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Human Microbiology explores the fundamental concepts of microorganisms, focusing on bacteria, viruses, fungi, and protozoa that interact with the human body. The course examines the biology, structure, metabolism, and genetics of these microbes, as well as their roles in health, disease, immunity, and the human microbiome. Students will investigate mechanisms of infection, modes of transmission, host-pathogen interactions, and strategies for prevention and control of infectious diseases. Emphasis is placed on current techniques for studying microorganisms and understanding their impact on human health within clinical and public health contexts.
Recommended Textbook Nesters Microbiology A Human Perspective 9th Edition by Denise G. Anderson
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Q1) Viruses, viroids, and prions are obligate intracellular agents.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) Prions
A) are only composed of RNA.
B) are only composed of DNA.
C) are only composed of protein.
D) cause diseases in plants.
E) are only composed of RNA and DNA.
Answer: C
Q3) An extreme environment in which archaea have been found is
A) oceans.
B) boiling hot springs.
C) marshes.
D) refrigerators.
E) animal digestive tracts.
Answer: B
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Q1) Dan tells you that he knows proteins are needed to build muscle mass but that he doesn't quite understand the role of proteins in a cell. He tells you five things he believes proteins are needed for in cell function, but he is mistaken on one of these. Which of the following statements regarding the role of proteins in cells is INCORRECT?
A) Proteins are involved in transporting molecules into or out of cells.
B) Proteins are involved in movement of certain cells.
C) Proteins provide structural support in cells (cytoskeleton).
D) Proteins are a major component of starch.
E) Proteins catalyze chemical reactions within cells.
Answer: D
Q2) Dehydration reactions are involved in
A) the formation of polypeptides AND the formation of monosaccharides.
B) the formation of polysaccharides AND the formation of nucleotides.
C) the formation of polypeptides AND the formation of polysaccharides.
D) the formation of monosaccharides AND the formation of amino acids.
E) the formation of polypeptides AND the formation of nucleotides.
Answer: C
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Q1) Which microscope would be the BEST selection for examination of a virus?
A) Confocal scanning laser microscope
B) Scanning electron microscope
C) Dark-field light microscope
D) Atomic force microscope
E) Compound light microscope
Answer: B
Q2) Movement in bacteria
A) is directly to or away from a stimulus.
B) relies on the beating of cilia.
C) is often referred to as run and tumble.
D) may involve pili.
E) is often referred to as run and tumble AND may involve pili.
Answer: E
Q3) Mycoplasma pneumoniae is naturally resistant to penicillin because it lacks a peptidoglycan cell wall and penicillin interferes with peptidoglycan synthesis.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Q1) The prefix photo- indicates that an organism will make use of ________ for energy purposes.
A) chemicals
B) organics
C) light
D) inorganics
E) water
Q2) Organisms that use CO as their source of carbon are called
A) organotrophs.
B) heterotrophs.
C) autotrophs.
D) chemotrophs.
E) carbonotrophs.
Q3) The lag phase of the bacterial growth curve is marked by A) a decrease in cell mass.
B) dormant, metabolically inactive cells.
C) metabolically active cells.
D) vigorously dividing cells.
E) spore-forming cells.
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Q1) Quaternary ammonium compounds are
A) cationic detergents that help wash surfaces.
B) attracted to the positive charge on the microbial cell surface.
C) toxic and cannot be used on food preparation surfaces.
D) very effective against endospores and non-enveloped viruses
E) anionic detergents that help wash surfaces.
Q2) Boiling is very effective at removing most common waterborne pathogens.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A sterile item is free of
A) microbes, viruses, AND prions.
B) microbes, endospores, AND viruses.
C) endospores, viruses, AND prions.
D) microbes, endospores, AND prions.
E) prions only.
Q4) Hydrogen peroxide may be used as a sterilant on living tissue.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Which of the following produces the most precursor metabolites?
A) Fermentation
B) TCA cycle
C) Pentose phosphate pathway
D) Glycolysis
E) Transition step
Q2) The name given to the reaction involving addition of electrons or hydrogen atoms to a compound is
A) reduction.
B) glycolysis.
C) oxidation.
D) metabolism.
E) respiration.
Q3) The terminal electron acceptor in aerobic respiration is water, which is broken down to hydrogen and oxygen.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Both glycolysis and the pentose phosphate pathway oxidize glucose to pyruvate.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) The report that genes direct the synthesis of proteins was first made by A) Lederberg.
B) Watson and Crick.
C) Beadle and Tatum.
D) Mendel.
E) Curie.
Q2) Some segments of the precursor mRNA in eukaryotes are non-coding and are called A) exons.
B) introns.
C) integrans.
D) uselessans.
E) genes.
Q3) Ribozymes
A) are complexes of ribosomes and RNA.
B) are self-catalytic RNA.
C) suggest that nucleic acids evolved before proteins.
D) are enzymes that degrade RNA and therefore have potential for clinical applications.
E) are self-catalytic RNA AND suggest that nucleic acids evolved before proteins.
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Q1) Your patient asks whether there is any way for him to get rid of this infection. You tell him that he will be given a different antibiotic such as doxycycline. This antibiotic works by binding to a cell structure called the 30S ribosomal subunit, which stops the bacterial cells from growing by
A) preventing DNA replication.
B) inhibiting transcription.
C) stopping capsule formation.
D) inhibiting protein synthesis.
E) preventing protein packaging.
Q2) The mechanism by which genes are transferred into bacteria via viruses is called A) ellipsis.
B) transduction.
C) replica plating.
D) transformation.
E) conjugation.
Q3) Each gene mutates at a characteristic frequency.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) The agarose used in electrophoresis
A) interacts electrically with the DNA.
B) chemically binds to the DNA.
C) separates DNA fragments by size.
D) selectively sorts recombinant DNA from host DNA.
E) denatures DNA/RNA.
Q2) Agarose gel electrophoresis separates nucleic acid fragments according to A) density.
B) shape.
C) size.
D) nucleobase sequence.
E) type of 5C sugar.
Q3) Most eukaryotic genes are cloned directly into the vector for expression in prokaryotes.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A very common vector is a plasmid.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) An early attempt by Cohn at bacterial classification grouped bacteria according to their
A) biochemistry.
B) Gram stain.
C) shape.
D) arrangement.
E) size.
Q2) Modern approaches to evolutionary taxonomy often involve
A) biochemical differences.
B) comparison of DNA or RNA.
C) protein similarities.
D) lactose fermentation abilities.
E) staining techniques.
Q3) A breath test assaying for radioactive carbon dioxide may be used to indicate the presence of
A) E. coli.
B) Pseudomonas species.
C) Streptococcus pyogenes.
D) Helicobacter pylori.
E) Bacillus cereus.
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Q1) Relatively little is known about many obligate anaerobes. Why might this be so?
A) There are far more obligate aerobes in any environment, so it is much easier to study them.
B) It is difficult to provide the right atmospheric environment to cultivate obligate anaerobes, so it's been harder to study them.
C) Only obligate aerobes cause disease, so we have had little reason to study obligate anaerobes.
D) The majority of obligate anaerobes are very nutritionally fastidious, which makes it difficult to study them.
E) It is difficult to provide the right temperature to cultivate obligate anaerobes, so it's been harder to study them.
Q2) Helicobacter pylori
A) inhabits squid ink sacs.
B) causes crown gall in plants.
C) inhabits the stomach.
D) has axonemes.
E) produces luminescence.
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Q1) The return of carbon dioxide to the atmosphere and nitrogen to the soil is due to the action of
A) viruses and plants.
B) bacteria and viruses.
C) fungi and bacteria.
D) fungi and viruses.
E) plants and bacteria.
Q2) Which of the following are characteristics of fungi?
A) They have a peptidoglycan cell wall AND they may be photosynthetic.
B) Their cell wall contains chitin AND they use nutrients from dead or decaying organic matter.
C) Their cell wall contains cellulose AND they use nutrients from dead or decaying organic matter.
D) Their cytoplasmic membrane contains ergesterol AND they are always multicellular.
E) They have a nuclear membrane AND their cell wall contains cellulose.
Q3) Fungus grows well on fruits and many vegetables due to their alkaline pH.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Cells infected with animal viruses lyse because
A) the release of the virions depletes the cell of energy.
B) the virus releases enzymes that lyse the cell.
C) functions necessary for cell survival are not carried out and the cell dies.
D) the virus RNA and cellular protein interact to kill the cell.
E) the viruses release lysozyme which destroys the host cell wall.
Q2) The filamentous phages all contain
A) single-stranded DNA.
B) double-stranded DNA.
C) single-stranded RNA.
D) double-stranded RNA.
E) single-stranded RNA, OR single-stranded DNA.
Q3) Resistance of some animals to certain viral diseases is based on
A) lack of spikes for attachment.
B) lack of specific receptors on the host cell.
C) phagocytosis of the virus by the host cell.
D) the presence of the viral envelope.
E) immunity in the host cell.
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Q1) Skin and mucous membranes are mostly involved in
A) adaptive immunity.
B) innate immunity.
C) autoimmunity.
D) irregular immunity.
E) secondary immunity.
Q2) Which of the following would NOT trigger an inflammatory response?
A) Activation of complement proteins.
B) Binding of microbial products to PPRs.
C) Tissue damage caused by microbial invasion.
D) Induction of antiviral protein synthesis by IFNs.
E) Release of TNF by macrophages.
Q3) Pattern recognition is involved in innate immunity.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Neutrophils are the second phagocytic cell to respond to an infection.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) All antigens are immunogens.
A)True
B)False
Q2) An IgG molecule has two
A) heavy chains, light chains, AND antibody binding sites.
B) heavy chains, light chains, AND antigen binding sites.
C) light chains, antigen binding sites, AND antibody binding sites.
D) antibody binding sites AND antigen binding sites.
E) Fc regions AND one Fab region.
Q3) Antibody and antigen are held to one another by covalent bonds.
A)True
B)False
Q4) T cells and B cells are produced in the
A) bone marrow.
B) thymus.
C) Peyer's patches.
D) nervous tissue.
E) appendix.
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT True about the role normal microbiota plays in maintaining host health?
A) They provide a surface that is incompatible for attachment of an invader.
B) They establish competition for nutrients and vitamins.
C) They produce antimicrobial substances.
D) They inhibit the innate immune system.
E) All of the choices are True.
Q2) A strong attachment of a microorganism to a host cell automatically leads to disease.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following would be considered a sign of a disease?
A) Severe headache
B) Throbbing pain
C) Intense nausea
D) Fever of 39°C
E) All of these are signs
Q4) An infectious disease is an infection that impairs the normal state of health.
A)True
B)False

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Q1) Which of the following have been an effective immunosuppressant for use in transplantation?
A) Amphotericin B and cephalosporin
B) Amphotericin B and cyclosporin A
C) Amphotericin B and tacrolimus
D) Cephalosporin and tacrolimus
E) Cyclosporin A and tacrolimus
Q2) Killing of graft cells occurs through a complex series of mechanisms including
A) sensitized T cytotoxic cells AND NK cells.
B) sensitized T cytotoxic cells AND erythrocytes.
C) NK cells AND erythrocytes.
D) erythrocytes AND basophils.
E) sensitized T cytotoxic cells AND basophilic cells.
Q3) To produce an allergic reaction in Type I hypersensitivity, the antigen
A) must bind to mast cells.
B) must bind to free IgE molecules.
C) must just bind to IgE on mast cells.
D) must bind to two neighboring IgE molecules on mast cells, crosslinking them.
E) must bind to two neighboring IgM molecules on mast cells, crosslinking them.
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Q1) All of the following are True about the term vaccination EXCEPT it
A) is a general term that would include the process of variolation.
B) was coined by Jenner.
C) was coined by Pasteur and comes from the Latin for cow, variola.
D) comes from the Latin for cow, vacca.
E) was coined by Jenner and comes from the Latin for cow, vacca.
Q2) Agglutination tests can be used to detect
A) bacteria AND viruses.
B) hormones AND drugs.
C) fungi, bacteria, AND viruses.
D) viruses, bacteria, AND hormones.
E) viruses, bacteria, fungi, hormones AND drugs.
Q3) Precipitation reactions carried out in agarose are called
A) hemagglutination tests.
B) immunodiffusion tests.
C) complement fixation tests.
D) ELISA tests.
E) disc diffusion assays.
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Q1) The publication of the CDC that reports new cases of reportable infectious diseases is titled
A) Morbidity and Mortality Weekly Report (MMWR).
B) State Health News Letter (SHNL).
C) Federal Report of Infectious Disease (FRID).
D) National Morbidity Weekly (NMW).
E) Monthly Death and Disease Report (MDDR).
Q2) In 1918-1919, an influenza virus infected about 500 million people worldwide, killing at least 50 million of them. This disease is best described as a(n) ________.
A) epidemic
B) pandemic
C) outbreak
D) sporadic outbreak
E) endemic disease.
Q3) A placebo is a mock drug.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) One of the earliest antimicrobials isolated from a bacterium was
A) penicillin.
B) ampicillin.
C) streptomycin.
D) Salvarsan.
E) tetracycline.
Q2) A high therapeutic index is
A) more toxic to the patient.
B) less toxic to the patient.
C) has no effect on the patient.
D) has no effect on the pathogen.
E) more toxic to the patient AND has little effect on the pathogen.
Q3) Antiviral drugs may target all of the following EXCEPT
A) viral uncoating.
B) viral ribosomes.
C) nucleic acid synthesis.
D) viral assembly.
E) viral entry.
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Q1) Which of the following is associated with the upper respiratory system?
A) Humidifying inhaled air.
B) Warming inhaled air AND drying inhaled air.
C) Cooling inhaled air AND drying inhaled air.
D) Cooling inhaled air AND humidifying inhaled air.
E) Humidifying inhaled air AND warming inhaled air
Q2) Corynebacterium diphtheriae is an invasive, toxin-producing, pleomorphic spore-forming bacterium that aggressively enters tissues and the bloodstream.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which is False about pertussis toxin?
A) It uses part B to attach to receptors on the host cell.
B) It uses part A to inactivate G protein.
C) It affects the level of cAMP in a cell.
D) It affects the level of mucus secretion.
E) It uses part A to attach to receptors on the host cell.
Q4) Adenoviruses may cause eye infections as well as upper respiratory tract infections.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Why is Rickettsia rickettsii difficult to grow in culture?
A) It is a double-stranded DNA virus.
B) It is an obligate intracellular parasite.
C) It is resistant to multiple antibiotics.
D) It is an obligate anaerobe.
E) It is Gram-negative.
Q2) A protein associated with a more virulent form of Staphylococcus is A) leukocidin.
B) coagulase.
C) mannose.
D) streptokinase.
E) catalase.
Q3) Diseases caused by fungi are called mycoses.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Chickenpox and measles are both acquired by the respiratory route.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Early work with Clostridium tetani and Corynebacterium diphtheriae demonstrated
A) the importance of thoroughly cooking food.
B) the potential threat from spore-forming bacteria.
C) the usefulness of anti-viral medications.
D) that disease can be caused by bacterial toxins.
E) that all bacteria form spores.
Q2) Formation of biofilms attached to fibronectin and fibrinogen coating plastic devices like catheters and heart valves is a virulence mechanism of
A) Staphylococcus.
B) Streptococcus.
C) Clostridium.
D) Pseudomonas.
E) Escherichia.
Q3) Cat scratch fever is caused by A) Bartonella henselae.
B) Pasteurella multocida.
C) Teddis nugentaea.
D) Staphylococcus aureus.
E) Pseudomonis aeruginosa.
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Q1) Clostridium difficile produces toxins that are involved in the pathogenesis of CDI. Which toxins are associated with ALL strains of this organism?
A) Toxin A and toxin B
B) CagA and vacA
C) CagA and toxin A
D) Binary toxin and VacA
E) Toxin A, toxin B, and binary toxin
Q2) You suspect that your brother has giardiasis, caused by Giardia lamblia. Which of the following is NOT True about this disease?
A) The cysts of G. lamblia are are resistant to stomach acid and are infectious.
B) A person with giardiasis diarrhea is likely to eliminate G. lamblia cysts rather than trophozoites.
C) The causative organism has energy-metabolizing organelles called mitosomes.
D) Giardiasis is a zoonotic disease.
E) Chlorinated water may still contain G. lamblia because the cysts are resistant to this chemical.
Q3) Cyclosporiosis is transmissable from person to person.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) The condition that develops on a previously damaged heart valve is called A) an aneurysm.
B) acute bacterial endocarditis.
C) infective endocarditis.
D) myocarditis.
E) effective endocarditis.
Q2) The preferred host of Ixodes scapularis is the
A) wood rat.
B) white-footed mouse.
C) moose.
D) human.
E) ground squirrel.
Q3) The spleen enlarges in
A) infectious mononucleosis AND Lyme disease.
B) malaria AND Lyme disease.
C) brucellosis AND sepsis.
D) infectious mononucleosis AND malaria.
E) plague AND sepsis.
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Q1) Humans acquire the arbovirus that causes epidemic encephalitis by
A) the fecal-oral route.
B) human to human contact.
C) the bite of an infected mosquito.
D) contaminated food.
E) unprotected sex with an infected person.
Q2) Which is True of the Clostridium botulinum toxin?
A) It is heat-resistant.
B) It is a neurotoxin.
C) It stimulates nerve to muscle signal transmission.
D) It causes spastic paralysis.
E) All the choices are correct.
Q3) Cryptococcal meningoencephalitis caused by Cryptococcus gattii differs from the general pattern of fungal central nervous system (CNS) disease by occurring in A) otherwise healthy people.
B) children.
C) AIDS patients.
D) immunosuppressed people.
E) animals only.
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Q1) Which of the following manifests itself in three clinical stages?
A) Gonorrhea
B) Syphilis
C) Trachoma
D) M. genitalium infection
E) Chancroid
Q2) The normal microbiota of the genital tract of women is
A) affected by estrogen levels.
B) dependent on the activity of Lactobacillus.
C) unchanging.
D) typically composed of Escherichia coli.
E) affected by estrogen levels AND dependent on the activity of Lactobacillus.
Q3) Treatment of HIV attempts to do all of the following EXCEPT
A) block attachment to host cells.
B) block reverse transcriptase activity.
C) block viral polymerase.
D) block viral integrase.
E) block viral protease activity.
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Q1) An early contributor to the understanding of nitrogen fixation was
A) Hooke.
B) Pasteur.
C) Winogradsky.
D) Beijerinck.
E) Lister.
Q2) Nitrifiers
A) are obligate anaerobes.
B) are chemolithotrophs.
C) convert nitrate to nitrite.
D) are reducers.
E) are thermophiles.
Q3) Atmospheric nitrogen is
A) used directly by plants.
B) used directly by animals.
C) turned into ammonia by microorganisms.
D) directly used to make carbohydrates.
E) converted into urea by bacteria.
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Q1) In which phase of sewage treatment are trickling filters sometimes used?
A) Primary treatment.
B) Secondary treatment.
C) Tertiary treatment.
D) Quaternary treatment.
E) All of these.
Q2) Other microorganisms besides coliforms that have been used as indicators of fecal contamination may be all of the following EXCEPT
A) Clostridia.
B) Enterococci.
C) bacteriophages.
D) Bacteroides.
E) Clostridia, Enterococci AND bacteriophages.
Q3) Which of the following is used to cause flocculation?
A) Charcoal
B) Methane
C) Natrium potassium phosphate (nalum)
D) Chlorine
E) Aluminum potassium phosphate (alum)
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Q1) Why is ham is a common vehicle for S. aureus food poisoning?
A) S. aureus is part of the normal microbiota of cows, so is a frequent cause of S. aureus food poisoning.
B) Staphylococci are adapted to salty conditions and thrive with little competition on cured meats such as ham.
C) Staphylococci are able to act synergistically with the normal microbiota of pigs, creating toxins that result in food poisoning.
D) Ham is a particularly moist meat, so encourages the growth of the staphylococci, which can only survive on foods with a high aw.
E) Ham is an untreated raw meat. As such, it is prone to contamination by the staphylococci that thrive on meat, resulting in food poisoning.
Q2) Staphylococcus aureus toxin is
A) heat-stable AND an endotoxin.
B) heat-stable AND an exotoxin.
C) an exotoxin AND heat-sensitive.
D) an endotoxin AND heat-sensitive.
E) None of the answer choices is correct.
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