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Human Impact on the Environment Final Test Solutions - 2353 Verified Questions

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Human Impact on the Environment

Final Test Solutions

Course Introduction

This course examines the significant influence human activities have on the natural environment, exploring topics such as population growth, resource consumption, pollution, deforestation, and climate change. Through an interdisciplinary approach, students analyze the social, economic, and technological factors that contribute to environmental challenges. The course also considers the effectiveness of policy responses and sustainable practices, encouraging students to critically evaluate solutions for mitigating negative human impacts and promoting environmental stewardship for future generations.

Recommended Textbook

Scientific American Environmental Science For A Changing World 3rd Edition by Susan Karr

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32 Chapters

2353 Verified Questions

2353 Flashcards

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Chapter 1: environmental Literacy and Sustainability

Lessons From a Vanished Society

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67 Verified Questions

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which statement about environmental ethics is TRUE?

A)All people with environmental ethics recycle.

B)Environmental ethics have no control over how people resolve problems in the environment.

C)People with environmental ethics tend to have an anthropogenic worldview rather than a biocentric worldview.

D)Each person has a philosophy surrounding environmental ethics that influences his or her interactions with the natural environment.

E)Worldviews do not tend to influence people's environmental ethics.

Answer: D

Q2) What evidence did scientists use in Greenland to study atmospheric conditions at the time of the Viking settlements?

A)air bubbles trapped in ice cores

B)mud core samples

C)animal bones collected from middens

D)insect fossils

E)the law of superposition

Answer: A

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Chapter 2: Science Literacy and the Process of Science

Fungal Attacker Threatens North American Bats

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Sample Questions

Q1) How did the comparative study on amphibians help scientists studying the white-nose syndrome in bats?

Answer: The study on amphibians showed it was a fungal infection causing frogs to die in large numbers.The fungus spread quickly around the world,believed to be helped by human activity.This study taught scientists studying WNS that a novel fungal infection could cause large population crashes,which led them to look at the WNs fungus.

Q2) Refer to Infographic 4.In Warnecke et al.,what is the independent variable? What is the dependent variable? List as many qualities as possible that should be the same between bats in the two groups (control and test groups).Ideally,what should be the only difference between the two groups of bats?

Answer: The independent variable is the infection status.The dependent variable is the arousals per bat per day.Bats in both groups should be handled the same way,and arousals should be measured the same way.The bats should be the same age and same sex,or there should at least be a balance across the groups,given the same diet,housed in the same conditions,and so on.The only difference between the groups should be the independent variable.

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Chapter 3: Information Literacy and Toxicology Lead in the Water

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Sample Questions

Q1) The lead found in the water in Flint,Michigan,is what type of toxic chemical?

A)carcinogen

B)sensitizer

C)endocrine disruptor

D)poison

E)irritant

Answer: D

Q2) You have been assigned the task of investigating a case of mercury poisoning in a small fishing village in Japan.How would you go about looking for the cause of the mercury poisoning?

Answer: Knowing that mercury will accumulate in tissue over time and that this is a fishing village,you would need to examine the mercury content of the fish being caught and eaten.Since predators higher up on the food chain have a greater chance of containing more mercury,you would want to look at the larger fish,especially tuna,which can weigh hundreds of pounds.Tissue samples would need to be taken from the tuna and tested for mercury.

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Chapter 4: Ecosystems and Nutrient Cycling Engineering

Earth

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Sample Questions

Q1) In terms of the carbon cycle,how is combustion of fossil fuels different from burning biomass (wood)for fuel?

Q2) The team's zoologist,Dr.Fish,is examining a small furry mammal like a rabbit.He finds the mammal only eats a certain type of flower,and the supply of the flower determines the population size of the mammal in its ecosystem.The flower would be an example of A)the range of tolerance.

B)a limiting factor.

C)a decomposer.

D)an abiotic component.

Q3) Why is it difficult or impossible for ecologists to study the biosphere as a whole? Why is it useful to break down the biosphere into sections such as ecosystems,communities,and populations?

Q4) Which of the following is TRUE regarding the nitrogen cycle?

A)Microbes convert atmospheric N<sub>2</sub> to NH<sub>3</sub><sub>.</sub>

B)Lightning converts N<sub>2</sub> to NO<sub>3</sub><sub>.</sub>

C)Microbes use NO<sub>3</sub> and convert it to N<sub>2</sub><sub>.</sub>

D)Microbes break down organic matter and release NH<sub>4</sub><sub>.</sub>

E)All of these answer choices are true regarding the nitrogen cycle.

Q5) If no new matter enters the system,how can Earth continue to exist?

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Chapter 5: Population Ecology Gray Wolves Return to Yellowstone

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Sample Questions

Q1) Numerous towns and cities in the United States have a deer population problem due to the removal of predators.How would you explain that top-down regulation would help with the overpopulation problem? In addition,are there any bottom-up regulation strategies you would suggest to the townspeople?

Q2) Which species is most likely to be classified as an r-selected species?

A)Canadian lynx

B)snowshoe hare

Q3) Which of the following are characteristics of a population?

A)all the same species

B)interaction between members

C)interbreeding

D)live in the same geographic area

E)all of these answer choices are correct

Q4) How might the fact that a threatened prairie plant you are in charge of managing is an r-selected species influence the way you manage the population?

Q5) Which point indicates population growth at the carrying capacity?

A)A

B)B

C)C

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Chapter 6: Community Ecology the Florida Everglades: a

Community in Cris

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Sample Questions

Q1) Species that move into areas at later stages of ecological succession are called ________________ species.

A)edge

B)climax

C)pioneer

D)colonizing

E)indicator

Q2) The field that addresses how a given ecosystem is structured and how the species living in it interact is known as ________________.

A)population ecology

B)community ecology

C)nutrient cycles

D)ecosystem services

E)resilience ecology

Q3) Which of the following options includes two of the other options?

A)species evenness

B)edge effects

C)core species

D)species diversity

E)species richness

Page 8

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Chapter 7: evolution and Extinction a Tropical Murder

Mystery

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which event may lead two populations to undergo speciation?

A)habitat fragmentation

B)food availability

C)new predators

D)isolation

E)All of these events may lead to speciation.

Q2) Information obtained from the fossil record sets the background rate of extinction per year at _____ species out of every million species.

A)0.1

B)1

C)10

D)100

E)1,000

Q3) Why is the sixth mass extinction event different from previous mass extinction events,and why is it so important?

Q4) What are four observations that natural selection is based on?

Q5) The nation of Guam used to be home to 18 native avian species.By the 1980s,four species of birds had gone extinct and 10 others were in danger of extinction.What caused this to happen? What evidence was found to support this?

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Chapter 8: Biodiversity Palm Oil Plantations Threaten

Tropical Forests

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Sample Questions

Q1) Since Hawaii has a large number of plant and animal species compared to other regions,you would say they have ____________ biodiversity.

A)high

B)low

C)no

Q2) Biodiversity is important in a population because ____________.

A)individuals in that population need a variety of mates.

B)it allows the population to be more resistant to disruptions.

C)it increases the population's vulnerability to extinction.

D)it increases the chances that each member of the population will be identical to each other member.

E)it measures the species' richness but not the genetic diversity in the population and is therefore a great predictor of ecosystem stability.

Q3) What is the MOST likely location of a biodiversity hotspot?

A)prairie

B)island

C)ocean

D)expansive forest

E)Sahara Desert

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Chapter 9: Preserving Biodiversity a Forest Without Elephants

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Sample Questions

Q1) Why would the sale of legitimately acquired ivory (from elephants deceased from natural causes,for example)increase poaching and the sale of illegally acquired ivory?

Q2) The group with the largest total number of species is the A)amphibians.

B)sharks and rays.

C)freshwater crabs.

D)birds.

Q3) Which of the following is the correct order for IUCN-threatened species designations from MOST threatened to LEAST threatened?

A)critically endangered > endangered > vulnerable

B)vulnerable > endangered > critically endangered

C)endangered > critically endangered > vulnerable

D)critically endangered > near threatened > vulnerable

E)endangered > near threatened > vulnerable

Q4) The group with the most proportion of species in the endangered category is the A)cycads.

B)conifers.

C)amphibians.

D)mammals.

Page 11

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Chapter 10: Human Populations the Kerala Model

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Sample Questions

Q1) To feed an increasing world population,humanity has needed to increase the carrying capacity of the planet.This has involved ___________.

A)dependence on the use of fossil fuels to grow food

B)dependence on the use of herbicides to grow food

C)removing more fish from the oceans than can be repopulated

D)destruction of animal habitat for human use

E)It has involved all of the above issues.

Q2) In the mature industrial stage,what happens to birth and death rates?

A)Birth rates remain high while death rates drop.

B)Birth rates begin to fall after death rates drop.

C)Birth and death rates are equal and low.

D)Birth and death rates are equal and high.

E)Birth rates drop as death rates rise.

Q3) The global population has roughly doubled since _____ to reach the current size.

A)1750

B)1800

C)1935

D)1967

E)2000

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Chapter 11: Urbanization and Sustainable Communities

Creating Green Cities

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Sample Questions

Q1) Why are minority communities traditionally burdened with more than their share of environmental risks in this country?

Q2) What is the population size generally considered for classifying a city as a megacity?

A)1 million

B)5 million

C)10 million

D)50 million

E)100 million

Q3) Which of the following is considered a component of green building?

A)low-VOC design features

B)the use of sustainable FSC lumber

C)strategically placed windows

D)the use of wind turbines and water-saving devices

E)All of these answers are correct.

Q4) Explain the patterns in the development of megacities from the mid-20th century to 2030.

Q5) What is suburban sprawl,and what environmental problems does it generate?

Describe three potential problems and briefly discuss the implications of these problems for human society.

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Chapter 12: Environmental Health Eradicating a Parasitic Nightmare

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Sample Questions

Q1) A zoonotic disease is one that ___________.

A)occurs in zoos and other artificial environments

B)can spread between one infected animal to another,but cannot be spread to humans

C)can spread between infected animals and humans

D)is an emerging infectious disease

E)is caused by environmental changes that are usually caused by humans

Q2) Emerging infectious diseases are ___________.

A)diseases new to humans

B)illnesses that are not transmissible between people

C)diseases that have established themselves in the natural world

D)all zoonotic

E)None of these answers is correct.

Q3) Zoonotic diseases are impacted by ___________.

A)bushmeat trade

B)environmental changes

C)human encroachment into wild areas

D)climate change

E)All of these answers are correct.

Q4) Why do you think 75% of all emerging infectious diseases are zoonotic?

Page 14

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Chapter 13: ecological Economics and Consumption Wall

to Wall, Cradle to Cradle

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Sample Questions

Q1) Today,if we were to purchase a good or service at its true cost,how would the price compare to what we are accustomed to paying for the good or service?

A)The price would be lower.

B)The price would be higher.

C)The price would stay the same.

D)The price would decrease exponentially.

E)We cannot predict how the price would change.

Q2) One area where traditional economics differs from environmental economics is that traditional economics tends to give more weight to _________ benefits and costs than it does to ________ benefits and costs.

A)long-term; short-term

B)short-term; long-term

C)long-term; middle-term

D)short-term; middle-term

E)middle-term; long-term

Q3) While placing a monetary value on ecosystem services can help us to understand that ecosystems provide us with valuable services,critics say that it is dangerous to put a price on ecosystem services.What are the limitations of such valuation of ecosystems?

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Chapter 14: environmental Policy the World Tackles Ozone

Depletion

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Sample Questions

Q1) An environmental impact statement (EIS)accomplishes which of the following?

A)sets monetary damages awarded to the plaintiff in an environmental lawsuit

B)outlines the positive and negative impacts of a proposed action

C)allows a private citizen to sue,in federal court,a violator of environmental law

D)details damage done to an environment,including air,water,and soil

E)regulates production and distribution of designated toxic chemicals

Q2) In a famous essay,Garrett Hardin described "the tragedy of the common," where individual self-interests lead to depletion of shared,limited resources.For example,in a public pasture,where no rules are in place to restrict the number of grazing animals,individuals will maximize their usage of the resource and the end result may be loss or destruction of the resource.What examples on Earth would qualify as "common" areas that no one person,state,or government owns or controls? How could these areas be managed to avoid environmental degradation?

Q3) What is the precautionary principle? How can it be used to shape policy regarding the recent changes in global climate attributed to human activity?

Q4) Compare command and control regulation with market-based approaches that create economic incentives.What are some advantages and disadvantages of these policy tools?

Page 16

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Chapter 15: managing Solid Waste a Plastic Surf

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Q1) At the grocery store,you are faced with a dilemma.Which container of milk is the most eco-friendly (plastic,paperboard,or glass)? Discuss impacts and trade-offs for each type.

Q2) Disassembling equipment,machinery,and appliances into components which can be salvaged or reused is an example of ___________.

A)refusing

B)reducing

C)negative feedback

D)limited growth

E)demanufacturing

Q3) Which of the following statements about waste is TRUE?

A)Waste is found in natural ecosystems.

B)Synthetic molecules such as DDT and CFCs are easily biodegradable.

C)Most plastic waste degrades quickly in any environment.

D)Humans use matter in a linear manner.

E)The best way to keep garbage out of the ocean is to throw it away somewhere else.

Q4) Waste that is not disposed of correctly may end up in the oceans.How can we reduce the amount of waste that ends up in the oceans?

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Chapter 16: Freshwater Resources Toilet to Tap

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Sample Questions

Q1) To make wastewater ___________,or clean enough for consumption,it is put through a process called reverse osmosis.

A)sanitary

B)desalinated

C)effluent

D)intrusive

E)potable

Q2) Compare and contrast physical and economic water scarcity.How might solutions to water scarcity differ for these two causes?

Q3) Which of the following continents has the greatest water scarcity?

A)North America

B)South America

C)Africa

D)Antarctica

E)Europe

Q4) Why is deforestation a problem in regard to the Earth's freshwater supply?

Q5) Explain how the choice of crops or ornamental plants to plant can help conserve water.

Q6) Why are two sets of marshes used in the Arcata wetland sewage treatment system?

Page 18

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Chapter 17: Water Pollution Suffocating the Gulf

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Sample Questions

Q1) What was the difference in nitrate-nitrogen loss when comparing control and test plots?

A)Control plots lost 0.6 kg/ha more than test plots.

B)Control plots lost 0.6 kg/ha less than test plots.

C)Test plots lost 0.6 kg/ha more than control plots.

D)Test plots lost 1.8 kg/ha less than control plots.

Q2) What could be the effects of runoff and land use in the watershed that feeds the waters at the beach?

A)Water quality and quantity could both be affected.

B)Water quality but not quantity could be affected.

C)Water quantity but not quality could be affected.

D)Neither water quality nor quantity could be affected.

Q3) Let's say you become interested in studying the amount of water pollution in a stream that runs through your backyard.Without special equipment,how could you perform a biological assessment on the stream?

Q4) How much water was saved using controlled drainage instead of free drainage?

A)80 mm

B)40 mm

C)30 mm

D)10 mm

Page 19

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Chapter 18: marine Ecosystems Ocean Acidification: the

Other Co2 Problem

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Sample Questions

Q1) What effect do acidic ocean waters have on shells made of calcium carbonate?

A)They cause increased dissolution (dissolving)of calcium carbonate shells.

B)They cause decreased dissolution (dissolving)of calcium carbonate shells.

C)There is no effect on shells made of calcium carbonate.

D)They cause shells to grow at faster rates.

E)They cause shells to overly calcify.

Q2) What is the major cause of ocean acidification?

A)the increase in atmospheric carbon dioxide levels caused by human activity

B)pollution

C)overfishing

D)naturally occurring pH changes in the ocean

E)invasive species

Q3) Why do corals need a mutualistic relationship with other species,like zooxanthellae?

A)Corals typically live in nutrient-poor regions.

B)Corals grow on top of one another

C)Corals live in cold water.

D)Corals live so deep that the sunlight cannot reach them.

E)Corals live in oxygen-poor water.

Q4) What are the causes of algal blooms,and how do algal blooms affect coral reefs?

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Chapter 19: Forests Returning Trees to Haiti

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Q1) If your company harvests oak,hickory,and maple trees,which forest type do you work in?

A)tropical

B)boreal

C)temperate

Q2) The layer of a forest cross section that generally would contain seedlings is the ___________.

A)forest floor

B)understory

C)canopy

D)emergent layer

Q3) Why are forests called carbon sinks?

A)Carbon drains out of forest biomes through groundwater running below the surface.

B)Forest biomes store more carbon than they release.

C)Carbon in forest biomes becomes trapped and is never released,even after logging occurs.

D)High amounts of water in forest biomes capture carbon and hold it there.

E)Forests pull carbon out of organic plant materials and transform it into atmospheric carbon.

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Chapter 20: soil Resources and Grasslands Restoring the Range

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which horizon would be the most vulnerable to desertification?

A)O

B)B

C)C

D)R

Q2) As desertification of grasslands continues,smaller amounts of food will be available to feed humanity.What might be some of the consequences of the desertification of grasslands?

A)increased starvation

B)movement of people from one area to another

C)social unrest

D)physical conflict between people of different cultures

E)All of these answers are correct.

Q3) The R horizon ___________________.

A)is solid,unbroken rock

B)contains decaying and organic material

C)is less fertile but higher in mineral content

D)contains mostly surface litter

E)is the rock that is in the process of being weathered or broken up

Q4) What are some of the important ecosystem services provided by grasslands?

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Chapter 21: Mineral Resources No Stone Unturned

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Q1) Which of the following best describes the process known as smelting?

A)chemical testing to evaluate rock samples

B)the extraction of natural resources from the ground

C)the separation of metal from ore

D)the grinding of rock into a fine powder

E)smaller-scale mining

Q2) Which of the following correctly lists the layers of Earth,starting with the core?

A)lithosphere,mantle,asthenosphere

B)asthenosphere,mantle,lithosphere

C)mantle,lithosphere,asthenosphere

D)mantle,asthenosphere,lithosphere

E)lithosphere,asthenosphere,mantle

Q3) Name four mining techniques discussed in the module.Describe the nature of a mineral deposit appropriate for each technique.

Q4) What are some problems with the current system in place for recycling e-waste? How could the system be improved?

Q5) Refer to Infographic 1.List five commonly used products that contain mineral resources.

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Chapter 22: Feeding the World a Gene Revolution

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Q1) Droughts are common in the southern parts of the United States,and plants die quickly in the heat of a long,dry summer.A gene lab is working with garden crops like tomatoes and zucchini to add DNA from a bacterium which will reduce the amount of water needed to keep the plants alive.This is an example of _______ genetic engineering.

A)transgenic

B)cisgenic

C)intragenic

Q2) The Green Revolution 2.0 is __________________.

A)a movement that focuses on the production of genetically modified organisms to increase crop productivity

B)associated with feed conversion rates

C)a movement focused on recycling

D)a plant-breeding program that dramatically increased crop yields and led the way for mechanized,large-scale agriculture

E)a program used by modern farmers to spread the use of organic agriculture

Q3) Why are low-tech farming methods more accessible to female farmers?

Q4) Why is the decreased biodiversity of high-yield varieties of crops a concern?

Q5) Why is there no clear answer to the problem of malnutrition in Africa?

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Chapter 23: sustainable Agriculture: Raising Crops Farming

Like an Ecosystem

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Q1) Which of the following choices is MOST important to buy organic,if possible?

A)kiwi

B)cabbage

C)mushrooms

D)grapes

E)onions

Q2) Which of the following in an example of greenwashing that you may find on a food label?

A)produced locally (from commercial farm)

B)contains only natural ingredients

C)cage-free eggs

D)healthy organic brownies

E)All of these answers are correct.

Q3) Which of the following is a disadvantage of sustainable farming for the consumer?

A)Fruits and vegetable are less uniform and may contain more blemishes.

B)The items have a shorter shelf life.

C)Usually the items are more expensive.

D)All of these answers are disadvantages.

E)None of these answers is a disadvantage.

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Chapter 24: Agriculture: Raising Livestock Can Meat Be Part of a Healthy,

Environmentally Conscious Diet

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Q1) Which of the following is a reason cattle farmers and the beef industry argue for the current system of rearing animals?

A)Overconsumption of meat contributes to obesity and heart disease.

B)Air and water pollution increase in areas of CAFOs.

C)Industrial-scale production allows meat suppliers to raise more beef than ever before.

D)The overuse of antibiotics in CAFO-reared livestock can lead to resistant strains of bacteria.

E)Meat can become contaminated at any stage of processing.

Q2) The water footprint to produce a pound of pork is _____.

A)7 pounds

B)90 gallons

C)23 gallons

D)7 pounds of feed and 23 gallons of water

E)The water footprint cannot be determined.

Q3) List several reasons beef-industry representatives would argue for industrial-scale production of beef in concentrated animal feeding operations (CAFOs),and then list several objections raised by critics of this industrial model.

Q4) List and describe several ethical issues involved with raising animals in CAFOs.

Page 26

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Chapter 25: Fisheries and Aquaculture Fish in a Warehouse

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Q1) One of the major problems of managing marine fisheries is the amount of illegal,unreported,and unregulated fishing.It is estimated that the revenue from these practices is _______ annually.

A)$1 to $5 million

B)$50 to $100 million

C)$1 to $5 billion

D)$4 to $9 billion

E)$20 to $30 billion

Q2) One of the most serious threats to many marine species is the accidental capture of bycatch.Describe some ways to lessen the impact of bycatch on marine populations.

Q3) How is aquaculture similar to a tree plantation?

Q4) In which year was the catch of eelpouts the greatest?

A)1965

B)1960

C)1970

D)1975

E)1950

Q5) Explain the difference between a marine-protected area and a marine reserve.

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Chapter 26: coal Bringing Down the Mountain

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Q1) Environmentalists are especially concerned about the amount of carbon dioxide released from burning coal because it _________________.

A)is a significant contributor to acid rain

B)depletes the ozone layer

C)is a significant greenhouse gas

D)clogs lungs and aggravates asthma

E)blocks the uptake of oxygen by the hemoglobin

Q2) What is one way to reduce the climate change impacts of burning coal for electricity generation?

Q3) Burning coal to generate electricity creates all of the following types of pollution EXCEPT ____________________.

A)water pollution

B)particulates

C)thermal pollution

D)mercury

E)None of these answers are correct.

Q4) What are the benefits of using coal as an energy source?

Q5) Discuss some of the effects on health of mining and using coal to generate electricity.

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Chapter 27: Oil and Natural Gas the Bakken Oil Boom

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71 Verified Questions

71 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/73824

Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following is NOT a reason why our energy supplies may become unreliable or unaffordable?

A)dwindling supplies

B)competition from other countries

C)dependence on energy exports

D)increasing demand

E)a cartel or monopoly that increases prices

Q2) At the current rate of usage,which of the following energy sources is expected to run out first?

A)wood

B)crude oil

C)coal

D)natural gas

E)wind

Q3) The Middle East holds approximately _______ of the world's oil reserves.

A)1/4

B)1/3

C)1/2

D)2/3

E)3/4

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Chapter 28: Air Pollution the Youngest Scientists

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72 Verified Questions

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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/73825

Sample Questions

Q1) Reducing indoor air pollution involved all of the following EXCEPT ____________.

A)providing adequate ventilation for a home

B)properly storing household chemicals

C)removing carpeting in the home

D)sealing the home to prevent air leaks

E)All of these reduce indoor air pollution.

Q2) Which statement about VOCs is FALSE?

A)"VOC" stands for volatile organic compound.

B)VOCs readily evaporate and dissolve in water.

C)VOCs are released by bogs.

D)The main outdoor source of VOCs is fossil fuel combustion.

Q3) What is the biggest health problem associated with air pollution?

A)respiratory ailments

B)burns

C)flulike symptoms

D)birth defects

E)cancers

Q4) What is it about the nature of the human lung that makes it so vulnerable to air pollution? Further,how does damage to respiratory tissue serve as a gateway to other kinds of human health problems?

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Chapter 29: global Climate Change Climate Refugees

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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/73826

Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following sources are NOT used to reconstruct past climate?

A)ice cores

B)sediment cores

C)tree rings

D)coral reef growth layers

E)All of these sources are used.

Q2) Analyzing current and historic data bout CO<sub>2</sub> tells us current CO<sub>2</sub> levels _____________.

A)are lower than they have been in the past 2.7 million years

B)are only slightly higher than they have been in the past 2.7 million years

C)are the same as they have been for the past 100 years

D)are higher than they have been in the past 2.7 million years

E)We need more data to make any conclusions about the current CO<sub>2</sub> levels.

Q3) Describe how the recent changes in global climate are expected to impact biodiversity.

Q4) Describe the difference between weather and climate.Provide an example for each.

Q5) In terms of temperature,what recent global trends have been observed?

Q6) Describe the difference between mitigation and adaptation as it applies to climate change.Provide an example of each.

Page 31

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Chapter 30: Nuclear Power the Future of Fukushima

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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/73827

Sample Questions

Q1) ________________ provides the cleanest source of energy.

A)Coal

B)Oil

C)Oil shale

D)Natural gas

E)Nuclear

Q2) Discuss the safety of living near a nuclear power plant relative to living near a coal-fired power plant.

Q3) Explain the process involved in producing energy in a fission reactor,starting with U-235 and ending with the production of electricity.Be sure to mention the words "fuel rods" and "control rods."

Q4) Which of the following choices for an isotope represents the greatest production of daughter atoms?

A)1 half-life

B)2 half-lives

C)3 half-lives

D)4 half-lives

E)5 half-lives

Q5) What are some safety precautions used in the production of nuclear energy?

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Chapter 31: Sun, Wind, Water, and Earth Energy Fueled by the Sun

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Sample Questions

Q1) ________________ energy is the heat stored underground,contained in either rocks or fluids.

A)Wind

B)Hydroelectric

C)Biomass

D)Geothermal

E)Solar

Q2) Which energy sources will see the biggest increases as costs decline for the technologies?

A)wind and hydropower

B)wind and solar

C)solar and geothermal

D)solar and hydropower

E)hydropower and geothermal

Q3) How is electricity produced in a dry steam geothermal power plant?

Q4) What is needed in order for a community like Samsø to switch to a greener lifestyle?

Q5) What are the advantages and disadvantages to using straw to heat homes versus other more conventional heating fuels?

Q6) What areas are BEST suited for geothermal energy production,and why?

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Chapter 32: Biofuels Gas From Grass

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72 Verified Questions

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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/73829

Sample Questions

Q1) __________ are defined as solids,liquids,or gases that produce energy from biological material.

A)Biosources

B)Biomaterials

C)Biofuels

D)Biopowers

Q2) Which of the following is a waste that can be used to produce biofuel?

A)used fryer oil from restaurants

B)manure

C)crop residues

D)animal fats

E)All of these answers are correct.

Q3) The order of biofuels from the HIGHEST net energy production to the LOWEST is _______.

A)corn ethanol,biomass ethanol,biomass biodiesel

B)soybean diesel,biomass biodiesel,corn ethanol

C)biomass biodiesel,corn ethanol,biomass ethanol

D)biomass ethanol,biomass biodiesel,corn ethanol

Q4) Explain the outcome of David Tilman's research and what it meant for biofuel crops.

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