sterilization.
D) They are used on inanimate surfaces.
E) They are only effective for short periods of time (seconds to minutes).
Q4) Long-term storage of milk is made possible by ultra-high-temperature (pasteurization/sanitization/sterilization).
Q5) Ultraviolet light penetrates (more/less) effectively than gamma rays.
Q6) Microbial growth in jellies is inhibited by the (acidic/hypotonic/hypertonic) condition of the food.
Page 11
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Chapter 10:Controlling Microbial Growth in the Body: Antimicrobial Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) The therapeutic range of an antimicrobial is the
A) ratio of the dose a patient can tolerate to the effective dose.
B) range of microorganisms the antimicrobial effects.
C) range of concentrations at which the antimicrobial is both effective and non-toxic.
D) ratio of the concentration of antimicrobial in the blood to the oral dose.
E) length of time the medication persists in the body after a single dose.
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a target of drugs that inhibit protein synthesis?
A) the shape of the 30S ribosomal subunit
B) interference with alanine-alanine bridges
C) the enzymatic site of the 50S ribosomal subunit
D) movement of the ribosome from one codon to the next
E) the tRNA docking site
Q3) Disruption of the normal microbiota can result in infections caused by which of the following microbes?
A) Mycobacterium
B) Candida albicans
C) Clostridium difficile
D) Streptococcus
E) both Candida albicans and Clostridium difficile
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Characterizing and Classifying Prokaryotes
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Q1) Some members of the alphaproteobacteria produce a structure called a (filament/prostheca/pilus) to produce extra surface area for nutrient absorption.
Q2) Describe the major taxonomic divisions of prokaryotic organisms.
Q3) The most common form of reproduction among prokaryotes is (budding/binary/snapping) fission.
Q4) A species of the genus Streptococcus is the leading cause of A) tuberculosis.
B) urinary tract infections.
C) contaminated milk and meat.
D) "flesh-eating" bacterial infections.
E) food poisoning from rice.
Q5) Which of the following bacterial genera is useful for the degradation of environmental pollutants?
A) Actinomyces
B) Streptomyces
C) Corynebacterium
D) Rhizobium
E) Nocardia
Q6) Explain the significance of endospores.
Page 13
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Chapter 12: Characterizing and Classifying Eukaryotes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Describe the ways in which algae and fungi are useful microbes.
Q2) Crossing over between chromosomes occurs during which stage of meiosis?
A) prophase I
B) prophase II
C) metaphase I
D) anaphase I
E) metaphase II
Q3) Which of the following pairs is MISMATCHED?
A) Diplomonadida; two nuclei
B) Rhizaria; pseudopodia
C) Parabasala; two mitochondria
D) Euglenids; flagellum
E) Ciliophora; cilia
Q4) Single-celled eukaryotes lacking a cell wall are
A) protozoa.
B) fungi.
C) algae.
D) insects.
E) water molds.
Q5) Compare and contrast slime molds and water molds.
Page 14
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Chapter 13: Characterizing and Classifying Viruses, Viroids, and Prions
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Q1) Which of the following statements regarding virus taxonomy is true?
A) Viruses are classified on the basis of the taxonomy of their host organisms.
B) Virus classes are well established.
C) Some virus family names are derived from the name of an important member of the family.
D) The species epithet is a latin descriptor of the virion structure.
E) Virus classes are based on the domain of the host organism.
Q2) Bovine spongiform encephalopathy is an example of a prion disease.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Budding release of virus may result in long lasting or persistent infection.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following membranes can give rise to a viral envelope?
A) the nuclear membrane
B) the cytoplasmic membrane
C) the endoplasmic reticulum
D) the nuclear and cytoplasmic membranes
E) the nuclear and cytoplasmic membranes and the endoplasmic reticulum
Q5) Prions are composed of a single protein called (plaque/BSE/PrP).
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Chapter 14: Infection, Infectious Diseases, and Epidemiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Diseases that are induced by modern medical procedures are referred to as ________ infections.
A) iatrogenic
B) exogenous
C) opportunistic
D) endogenous
E) subacute
Q2) The condition called parasitism is characterized as a(n)
A) relationship between two organisms where only one member benefits and the other is unharmed.
B) relationship between two organisms where both members benefit.
C) nonsymbiotic relationship.
D) unsuccessful microbial invasion due to the presence of preexisting microbes.
E) relationship between two organisms where one member harms the other.
Q3) The (intestines/nasal cavities/lungs) are normally axenic.
Q4) Pathogens in droplets of body fluids are spread by (contact/indirect/vehicle) transmission.
Q5) The study of the cause of disease is known as (epidemiology/etiology/pathology).
Page 16
Q6) Virions attach to a target host cell by means of (capsules/capsids/ligands).
Q7) Nausea is an example of a (sign/symptom/syndrome) of disease.
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Chapter 15: Innate Immunity
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Q1) What are macrophages, and what are their functions?
Q2) Proteins on the surface of phagocytes called ________ aid in the detection of pathogen molecules.
A) lectins
B) TLRs
C) NOD proteins
D) lectins and C3 protein
E) both TLRs and NOD proteins
Q3) Which of the following contributes to protecting the eyes from microbial invasion?
A) tears contain lysozyme and salt.
B) a mucus layer traps and removes microbes.
C) tears mechanically flush particles from the eyes.
D) tears contain lysozyme and salt and mechanically flush particles from the eyes.
E) tears and mucus combine to trap microbes and remove them.
Q4) Acute inflammation is normally beneficial.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What is phagocytosis? What does it involve?
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Chapter 16: Adaptive Immunity
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Q1) Cytotoxic T lymphocytes insert (CD95/lectin/perforin) into the membranes of the cells they target as a first step in killing.
Q2) Professional antigen-presenting cells (APCs) include B cells, macrophages, and (dendritic/plasma/T) cells.
Q3) The immunologic (agglutination/complex/synapse) forms when MHC molecules and TCR molecules connect.
Q4) You step on something in the yard resulting in a puncture wound that does not bleed freely. Antigens from any microbes that entered the wound will most likely end up in the
A) appendix.
B) lymph nodes of the groin.
C) lymph nodes of the neck (cervical).
D) lymph nodes of the armpit (axilla).
E) spleen.
Q5) TCRs only recognize antigens presented by APC; therefore, (BCR/MHC/Th1) molecules ultimately determine which epitopes elicit an immune response.
Q6) Activation of B lymphocytes produces (antibody-mediation/cell-mediated/innate) immune responses.
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Chapter 17: Immunization and Immune Testing
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Q1) Killed vaccines work by stimulating
A) an antibody response.
B) phagocytic activity.
C) the cell-mediated immune response.
D) cytotoxic T cells.
E) lymphocyte proliferation.
Q2) The immunochromatographic assay uses enzyme-linked anti-antibodies.
A)True
B)False
Q3) When vaccines do not provide lifelong immunity, (adjuvants/ boosters/subunits) must be given to maintain protection.
Q4) Which of the following assays is a function of the formation of immune complexes?
A) immunoblot tests
B) ELISAs
C) neutralization tests
D) direct fluorescent antibody tests
E) precipitation tests
Q5) Antisera directed against toxins are known as (antibodies/antitoxins/anti-antibodies).
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Chapter 18: Immune Disorders
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Q1) An accident victim receives a blood transfusion. Shortly thereafter, he begins to have difficulty breathing, develops a fever, and experiences nausea and vomiting. Which of the following is the most likely interpretation of these events?
A) the blood transfusion was mismatched.
B) the blood transfusion contained pyrogens.
C) the recipient had previously been exposed to foreign blood group antigens.
D) the blood transfusion was mismatched and contained pyrogens.
E) the blood transfusion was mismatched and the recipient had previously been exposed to the foreign blood group antigens.
Q2) Stress may result in the production of (corticosteroids/leukotrienes/interleukins), which may lead to acquired immunodeficiency disease.
Q3) Which of the following immunoglobulins is produced by plasma cells in response to an allergen?
A) IgA
B) IgD
C) IgE
D) IgG
E) IgM
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Chapter 19: Microbial Diseases of the Skin and Wounds
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Sample Questions
Q1) A series of nodular lesions on an arm that fill with pus and ulcerate through the skin is characteristic of infection with the fungus
A) Microsporum.
B) Trichophyton.
C) Epidermophyton.
D) Micrococcus.
E) Sporothrix schenckii.
Q2) A child complains of intensely itchy "pimples" on the hands and wrists. The lesions are small inflamed streaks, but do not appear to contain pus. The child's condition may be the result of infection with
A) Staphylococcus epidermidis.
B) Sporothrix schenkii.
C) Sarcoptes scabiei.
D) Pseudomonas aeruginosa.
E) Clostridium perfringens.
Q3) The presence of Koplik's spots is sufficient for a diagnosis of (chickenpox/measles/rubella).
Q4) Ringworm is the result of skin infection with (Madurella/Microsporum/Mycobacterium).
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Chapter 20: Microbial Diseases of the Nervous System and Eyes
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Q1) The form of botulism known as (foodborne/infant/wound) is an intoxication disorder.
Q2) Tetanus vaccine contains
A) antibodies against Clostridium tetani.
B) inactivated Clostridium tetani endospores.
C) antibodies against Clostridium tetani endospores.
D) fragments of Clostridium tetani cell walls.
E) inactivated tetanospasmin.
Q3) Trypanosoma brucei is transmitted to animals and people by a bloodsucking fly.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Poliovirus is most often transmitted via
A) contaminated water.
B) household pets.
C) mosquitoes.
D) droplets.
E) endospores.
Q5) Infant botulism is the result of (inhalation/ingestion/inoculation) of bacterial endospores.
Q6) West Nile virus is transmitted by (food/mosquitoes/water).
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Chapter 21: Microbial Cardiovascular and Systemic Diseases
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Q1) Which of the following is/are a reservoir for Francisella tularensis?
A) rabbits
B) ticks
C) humans
D) rabbits and ticks
E) humans, rabbits and ticks
Q2) The zoonosis known as (ehrlichiosis/plague/tularemia) is transmitted to humans by fleas.
Q3) Which of the following is/are transmitted by Aedes mosquitoes?
A) dengue fever
B) yellow fever
C) malaria
D) both dengue fever and yellow fever
E) dengue fever, yellow fever, and malaria
Q4) Compare and contrast dengue hemorrhagic fever and Ebola hemorrhagic fever. Discuss both the pathogens and the pathology.
Q5) Yellow fever is named for the (anemia/jaundice/vomiting) it typically causes.
Q7) The intermediate host for Schistosoma mansoni is a (mosquito/tick/snail). Page 24
Q6) Blood returns to the heart from the lungs through the pulmonary (arteries/veins/valves).
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Chapter 22: Microbial Diseases of the Respiratory System
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Q1) A pneumonia caused by Gram-positive diplococci is known as A) primary atypical pneumonia.
B) pleurisy.
C) pneumocystic pneumonia.
D) pneumonic plague.
E) pneumococcal pneumonia.
Q2) Which of the following statements is TRUE concerning diphtheria?
A) No effective vaccine is available to prevent infection.
B) A diffuse rash is the major sign of diphtheria.
C) The signs and symptoms of the disease are directly caused by a bacterial toxin.
D) The pseudomembrane is easily removed by surgery.
E) A microscopic exam of bacterial samples is sufficient for conclusive diagnosis.
Q3) Dust storms in arid regions of the Southwestern U.S. may lead to outbreaks of A) blastomycosis.
B) histoplasmosis.
C) Pneumocystis pneumonia.
D) Hantavirus pulmonary syndrome.
E) coccidioidomycosis.
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Chapter 23: Microbial Diseases of the Digestive System
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Q1) Dysentery is a severe type of gastroenteritis in which stools contain mucus and blood.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Marine mammals are the normal host for Anisakis simplex adults.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The larval stage of pinworms is found in (cows/fish/humans).
Q4) Urease is an important virulence factor of which of the following?
A) Porphyromonas gingivalis
B) Vibrio cholerae
C) Escherichia coli O157:H7
D) Helicobacter pylori
E) Shigella dysenteriae
Q5) The (liver/pancreas/villus) is the accessory organ responsible for producing digestive enzymes active in the small intestine.
Q6) Supportive care is the only treatment for staphylococcal food poisoning.
A)True
B)False
Q7) Jaundice is a frequent sign of inflammation of the (colon/liver/pancreas).
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Chapter 24: Microbial Diseases of the Urinary and Reproductive Systems
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Q1) A whitlow is the result of human papillomavirus infection of the skin of the hand.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding genital herpes?
A) Reappearance of lesions is the result of new infections.
B) It can only be transmitted when lesions are evident.
C) There is an effective vaccine to prevent infection.
D) Acyclovir is effective in reducing the occurrence of lesions, but is not a cure.
E) Herpes can be prevented using vaginal spermicidal creams.
Q3) When bacteria infect the bladder, the condition is known as (cystitis/pyelonephritis/urethritis).
Q4) Because the (ductus/urethra/ureter) is shorter in females than in males, it can be a portal of entry for pathogens.
Q5) Mental confusion is often the only sign of a urinary tract infection in elderly patients.
A)True
B)False
Q6) A vaccine is available to prevent infection with (herpes/HIV/HPV).
Page 28
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Chapter 25: Applied and Industrial Microbiology
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Q1) Which of the following beverages is made from fermented fruit?
A) beer
B) brandy
C) sake
D) vodka
E) both beer and vodka
Q2) Pickling is an effective means of food preservation involving
A) increasing oxygen content.
B) increasing salt concentration.
C) reducing pH.
D) reducing oxygen content.
E) increasing salt concentration or reducing pH or both.
Q3) Which of the following is used in both food production and industrial fermentation?
A) Bacillus thuringiensis
B) Escherichia coli
C) Listeria monocytogenes
D) Pseudomonas syringae
E) Saccharomyces cerevisiae
Q4) Compare and contrast the two types of foodborne disease.
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Chapter 26: Microbial Ecology and Microbiomes
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Q1) What is carbon fixation?
A) The conversion of dead organisms into fossil fuel.
B) The release of carbon dioxide by cellular respiration.
C) The conversion of carbon dioxide into organic molecules.
D) The storage of carbon compounds by heterotrophs.
E) The release of carbon dioxide by combustion.
Q2) Which of the following is a nitrogen-fixing bacterium that forms associations with the roots of plants?
A) anaerobic Bacillus species
B) Clostridium species
C) Rhizobium species
D) Azotobacter species
E) cyanobacteria
Q3) Which of the following oxidize H S to SO ², the form of sulfur animals use for their metabolism?
A) Beggiatoa
B) Desulfovibrio
C) purple sulfur bacteria
D) both Beggiatoa and purple sulfur bacteria
E) both Beggiatoa and Desulfovibrio
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