Human Growth and Development
Final Exam
Course Introduction
Human Growth and Development explores the fundamental physical, cognitive, emotional, and social changes individuals experience from conception through late adulthood. This course examines major developmental theories, key milestones, and the various factors such as genetics, environment, culture, and family that influence human development across the lifespan. Students will gain an understanding of how individuals adapt to different life stages and transitions, and how developmental knowledge can inform educational, psychological, and health-related practices.
Recommended Textbook
HDEV 5th Edition by Spencer A. Rathus
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19 Chapters
2228 Verified Questions
2228 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: History, Theories, and Methods
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115 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Robbie is a four-year-old who goes to a play school when his mother goes to work. He spends his weekdays in this school, and he gets to play with other children who are his age and also listen to rhymes and stories from his teacher. Which of the following systems is represented by Robbie's play school?
A) The mesosystem
B) The exosystem
C) The microsystem
D) The macrosystem
Answer: C
Q2) According to Freud's psychosexual theory, children develop strong sexual attachments to the same-sex parent during the genital stage.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) Fixed action patterns are learned behaviors.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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3
Chapter 2: Heredity and Prenatal Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) When children who are reared by adoptive parents are nonetheless more similar to their natural parents in a trait, it can be concluded that:
A) the genetic characteristics of the children change over time.
B) heredity is solely responsible for how a child grows.
C) the environment is solely responsible in the development of those characteristics.
D) genetics play a role in the development of those characteristics.
Answer: D
Q2) Twins that derive from a single zygote that has split into two are called:
A) monozygotic (MZ) twins.
B) non-identical twins.
C) fraternal twins.
D) dizygotic (DZ) twins.
Answer: A
Q3) Dizygotic (DZ) twins share _________percent of their genes.
A) 100
B) 75
C) 50
D) 25
Answer: C
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Chapter 3: Birth and the Newborn Baby: in the New World
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115 Verified Questions
115 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Babies who sleep on a firm sleep surface are most likely to die from sudden infant death syndrome.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) During a breech presentation, the prolonged constriction of the umbilical cord may occur as the:
A) tiny air sacs in the baby's lungs stick together without expanding.
B) umbilical cord may dry and fall off on its own.
C) baby's body may press the umbilical cord against the birth canal.
D) baby does not receive enough oxygen in utero to develop properly.
Answer: C
Q3) The term _____ refers to an infant from birth through the first four weeks of life.
A) embryo
B) fetus
C) neonate
D) toddler
Answer: C
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Chapter 4: Infancy: Physical Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements supports the role of nature in perceptual development?
A) Neonates are born with a variety of sensory preferences.
B) Neonates are born with visual-motor coordination skills.
C) Four-month-olds cannot distinguish between their mother's and father's voices.
D) Sensory changes, unlike motor changes, appear to be linked to maturation of the nervous system.
Q2) Discuss the development of hearing in neonates.
Q3) Briefly explain the sequence of motor development in infancy.
Q4) Organic failure to thrive is caused by _____.
A) environmental factors
B) biological factors
C) social factors
D) both psychological and social factors
Q5) The introduction of finger foods to an infant is recommended:
A) at about two months of age.
B) in the latter part of the first year.
C) from the time of birth of an infant.
D) at two to three years of age.
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Chapter 5: Infancy: Cognitive Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) When infants babble, they tend to produce:
A) incomplete sentences.
B) only vowel sounds.
C) complete sentences of five to six words.
D) combinations of consonants and vowels.
Q2) The motor scale in the Bayley Scales of Infant Development assesses _____.
A) attention span
B) goal directedness
C) standing skills
D) emotional development
Q3) The angular gyrus "translates" auditory information, such as spoken words, into visual information.
A)True
B)False
Q4) _____, such as cooing and babbling, do not represent objects or actions, so infant crying is not a primitive form of language.
A) Receptive skills
B) Nonverbal cues
C) Prelinguistic vocalizations
D) Linguistic vocalizations
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Infancy: Social and Emotional Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) Autistic children may show _________, a refusal to speak.
A) mutism
B) echolalia
C) insecure attachment
D) generalized anxiety
Q2) In the context of the mirror technique designed to assess the development of self-concept among infants, nose touching suggests that children recognize themselves and that they perceive that the dot of rouge is an abnormality.
A)True
B)False
Q3) According to studies by Beebe et al. in 2010 and Stupica et al. in 2011, which of the following is true of attachment patterns?
A) They are not influenced by a deterioration in home life.
B) They become unstable when an insecure infant suddenly becomes securely attached over a six-month period.
C) They remain unstable for infants receiving fine care.
D) They tend to persist when caregiving conditions remain constant.
Q4) Discuss the causes of child abuse.
Q5) Are attachment patterns in infants influenced by the quality of infant care?
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Chapter 7: Early Childhood: Physical and Cognitive Development
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131 Verified Questions
131 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) In right-handed individuals, the left hemisphere of the brain is relatively more involved in _____ functions.
A) problem-solving
B) visual-spatial
C) aesthetic
D) emotional
Q2) Which of the following statements is true of two-year-olds?
A) They typically have a more erratic appetite.
B) They need about 2,300 calories per day.
C) They need more calories per day than an infant.
D) They typically have an increased appetite for salty foods.
Q3) Environmental enrichment degrades the cognitive development of economically disadvantaged children.
A)True
B)False
Q4) In the context of the zone of proximal development, caring for young children helps older children and adults develop child-rearing capabilities.
A)True
B)False
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Early Childhood: Social and Emotional Development
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115 Verified Questions
115 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is true of preoperational children?
A) They tend to be able to see things from the vantage points of others.
B) They tend to be egocentric.
C) They interact with other children to achieve common, group goals.
D) They tend to exhibit empathy.
Q2) Compare the rejecting-neglecting parenting style with the permissive-indulgent parenting style.
Q3) _____ involves children observing other children who are at play. The observers do not overtly join in.
A) Onlooker play
B) Solitary play
C) Formal play
D) Unoccupied play
Q4) _________refers to play in which children enact social roles.
A) Dramatic play
B) Functional play
C) Onlooker play
D) Unoccupied play
Q5) What is gender-schema theory?
Q6) Describe the permissive-indulgent parenting style. Page 10
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Chapter 9: Middle Childhood: Physical and Cognitive Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) The term _________is the intellectual level at which a child is functioning, based on the typical performance of a child of a certain age.
A) mental age
B) intelligence quotient
C) chronological age
D) emotional quotient
Q2) Intelligence quotient is the:
A) intellectual level at which a child functions, based on the typical performance of a child of a certain age.
B) ratio obtained by dividing a child's mental age on an intelligence test by his or her chronological age.
C) factor hypothesized to be present in intelligence tests that provides an advantage for test takers from certain cultural backgrounds.
D) descriptive result of an intelligence test in which cultural biases have been removed.
Q3) Write a brief note on the origins of dyslexia.
Q4) Briefly explain grammar and vocabulary development in children.
Q5) Briefly explain the causes of obesity.
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Chapter 10: Middle Childhood: Social and Emotional Development
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115 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) How does one's self-esteem change during middle childhood?
Q2) According to research by Amato & Anthony in 2014 and Hicks et al. in 2013, the children of divorce are:
A) more likely to have good grades in school.
B) more likely to have conduct disorders.
C) less likely to abuse drugs.
D) unlikely to rebound even after many years.
Q3) Discuss the treatment of depression in middle childhood.
Q4) According to research by Steca et al. in 2014, a child with low self-esteem in academics tends to:
A) change his or her strategy for achieving success.
B) make persistent effort to overcome obstacles.
C) quit following failure.
D) show more confidence in his or her ability.
Q5) Children with conduct disorders:
A) do not have temper flare-ups.
B) have a high tolerance for frustration.
C) tend to blame other people for their scrapes.
D) avoid indulging in sexual activity before puberty.
Q6) Discuss the importance of peers and peer acceptance during middle childhood. Page 13
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Page 14
Chapter 11: Adolescence: Physical and Cognitive Development
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121 Verified Questions
121 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements is true of nutrition during adolescent years?
A) Most teenagers do not consume enough fat.
B) Most teenagers do not consume enough sodium.
C) Most teenagers do not consume enough calcium.
D) Most teenagers do not consume enough sugar.
Q2) Describe anorexia nervosa.
Q3) Which of the following is a characteristic of programs designed to prevent school dropouts?
A) Large class size with a focus on strict controls and checks
B) Generic instructions that explain complex concepts
C) Highly advanced and distant educational programs
D) Involvement of families or community organizations
Q4) Which of the following statements is true of menarche among adolescent girls?
A) Girls usually begin to ovulate five to six months after menarche.
B) Body height of adolescent girls plays a crucial role in the onset of menarche.
C) The onset of menarche can be determined by average height.
D) Menarche comes later to girls who have a lower percentage of body fat.
Q5) Discuss the factors contributing to eating disorders in American adolescents.
Q6) Discuss the use of stimulant drugs among adolescents.
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Chapter 12: Adolescence: Social and Emotional Development
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126 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statuses is characteristic of younger adolescents and of older adolescents who drift through life or become alienated and rebellious?
A) Moratorium
B) Generativity
C) Identity diffusion
D) Ego integrity
Q2) In comparison to friendships of childhood, friendships in adolescence are:
A) unlikely to illustrate gender differences.
B) less likely to stress the importance of acceptance.
C) unlikely to be influenced by age.
D) more likely to stress the importance of intimate self-disclosure.
Q3) Which of the following statements is true of sexual behavior?
A) Sex hormones predispose lower animals to stereotypical masculine or feminine mating patterns.
B) Genetic factors are unlikely to determine the sexual orientation of individuals.
C) Sexual differentiation of sex organs and brain begin at the same time.
D) Individuals are genetically predisposed to have a homosexual orientation.
Q4) Discuss masturbation among adolescents.
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Chapter 13: Early Adulthood: Physical and Cognitive Development
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115 Verified Questions
115 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Dan has HIV. _________is the cause of Dan's disease.
A) Gonococcus bacterium
B) Pthirus pubis
C) The human immunodeficiency virus
D) The human papilloma virus
Q2) Karen is overweight and has decided to shed some pounds to get healthier. She wants to implement a cognitive-behavioral method to achieve her goal. Which of the following is she most likely to implement to make her weight-loss program successful?
A) Intentionally subject herself to temptations so she can learn how to resist them
B) Eat her entire meal without a break so that her body can learn how much food she needs
C) Reward herself for meeting calorie goals, as long as that reward is not food
D) Binge on occasions, such as an office party, and refrain from resuming dieting the very next day
Q3) Discuss obesity and its causes in emerging adulthood.
Q4) Sensory sharpness declines dramatically in early adulthood.
A)True
B)False
Page 17
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Chapter 14: Early Adulthood: Social and Emotional Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) According to a study conducted by Selingo in 2016, feelings of connectedness to parents:
A) disappear completely after one begins attending college.
B) increase dramatically after employment or financial independence.
C) are related to the amount of financial and emotional support students receive from parents.
D) are related to the values and interests traditionally associated with the institution of marriage.
Q2) Discuss the cost of divorce.
Q3) Evan is an attractive, young man who has chosen to remain single. He is afraid of dating and relationships as he believes having sex would lead to sexually transmitted infections. Evan is practicing _____.
A) celibacy
B) polyandry
C) monogamy
D) homogamy
Q4) Loneliness decreases from childhood to adolescence.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 15: Middle Adulthood: Physical and Cognitive Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) Who among the following middle-aged individuals is most likely suffering from atherosclerosis?
A) Rebecca, who experiences night sweats and hot flushes.
B) Jane, whose doctor tells her that there is a buildup of plaque in the lining of her arteries.
C) Judy, whose doctor tells her that she is vulnerable to fractures because of her declining bone density.
D) Lisa, who feels feverish after she accidentally cuts her finger with a knife.
Q2) Researchers theorize a stronger role for _____ in the genesis of fluid intelligence as compared to crystallized intelligence.
A) diet and exercise
B) neurological factors
C) environmental factors
D) cultural factors
Q3) Erectile problems can arise when clogged or narrow arteries leading to the penis deprive the penis of blood and oxygen.
A)True
B)False
Q4) How does aerobic capacity change during middle adulthood?
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Chapter 16: Middle Adulthood: Social and Emotional Development
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120 Verified Questions
120 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The term "sandwich generation" refers to older adults who are squeezed into homes with their children and grandchildren.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Identify an event that is likely to trigger a midlife crisis among middle-aged adults.
A) The acquisition of a new home
B) The birth of nephews and nieces
C) The death of a parent or a friend
D) The wedding of a grandchild
Q3) According to a study of more than 2,000 university employees conducted by Hochwarter et al. in 2001, job satisfaction _____ throughout middle adulthood.
A) decreased sharply
B) remained steady
C) reduced gradually
D) increased steadily
Q4) Discuss friendships during middle adulthood.
Q5) In the context of middle adulthood, discuss personality themes among college-educated women.
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Chapter 17: Late Adulthood: Physical and Cognitive Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) Benjamin is an 80-year-old man whose acuteness of hearing has dramatically decreased over the last decade. This indicates that he has most likely developed:
A) presbyopia.
B) retinitis.
C) glaucoma.
D) presbycusis.
Q2) Discuss changes in prospective memory in the late adulthood phase of life.
Q3) Implicit memory is associated with the ability to:
A) visually associate people with their names.
B) automatically recall things learnt by repetition.
C) remember past incidents and general knowledge.
D) recollect our plans for the future.
Q4) Which of the following is a result of the stiffening of collagen?
A) Brittle bones
B) Coarse and dry skin
C) Increase in vaginal lubrication
D) Excessive apoptosis
Q5) Immunological theory is a cellular damage theory of aging.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 18: Late Adulthood: Social and Emotional Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) Research has consistently shown that older adults who are best adjusted to retirement are those who:
A) minimize their familial and social interactions.
B) are less likely to be married.
C) are highly involved in a variety of activities.
D) find it difficult to participate in leisure and other non-work-related activities.
Q2) Which of the following statements is true of anxiety disorders?
A) Generalized anxiety disorder tends to be rare in late adulthood.
B) Panic disorder is the most common anxiety disorder observed among older adults.
C) They can be harmful to older people's physical health.
D) They do not coexist with depression.
Q3) Which of the following statements is true of depression in late adulthood?
A) It is indicated and characterized solely by sadness or bereavement.
B) It is more common among older adults than among younger adults.
C) It can be connected with possible structural changes in the brain.
D) It cannot be linked to genetic factors.
Q4) "Self-esteem of older adults is tied into independence and dependence." Discuss.
Q5) Discuss changes in self-esteem among late adults.
Page 22
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Chapter 19: Lifes
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Sample Questions
Q1) According to Kübler-Ross's stages of dying, which of the following stages is most likely characterized by a person thinking that his or her diagnosis is wrong?
A) Bargaining
B) Denial
C) Depression
D) Acceptance
Q2) According to Kübler-Ross's stages of dying, the stage of denial is usually followed by the stage of _________.
A) acceptance
B) depression
C) anger
D) bargaining
Q3) In the case of older, retired adults, continuing with physical, leisure, and informal social activities are all associated with:
A) greater life satisfaction.
B) lower ego differentiation.
C) an acceleration in the effects of aging.
D) a low self-esteem.
Q4) Discuss ways of helping a child cope with grief.
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