Human Growth and Development Test Preparation
Course Introduction
Human Growth and Development explores the physical, cognitive, emotional, and social changes that occur throughout the lifespan, from conception to late adulthood. The course examines key theories and research findings related to developmental milestones, the impact of genetics and environment, the role of family, peers, and culture, as well as the challenges and transitions faced at different life stages. Emphasis is placed on understanding individual differences and applying developmental principles to real-life contexts, including education, healthcare, and social services.
Recommended Textbook HDEV 4th Edition by Spencer A. Rathus
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19 Chapters
1520 Verified Questions
1520 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: History, Theories, and Methods
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80 Verified Questions
80 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) According to Freud's psychosexual theory, children develop strong sexual attachments to the same-sex parent during the genital stage.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) Which of the following perspectives of child development is Arnold Gesell credited with?
A) Biological maturation of children
B) The inherent goodness of children
C) The inherently flawed nature of children
D) Environment influences of children
Answer: A
Q3) Which of the following is true of the ego according to Freud?
A) It is biologically based and present at birth.
B) It is driven by the quest for pleasure.
C) It forces us to follow rules and acts as a moral base.
D) It makes plans that are socially appropriate.
Answer: D
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3
Chapter 2: Heredity and Prenatal Development
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80 Verified Questions
80 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is true of mutations?
A) Mutations usually occur by chance.
B) Mutations produce sperm and ova cells.
C) Mutations occur through radiation or other environmental influences.
D) Mutations help adenine combine with guanine to form the single spiral structure of deoxyribonucleic acid.
Answer: C
Q2) After mitosis, the genetic code is identical in new cells unless _________ occur through radiation or other environmental influences.
A) reductions
B) expulsions
C) conceptions
D) mutations
Answer: D
Q3) Sperm are much larger than ova.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Birth and the Newborn Baby: In the New World
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80 Verified Questions
80 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Prolonged cutoff of the baby's oxygen supply during delivery can cause:
A) Turner syndrome
B) autism
C) Down syndrome
D) cerebral palsy
Answer: D
Q2) Oxygen deprivation during delivery is associated with an increased incidence of childhood schizophrenia.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) Which of the following terms refers to buttocks-first childbirth?
A) Premature birth
B) Breech presentation
C) Prepared childbirth
D) Normal delivery
Answer: B
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Infancy: Physical Development
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80 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The introduction of whole cow's milk to an infant:
A) should be delayed until the infant is 9 to 12 months old.
B) should be delayed until the infant is two to three years old.
C) is recommended from the time of birth of the infant.
D) is recommended by about four to six months of age.
Q2) Which of the following is true of the development of the brain?
A) A neonate's brain is more than one-third of its eventual adult size.
B) A neonate's body contains more neurons than the brain.
C) At birth, the brain contains no neurons as they develop due to experience.
D) Infants are born with about 100 billion neurons, most of which are in the brain.
Q3) _________ refers to the processes by which behaviors and physical structures become specialized.
A) Integration
B) Differentiation
C) Habituation
D) Canalization
Q4) Dendrites receive impulses from other neurons.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 5: Infancy: Cognitive Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) Screening infants does not detect early signs of sensory or neurological problems.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Infants begin cooing:
A) at birth.
B) during the second month.
C) at one week of age.
D) during the fourth month.
Q3) Which of the following is true of infant memory?
A) Infants demonstrate memory for experiences they had while still in the womb.
B) Infants demonstrate reliable memory only after four months of age.
C) Infants can only remember after 6 months of age.
D) Infants can memorize things with only one exposure.
Q4) Tertiary circular reactions in an infant lasts from _____ months of age.
A) one to four
B) four to eight
C) eight to twelve
D) twelve to eighteen
Q5) What are mirror neurons? Explain mirror neurons in humans.
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Chapter 6: Infancy: Social and Emotional Development
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80 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following types of attachment is characterized by severe distress at leave-takings and ambivalent behavior at reunions?
A) Avoidant attachment
B) Secure attachment
C) Resistant attachment
D) Indiscriminate attachment
Q2) According to Ainsworth and her colleagues, which of the following phases of attachment occurs at about six or seven months?
A) The attachment-in-the-making phase
B) The clear-cut-attachment phase
C) The initial-preattachment phase
D) The indiscriminate attachment phase
Q3) The _____ phase of attachment lasts from birth to about three months.
A) absolute-attachment
B) attachment-in-the-making
C) initial-preattachment
D) clear-cut-attachment
Q4) Are attachment patterns shown by children influenced by the quality of care?
Q5) Briefly describe the three types of temperament identified by Thomas and Chess.
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Chapter 7: Early Childhood: Physical and Cognitive Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) The corpus callosum is a thick bundle of nerve fibers that:
A) connects the cerebral cortex to the cerebellum.
B) connects the two hemispheres of the brain.
C) allows the frontal lobe and the medulla to communicate.
D) allows the cerebrum to interact with the limbic system.
Q2) American children between the ages of one and three average eight to nine minor illnesses a year.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is a limitation of assessing memory in young children?
A) Underdevelopment of their brains
B) Inaccuracy in their verbal reports
C) Slow development of neurons
D) Poor development of the amygdala
Q4) Which of the following is true of inner speech?
A) It is proof that cognitive development precedes language development.
B) It is proof that language development precedes cognitive development.
C) It is the ultimate binding of language and thought.
D) It is the conversation that a child has with his or her imaginary playmate.
Q5) Explain the major illnesses that occur in early childhood.
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Chapter 8: Early Childhood: Social and Emotional Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following restrictive techniques includes isolating or ignoring misbehaving children?
A) Power assertion
B) Withdrawal of love
C) Deduction
D) Induction
Q2) At about two to two and a half years of age, children:
A) perceive their own gender in a somewhat better light.
B) generally agree that boys play with cars and trucks, help their fathers, and tend to hit others.
C) display knowledge of gender stereotypes for toys, clothing, work, and activities.
D) can identify pictures of girls and boys.
Q3) Parallel play, associative play, and cooperative play are considered examples of
A) social play
B) gender-oriented play
C) solitary play
D) onlooker play
Q4) What is gender-schema theory?
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Middle Childhood: Physical and Cognitive Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) According to Kohlberg's theory of moral development, who among the following children is in the preconventional stage?
A) Caleb believes that school rules are instituted for the students' wellbeing.
B) Fred believes that good sons will obey their parents.
C) Dean believes that right and wrong are subjective and change with situation.
D) Britney believes that she should always speak the truth so that she does not get punished.
Q2) Using a paintbrush to paint pictures requires the use of:
A) gross motor skills.
B) systemic motor skills.
C) autonomic motor skills.
D) fine motor skills.
Q3) _________ requires the performance of fine motor skills.
A) Balancing on a bicycle
B) Hitting a tennis ball
C) Coordinating a knife and fork
D) Pedaling a bicycle
Q4) According to Piaget's theory of moral development, how do children's moral reasoning differ in the stages of objective morality and autonomous morality?
Page 11
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Chapter 10: Middle Childhood: Social and Emotional Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) As children undergo the cognitive developments of middle childhood, their self-concepts focus on concrete external traits, such as appearance, activities, and living situations.
A)True
B)False
Q2) According to studies by Tobin et al. in 2010 and Underwood & Rosen in 2011, in middle childhood, girls tend to have more positive self-concepts regarding _____ than boys.
A) general academics
B) mathematics
C) physical ability
D) physical appearance
Q3) Children with conduct disorders:
A) do not have temper flare-ups.
B) have a high tolerance for frustration.
C) tend to blame other people for their scrapes.
D) avoid indulging in sexual activity before puberty.
Q4) Children with conduct disorders have a high tolerance for frustration.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 11: Adolescence: Physical and Cognitive Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) Disadvantaged adolescent female African Americans are more likely to graduate from high school and avoid coercive romantic relationships.
A)True
B)False
Q2) _________thought, when found, first occurs during adolescence, apparently because formal-operational thinking is a prerequisite for it.
A) Postconventional
B) Preconventional
C) Conventional
D) Transcendental
Q3) Discuss some common characteristics of programs designed to prevent dropping out of school.
Q4) Which of the following is a depressant?
A) Barbiturate
B) Marijuana
C) Cocaine
D) Amphetamine
Q5) Evaluate Kohlberg's theory of moral development.
Q6) Discuss the gender differences in visual-spatial ability.
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Chapter 12: Adolescence: Social and Emotional Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a characteristic of adolescents in the stage of identity diffusion?
A) They tend to be alienated and rebellious.
B) They tend to exhibit suicidal tendencies.
C) The have established personal goals.
D) They set high standards for themselves.
Q2) Which of the following statements is true about adolescent girls?
A) They are less likely than boys to expect loyalty and companionship.
B) They are more likely than boys to have a smaller, exclusive network of friends.
C) They are less likely than boys to disclose personal or intimate details to friends.
D) They are more likely than boys to choose friends from the same level of social strata.
Q3) Unlike childhood peer groups, adolescent peer groups:
A) disregard the importance of shared activities.
B) are less likely to be influenced by a similarity in attitudes.
C) mayinclude more members of the opposite gender.
D) are controlled by parents.
Q4) List at least five warning signs of suicide among adolescents.
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Chapter 13: Early Adulthood: Physical and Cognitive Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) Describe the various menstrual problems that women experience in adulthood. Explain their symptoms and methods of treatment.
Q2) Which of the following is true of women in their late 30s and early 40s?
A) There is a decline in the quality and quantity of their ova.
B) They rarely have fertility problems.
C) They cannot have healthy children, including their first children.
D) The risk of developing chromosomal abnormalities during pregnancy is low.
Q3) Rape is less likely to be reported when:
A) it is committed by a stranger.
B) it involves female-on-female victimization.
C) it involves multiple assailants.
D) it is committed by an acquaintance.
Q4) As people age, the immune system produces fewer _________ and the disease-fighting ability of those that remain declines.
A) ova
B) red blood cells
C) platelets
D) white blood cells
Q5) Describe physical development during early adulthood.
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Chapter 14: Early Adulthood: Social and Emotional Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) Persons who marry late or who remarry tend to:
A) meet people from different age groups.
B) select partners close in age.
C) have more than one spouse.
D) have sexual access to multiple partners.
Q2) _________ can lead to loss of feelings of affection, feelings of insecurity and rejection, anxiety, loss of self-esteem, and feelings of mistrust.
A) Attraction
B) Reciprocity
C) Loneliness
D) Jealousy
Q3) According to Robert Sternberg, which of the following refers to the decision to devote oneself to a cause or another person?
A) Reciprocity
B) Passion
C) Intimacy
D) Commitment
Q4) Discuss the characteristics of lonely people.
Q5) Briefly describe Sternberg's triangular theory of love.
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Chapter 15: Middle Adulthood: Physical and Cognitive Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a technical term for a blood clot?
A) Tumor
B) Plaque
C) Lump
D) Thrombus
Q2) Cancer is a chronic, noncommunicable disease characterized by uncontrolled growth of cells.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following parts of the body secretes the hormone insulin?
A) The pancreas
B) The pituitary gland
C) The hypothalamus
D) The medulla
Q4) All types of memory functions decline in middle adulthood.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Define menopause, perimenopause, and the climacteric.
Q7) Does stress influence immunity levels in human beings? Page 17
Q6) How does aerobic capacity change during middle adulthood?
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Page 18
Chapter 16: Middle Adulthood: Social and Emotional Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) People who score high on the neuroticism scale of the five-factor model of personality tend to be insensitive to negative stimuli.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is true of the "empty nest syndrome"?
A) It affects middle-aged adults who separate from their spouses.
B) It no longer exists during middle adulthood.
C) It affects mothers much more than fathers.
D) It usually affects individuals in late twenties.
Q3) The growing job satisfaction throughout middle age can be linked to factors such as increased expertise and income.
A)True
B)False
Q4) _________ is a factor in the "big five" model of personality that contrasts kindness, trust, and warmth with hostility, selfishness, and distrust.
A) Conscientiousness
B) Agreeableness
C) Neuroticism
D) Extraversion
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Chapter 17: Late Adulthood: Physical and Cognitive Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) The medial temporal lobe is responsible for:
A) organizing information and strategic processes.
B) directing one's attention.
C) binding elements to form memory traces.
D) managing automatic functions, such as reflexes like breathing.
Q2) The risk of glaucoma tends to be higher among those who suffer from _________.
A) dementia
B) presbycusis
C) diabetes
D) arthritis
Q3) The number of years a person in a given population group can anticipate to live is called _________.
A) durability
B) life span
C) longevity
D) life expectancy
Q4) Retrospective memory helps us retrieve information from the past.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What is sleep apnea?
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Chapter 18: Late Adulthood: Social and Emotional Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) The optimistic attitude of successful agers may be derived from transcendence of the ego.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Steve, a 68-year-old man, quit his medical practice two years ago when he realized his work schedule was taking a toll on his health. He now occasionally lectures in colleges and spends most of his time volunteering at the local church. This example illustrates the concept of _____.
A) mutual withdrawal
B) ego differentiation versus work-role preoccupation
C) ego preoccupation versus body preoccupation
D) disengagement
Q3) After retirement, leisure activities are likely to:
A) increase the risk of cognitive impairment.
B) have an impact on the self-acceptance of retirees.
C) remain the same irrespective of the physical aspects of aging.
D) reduce retirees' chances of successful aging.
Q4) What is selective optimization with compensation?
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Q5) Are older adults willing to relocate to residences for the elderly? Why or why not?
Chapter 19: Lifes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements is true in the context of funerals?
A) Funerals provide an organized way of responding to death.
B) Funeral arrangements in America are typically inexpensive.
C) Caskets are often a minor burial expense among funeral arrangements.
D) Funerals signify the end of bereavement of a deceased's family.
Q2) According to Kübler-Ross's stages of dying, which of the following stages is most likely characterized by a person thinking that his or her diagnosis is wrong?
A) Bargaining
B) Denial
C) Depression
D) Acceptance
Q3) How does a living will support a person who may be unable to communicate his or her wishes in the event of permanent incapacitation?
Q4) Which of the following is an alternative term that is used to refer to euthanasia?
A) Palliative care
B) Sedation
C) Suicide
D) Mercy killing
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