Human Growth and Development
Textbook Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Human Growth and Development explores the physical, cognitive, social, and emotional development of individuals from conception through old age. The course examines major theories, research findings, and factors influencing development at each life stage, including genetics, environment, family, culture, and life experiences. Students learn about developmental milestones, challenges, and transitions, and consider applications in educational, clinical, and community settings. Emphasis is placed on understanding individual differences and how these shape peoples growth, behavior, and well-being across the lifespan.
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Lifespan Development 6th Edition by Denise Boyd
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Basic Concepts and Methods
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Q1) Which of the following assertions regarding lifespan development can be attributed to both G. Stanley Hall and Charles Darwin?
A) Humans evolved from other animals.
B) Biology dictates human personality.
C) Environment dictates healthy development.
D) Norms should be identified for each developmental stage.
Answer: A
Q2) Participants in research projects must be told of any harmful effects or possible risks associated with the research in advance of their participation. What is this ethical responsibility called?
A) Deception
B) Protection from harm
C) Knowledge of results
D) Informed consent
Answer: D
Q3) A major difference between a theory and a hypothesis is that hypotheses are ________.
Answer: testable
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3
Chapter 2: Theories of Development
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Q1) Jada saw some money on the kitchen table. She really wanted to take it but her conscience kept her from it. Which part of Jada's personality is telling her that it would be socially unacceptable to take the money?
A) Superego
B) Ego
C) Unconscious
D) Id
Answer: A
Q2) Niko plans to go to a good college. He seems unconcerned about competitive admissions policies because he believes that if he studies hard, he can get in wherever he wants. Bandura would consider this an example of which of the following?
A) A self-fulfilling prophecy
B) Delayed gratification
C) A positive self image
D) Self-efficacy
Answer: D
Q3) ________ coined the term operant conditioning.
Answer: B. F. Skinner
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Chapter 3: Prenatal Development and Birth
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Q1) Gina appeared to be a healthy pregnant woman but her baby was born with central nervous system damage, and later it was determined that the child was completely deaf and has mental retardation. Which of the following would be the most likely cause?
A) HIV
B) Cytomegalovirus
C) Syphilis
D) Rubella
Answer: B
Q2) ________ involves the insertion of a tiny camera into the uterus.
Answer: Fetoscopy
Q3) What is the tern for the pattern of inheritance in which many genes influence a trait?
A) Polymorphic inheritance
B) Polygenic inheritance
C) Monomorphic inheritance
D) Monogenic inheritance
Answer: B
Q4) The generic term for both ovaries and testes is ________ .
Answer: gonads
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Chapter 4: Physical, Sensory, and Perceptual Development in Infancy
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Q1) Infants as young as 2 months show some ________ ability as an object is moved slowly towards them.
Q2) Attention is regulated by the which of the following structures?
A) Reticular formation
B) Spinal cord
C) Temporal lobe
D) Hypothalamus
Q3) What program was put into place in 1995 which greatly increased the percentage of children receiving vaccinations in the United States?
Q4) The "visual cliff" is used to measure which of the following?
A) Visual acuity
B) Color vision
C) Depth sensitivity
D) Depth perception
Q5) According to Esther Thelen, true walking develops because of a genetic plan and a change in the ratio of ________ to ________ in infants' bodies.
Q6) Describe the difference in visual acuity between a newborn and a two-year-old.
Q7) Why do newborns recognize their mother's voice before anyone else's?
Q8) What is stamina? What factors contribute to the development of stamina? Page 6
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Chapter 5: Cognitive Development in Infancy
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Q1) Novelty preference and visual recognition are both part of whose Infant Intelligence test?
Q2) Which of the following terms describes a child's ability to produce language accurately?
A) Expression
B) Reception
C) Repetition
D) Holophrasing
Q3) Glynnis is 14 months old. She is trying out new things, playing with her toys, and manipulating objects in new ways - experimenting with her environment. Glynnis is in which substage of Piaget's first cognitive stage?
A) Primary reflexes
B) Primary circular reactions
C) Tertiary circular reactions
D) Mental representation
Q4) According to B.F. Skinner, how does babbling develop into language?
Q5) The ________ style is associated with strings of words that involve common interactions with adults.
Q6) What is the youngest age at which infants can remember specific objects?
Page 8
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Chapter 6: Social and Personality Development in Infancy
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Q1) According to trait theory, what is the opposite of approach/positive emotionality (or sociability)?
A) Inhibition
B) Irrationality
C) Irregularity
D) Introspection
Q2) Which of the following statements is true about attachment?
A) Securely attached infants have no greater social skills once they reach adolescence than insecurely attached infants.
B) Insecure avoidant infants are less likely as adolescents to act out sexually.
C) Attachment relationships are more critical to adult intimate relationships than other types of relationships.
D) Quality of attachment in infancy predicted sexual dysfunction in adults better than a sexual abuse history did.
Q3) If Chandra is an easy child, she will have lower levels of ________ and higher levels of ________ with positive emotions.
Q4) Another name for the objective self is ________.
Q5) What does the term goodness-of-fit mean?
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Chapter 7: Physical and Cognitive Development in Early Childhood
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Q1) According to neuroscientists, what is the primary determinant of which functions will or will not be lateralized?
A) Social experiences
B) Physical experiences
C) Genes
D) The hippocampus
Q2) What is the basic function of the corpus callosum?
Q3) Inflections appearing in the form of adding "ing" to words are common among
A) 2 1/2 to 3 year olds.
B) 3 to 4 year olds.
C) 3 1/2 to 5 year olds.
D) 2 year olds.
Q4) The principle that an object's quantity remains the same even though its shape may change is called ________. Children in Piaget's ________ stage are able to understand this principle.
Q5) When the left and right hemispheres of the cerebral cortex undergo functional specialization, it is called ________.
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Q6) According to Piaget, at about age two, children begin to use ________ in their thinking.
Chapter 8: Social and Personality Development in Early Childhood
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Q1) List the four parenting styles outlined in your text.
Q2) According to gender schema theory, which of the following will be true of a 5 or 6 year-old child?
A) They will label themselves correctly but others incorrectly in terms of gender.
B) They will allow for flexibility in gender roles.
C) They will assume that other children of their same gender will act differently than they do.
D) They will treat gender roles as absolute.
Q3) Six-year-old Harry asks his mother if he can stay up until 9 p.m. on Friday night to watch a special educational TV program. His mother says, "We'll try it this once to see how it goes." What is Harry's mother's parenting style?
A) Authoritarian
B) Authoritative
C) Neglectful
D) Punishing
Q4) List all four stages of Hoffman's theory of empathy development.
Q5) Give an example of how a 3-or 4-year-old might apply a gender stereotype.
Page 11
Q6) What personality trait correlates with altruism in young children?
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Chapter 9: Physical and Cognitive Development in Middle Childhood
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Q1) Class ________ is the understanding that subordinate categories are included in larger superordinate categories.
Q2) Which of the following is one of the information processing strategies described in your text?
A) Harmonics
B) Meta-processing
C) Retrieval activation
D) Systematic searching
Q3) Which of the following types of intelligence allows one to develop good social skills?
A) Linguistic
B) Interpersonal
C) Spatial
D) Intrapersonal
Q4) What did you learn about eating disorders in elementary schools? Was this surprising? Why or why not?
Q5) How effective is the use of stimulant medication in the treatment of ADHD?
Q6) What does the research indicate regarding sexual differences in verbal and mathematical capabilities?
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Chapter 10: Social and Personality Development in Middle Childhood
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Q1) During the middle-childhood years, disciplinary interactions with parents typically decrease because a child is more capable of which of the following?
A) Person perception
B) Metacognition
C) Self-regulation
D) The use of psychological constructs
Q2) Although aggressive children tend to be disliked by their peers, they are usually considered to be
A) more intelligent.
B) of stronger character.
C) more competent.
D) of higher social status.
Q3) During the middle-childhood years, disciplinary interactions with parents typically decrease because a child is more capable of ________.
Q4) What effect does self-care have on children in terms of socialization and school performance?
Q5) What is the main difference in self-esteem between girls and boys?
Q6) Define self-esteem. Identify and describe two primary influences on self-esteem.
Q7) A ________ is a stable pattern of responding to situations.
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Chapter 11: Physical and Cognitive Development in Adolescence
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Q1) DeShaun wants to learn calculus so he can become an engineer. He is motivated by which type of goal?
A) Ability
B) Metacognitive
C) Hypothetical
D) Task
Q2) The core feature(s) of anorexia nervosa is (are) _______________.
A) binging and purging.
B) obsessive fear of food.
C) the use of laxatives or self-induced vomiting.
D) intense fear of weight gain, extreme dieting, and obsessive exercising.
Q3) Which hormone is responsible for changes at puberty, particularly the development of the secondary sex characteristics in girls?
A) Adrenal androgen
B) Thyroxine
C) Testosterone
D) Estrogen
Q4) Jason works out regularly at the gym. He is one of the best players on his soccer team. Jason's goal to be the best on his team is an example of a (n) ________ goal.
Page 14
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Chapter 12: Social and Personality Development in Adolescence
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Q1) Which theorist saw the issues of identity and role confusion as critical to adolescent development?
A) Sigmund Freud
B) Erik Erikson
C) Albert Bandura
D) Jean Piaget
Q2) According to Marcia, the two dimensions that make up identity status are ________ and ________.
Q3) Which of the following statements about teenaged employment is true?
A) Working in high school has been positively correlated with college success.
B) The more hours worked in high school, the more likely the teen is to be involved with drugs and alcohol.
C) Adults who worked in high school were more likely to go to college.
D) Employed high school students are less apt to argue with their parents.
Q4) Approximately ________% of friendships formed by tenth-graders are long-lasting.
Q5) List four different gender role identities identified by Bem. Give an example of a traditional gender role identity and an example of a nontraditional gender role identity. Explain how these roles affect self-esteem.
Q6) A combination of cliques forms a ________. Page 15
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Chapter 13: Physical and Cognitive Development in Early
Adulthood
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Q1) Which mental disorders are the most common in young adulthood?
Q2) Locus of control is best defined by which of the following?
A) An individual's beliefs about the causes of events
B) An individual's levels of optimism and pessimism
C) An individual's self-concept
D) An individual's ability to make something happen
Q3) Regarding immune function: immature T cells are made in the ________ and they mature in the ________.
Q4) Susan uses cocaine on a regular basis. She's finding that she has to use more and more cocaine to get the high that she wants. What is the term that describes this phenomenon?
A) Tolerance
B) Withdrawal
C) Psychological addiction
D) Drug dependence
Q5) Survey data show that ________% of women have been victims of sexual violence.
Q6) In the Alameda study on health and aging, only ________ and ________ were found to be unrelated to mortality.
Page 17
Q7) An inevitable consequence of aging is changes in ________ appearance.
Q8) Name three hallucinogens and the symptoms of withdrawal from these drugs.
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Chapter 14: Social and Personality Development in Early
Adulthood
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Q1) Why does the parental investment theory say that men are less selective in choosing a mate?
Q2) List the three components of love according to Sternberg. List seven types of love according to Sternberg and identify the components of each.
Q3) Bill is 50 years old. He has a good retirement portfolio in place and feels that he has made good career choices. He plans to stay in his current profession until he retires. According to Super, in which stage is Bill operating?
A) Growth
B) Exploratory
C) Establishment
D) Maintenance
Q4) One strategy for coping with conflicts between work and family life is to redefine family ________.
Q5) Explain two factors that explain why the average age of women delivering their first child has increased over the past three decades.
Q6) Which ethnic group in the United States places the highest emphasis on kinship and family ties?
Q7) Close friendships rely on mutual ________ and personal ________.
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Chapter 15: Physical and Cognitive Development in Middle
Adulthood
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Q1) Which of the following best defines the term creativity?
A) The ability to produce original, appropriate, and valuable ideas and/or solutions to problems.
B) The ability to draw, sign, dance, or paint
C) The ability to compensate for one's shortcomings
D) The ability to build and produce new forms of learning
Q2) Which of the following is one of the four stages of "mulling over" proposed by Daniel Goleman?
A) Inscription
B) Preparation
C) Reparation
D) Restitution
Q3) Which of the following is a risk factor for both heart disease and cancer?
A) High blood pressure
B) High cholesterol
C) Moderate alcohol use
D) Smoking
Q4) The last phase of menopause is called the ________ phase.
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Q5) The personality characteristic which seems to be the biggest contributor to cardiovascular disease is ________.
Chapter 16: Social and Personality Development in Middle
Adulthood
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Q1) Many potential employers believe that middle-aged workers are less able to learn new computer skills than their young-adult counterparts. This is an example of which of the following?
A) Reality
B) Compensation
C) Selective optimization
D) Ageism
Q2) Explain the three subprocesses of selective optimatization with compensation.
Q3) Which of the following is an effect commonly observed among adults who experience involuntary unemployment?
A) Heightened levels of anxiety and depression
B) Evolution of personality traits from conscientiousness and extroversion toward neuroticism
C) Lower risk of physical illness
D) Increases in an internal locus of control
Q4) What is stereotypically one of the most maligned relationships in U.S. culture?
A) The relationship between two mothers-in-law
B) The relationship between a woman and her own mother
C) The relationship between a son and his father-in-law
D) The relationship between a woman and her mother-in-law
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Chapter 17: Physical and Cognitive Development in Late
Adulthood
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Q1) The largest impairments in memory typically appear after what age?
A) 65
B) 70
C) 75
D) 85
Q2) A persistent ringing in the ears is called ________.
Q3) Which of the following is likely to affect sexual activity in older age?
A) Medications
B) Increasing testosterone levels
C) Cultural taboos
D) Lack of interest
Q4) Which of the following is a change that occurs in the brain during the adult years?
A) faster synaptic speed.
B) a gain of gray matter.
C) a reduction of brain weight.
D) a pruning of the synapses to eliminate redundant neural connections.
Q5) On which type of recall tasks are older adults likely to perform most poorly. Give an example.
Q6) Alzheimer's disease affects as many as ________ adults.
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Chapter 18: Social and Personality Development in Late
Adulthood
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Q1) Which of the following is correct regarding the nature of marital status and living arrangements in late adulthood in the United States?
A) The normal expectation for a woman is that she will eventually be without an intimate partner or spouse.
B) Older men are more likely to live alone than older women.
C) In the United States, living alone is the least common and the least preferred living arrangement among unmarried elders.
D) Most elders with mild to moderate disability or health problems live with relatives.
Q2) Which of the following is true regarding the positive effects of marriage on physical and psychological functioning of older adults?
A) They exist for men, but there are no benefits for older women.
B) Those that were seen in early and middle adulthood have largely disappeared by late adulthood.
C) They are greater for women than for men.
D) They occur among both women and men, but are generally greater for men than women.
Q3) How important are relationships with adult children to older adults?
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Chapter 19: Death Dying and Bereavement
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Q1) How are young adults unique in their beliefs about death? Cite a specific example from your text which exemplifies this unique view of death.
Q2) The most significant health effect resulting from widowhood seems to be decreased ________ system functioning.
Q3) A dying person who says "Why me? This isn't fair!" is in which stage of psychological preparation for death, according to Elizabeth Kübler-Ross?
A) Anger
B) Denial
C) Depression
D) Rejection
Q4) One of your employees has just lost his spouse. What can you do to assist your employee and benefit yourself and your business in the long-run?
A) Take up a collection to buy flowers for the funeral of the deceased
B) Encourage your employee to return to work as soon as possible in order to help them get on with their life
C) Attend the funeral of her husband to show your support
D) Give your employee enough time off to sufficiently grieve
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