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Human Growth and Development explores the physical, cognitive, emotional, and social changes that occur in individuals throughout the lifespan from conception through late adulthood. The course examines major theories and research findings in developmental psychology, considering influences such as genetics, family, culture, and environment. Students will analyze the milestones and challenges of each life stage, including prenatal development, childhood, adolescence, adulthood, and aging, with a focus on the interplay between biological processes and socio-cultural factors. Understanding these patterns equips students to apply developmental principles in educational, healthcare, and social service settings.
Recommended Textbook
Lifespan Development 6th Edition by Denise Boyd
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Q1) Cohort effects are most commonly associated with which type of research design?
A) Cross-sectional designs
B) Longitudinal designs
C) Sequential designs
D) Quasi-experimental designs
Answer: A
Q2) What is the term for changes that occur in most members of a cohort as a result of factors at work during a specific, well-defined historical period?
A) Nonnormative change
B) General normative change
C) Normative age-graded change
D) Normative history-graded change
Answer: D
Q3) Who is the researcher famous for the Stanford Prison Experiment during the 1970s?
A) Carol Tavris
B) Philip Zimbardo
C) Elizabeth Loftus
D) David Rosenhan
Answer: B
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Q1) Which of the following theorists is known for the development of sociocultural theory?
A) Jean Piaget
B) Lev Vygotsky
C) Albert Bandura
D) Ivan Pavlov
Answer: B
Q2) Which of the following theories is concerned with the developmental aspects of thinking, memory, and logic?
A) Cognitive
B) Social
C) Psychodynamic
D) Behavioral
Answer: A
Q3) According to Freud, the aspect of the personality which demands immediate gratification of sexual and aggressive impulses is the ________.
Answer: id
Q4) Psychosocial is to ________ as Psychoanalytic is to ________.
Answer: Erikson; Freud
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Q1) Which of the following is associated with maternal malnutrition?
A) A decreased risk of delivering a low birth weight infant
B) The delayed expression of adaptive reflexes
C) The development of mental illnesses in adulthood
D) Brain abnormalities in which both the weight and volume of the brain are enlarged
Answer: B
Q2) There is no scientific evidence that hypnobirthing is as effective as giving a mother a(n) ________ during delivery.
Answer: epidural
Q3) Salina is becoming emotionally attached to her unborn fetus. Her breasts are secreting colostrum. Salina is most likely in which trimester?
A) Third
B) Fourth
C) First
D) Second
Answer: A
Q4) All neonates below ________ are classified as having low birth weights.
Answer: 5.5 pounds
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Q1) Define apnea and explain its relationship to SIDS.
Q2) Which of the following statements is true regarding the well-known research carried out by Gibson and Walk on depth perception?
A) It provided little information regarding depth perception in children under the age of six months.
B) Children who had developed depth perception would continue to crawl beyond the boundaries of the cliff.
C) Children use aesthetic cues to determine the depth of a cliff.
D) Flinching is observed in children as young as 3 months of age.
Q3) Researchers determine an infant's interest in an object by measuring which of the following?
A) Whether or not they look directly at the object
B) How long they look at the object
C) Whether or not they show signs of boredom such as yawning
D) Whether or not they smile at the object
Q4) ________ refers to the process of bone hardening.
Q5) Children will begin to show some signs of hand preference by age ________ .
Q6) Explain the progression of sound location from infancy to 18 months of age.
Q7) What is stamina? What factors contribute to the development of stamina?
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Q1) What is the term used by linguists for grammatical markers?
A) Inflections
B) Holophrases
C) Reductions
D) Monophrases
Q2) In which substage did Piaget suggest that children can first imitate the facial expressions of others?
A) Two
B) Three
C) Four
D) Five
Q3) Children combine several gestures in their pretend play at around the same time that they first show two or three-word sentences in their speech. This supports which view of language development?
A) LAD
B) Interactionist
C) Nativist
D) Naturalist
Q4) Define babbling.
Q5) What is meant by the A-not-B error? When is this error typically resolved?
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Q1) Gregory cries and his mother responds immediately. When he coos at his mother, she smiles and cuddles him. Developmentalists would say that this is an example of
Q2) Which of the following terms is used to describe children who readily separate from their caregivers and seem to enjoy exploring their surroundings?
A) Securely attached
B) Affectively attached
C) Irregularly attached
D) Insecurely attached
Q3) Which of the following suggests that humans need and seek to form relationships early in life as a matter of genetics?
A) Psychosexual theory
B) Psychosocial theory
C) Symbiosis theory
D) Attachment theory
Q4) An emotional bond formed with a caregiver is called ________ .
Q5) Frontal lobe ________ is a neurological issue associated with shyness.
Q6) What determines whether a child placed in day care will develop a normal range of vocabulary?
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Q1) According to your text, early childhood is a period of optimum growth and maturation for which part of the brain?
A) The parasympathetic nervous system
B) The corpus callosum
C) Synapses
D) The sympathetic nervous system
Q2) All of the children on Hazel Street have spent the morning building a tree house from scraps of wood and other building materials acquired from a nearby construction site. This is an example of
A) sensorimotor play.
B) substitute pretend play.
C) sociodramatic play.
D) constructive play.
Q3) The use of verb forms or verb tenses (such as eating or ate from the verb eat) defines which of the following?
A) Holophrases
B) Inflections
C) Generalization
D) Appropriate extension
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Q1) A style of communicating that usually involves girls using suggestions, support, and agreement between themselves is called ________.
Q2) Which of the following is one of the dimensions of family functioning conceptualized by Diana Baumrind in her study of parenting styles?
A)Mother/father power sharing
B) Disobedience
C) Clear and consistent rules
D) Discipline
Q3) The authors of your text describe the period of early childhood in terms of which of the following?
A) "Learning boundaries"
B) "Stepping out"
C) "Sensing autonomy"
D) "Parental infatuation"
Q4) U.S. data suggests that a woman's income level drops an average of ________% following divorce.
Q5) According to your text, some children show preferences for particular playmates as early as ________.
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Q1) Why would a group of preoperational children find magic tricks uninteresting?
A) Because they do not have the cognitive ability to make sense of the tricks.
B) Because they understand that the tricks are fake.
C) Because they don't understand natural laws.
D) Because they are more attracted to activities that include movement.
Q2) What does your text suggest is the most significant physical development of middle childhood?
A) Boys overtake girls in height, weight, and motor skills.
B) Children experience an increased incidence of illnesses and a decreased risk of accidents.
C) Improvement in fine motor coordination that makes it possible to write, play a musical instrument, paint, and draw
D) Development of large motor skills that make possible activities such as running, kicking with alternating feet, balancing, and throwing
Q3) Give an example of a superordinate class and a subordinate class.
Q4) What are the three most common reasons why parents decide to homeschool their children?
Q5) List four disabilities for which children in the U.S. would receive special education services.
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Q1) Which of the following refers to children's global self-evaluation, which includes factors such as how well they like themselves or how happy they are?
A) Intrapersonal perception
B) Self-construct
C) Self-esteem
D) Introspection
Q2) Which of the following is the best example of relational aggression?
A) Dawn yelled at her older sister, "Get up! I'm supposed to sit next to Daddy!"
B) Sylvia lobbed a rotten apple at the boys in the tree house, and they immediately began to chase her down the street.
C) Gloria announced to her friends, "We're not going to be friends with Sharinda any more. She's fat!"
D) Jonathon reached across the aisle and gave Iman's pigtail a hard tug.
Q3) Parents who tell their children to ignore bullies so that they will go away are encouraging their children to use the process of ________ to stop the bullying behavior.
Q4) According to trait theory, the extent to which people try to get along with others measures their ________.
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Q1) Which hormone is responsible for changes at puberty, particularly the development of the secondary sex characteristics in girls?
A) Adrenal androgen
B) Thyroxine
C) Testosterone
D) Estrogen
Q2) According to current research, which of the following accounts for the secular trend in development worldwide?
A) Better sex education
B) Declines in teen sexual behavior
C) Improvements in nutrition and health care
D) Lack of proper prenatal care
Q3) Name three reasons why the incidence of cigarette smoking has decreased among U.S. teens since the 1970s.
Q4) What is the term for the onset of the menstrual cycle?
A) Menstruation
B) Ovarianation
C) Secularization
D) Menarche
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Q1) The identity prototypes that are associated with reputation-based peer groups most likely serve the developmental purpose of
A) helping teens understand their potential roles as adults.
B) maintaining order and discipline among groups in the educational setting.
C) clarifying appropriate targets for social and romantic interests.
D) helping to create or reinforce adolescents' sense of identity.
Q2) An individual who has thought carefully about their moral values and considers what is best for society as well as for themselves, even if it goes against conventional morals, would be in Kohlberg's stage of ________.
Q3) Explain why adolescents of ethnic minorities tend to model athletes and "famous" individuals rather than people that they are familiar with in their every day lives, even if these people are high achievers.
Q4) Marcia's theory of adolescent identity achievement suggests that adolescent identity formation has two key parts. What are they?
A) Confusion and resolution
B) Extrusion and inclusion
C) Crisis and commitment
D) A physical transformation; a psychosocial transition
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Q1) When is a woman's fertility at its peak?
A) Late teens and early twenties
B) In her mid-twenties
C) In her 30s
D) In her early 40s
Q2) Changes in the heart and lungs that take place in young adulthood are likely not to be noticeable except during ________.
Q3) Researchers have identified two different types of aging. What are they?
A) Aerobic and anaerobic
B) Primary and secondary
C) Individual and cohort comparative
D) Decline and compensation
Q4) African American students who attend historically Black institutions show more gains in both ________ and ________ competence than those who attend predominantly White colleges.
Q5) Which of the following is a bacterial STD?
A) Chlamydia
B) Herpes
C) HPV
D) HIV

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Q1) Owen is an engineer. He is working on a project to map the human genome. In addition, he can calculate massive columns of numbers in his head but cannot remember to say hello in the hallway. Holland would label Owen as
A) artistic.
B) social.
C) investigative.
D) conventional.
Q2) What is the most reliable predictor of PPD?
A) Depression during pregnancy
B) Difficulty during the pregnancy
C) Prenatal hormone deficiencies
D) An unplanned pregnancy
Q3) Which of the following terms does Jeffrey Arnett use to refer to the developmental period between 17 and 22 years of age?
A) Emerging adulthood
B) Transition-to-adulthood
C) Post adolescence
D) Postformal adulthood
Q4) List and define the three components of love according to Sternberg's theory.
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Q1) Which of the following is the second leading cause of death in middle and old age in the United States?
A) Heart disease
B) Cancer
C) Diabetes related complications
D) Obesity
Q2) Briefly describe the concept of selective optimization with compensation. Give an example of this process.
Q3) Which characteristic of Type A personality is most closely linked to CVD?
A) Time urgency
B) Competitiveness
C) Personal aggressiveness
D) Hostility
Q4) _______ is not a risk factor commonly associated with cancer.
A) Alcohol.
B) Cholesterol.
C) Smoking.
D) Weight.
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Q5) Why do we understand relatively little about the normal, undamaged brains of middle-aged adults?

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Q1) When a middle-aged worker deliberately exercises crucial abilities, they are engaging in ________.
Q2) How do Baby Boomers differ from their parents in terms of retirement age and planning?
Q3) Which of the following is one of the outcomes of a career-based social network according to Vaillant?
A) Consternation
B) Competence
C) Contemplation
D) Complacency
Q4) What is the term that Erikson uses to describe a desire to establish and guide the next generations?
A) Propagation
B) Reproduction
C) Generativity
D) Intimacy
Q5) Think about the concept of mid-life crisis. Consider what your text says as well as your own experience in observing people around you. Do you think that mid-life crisis is a reality for most people, just some, or is it total fiction?
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Q1) The ________ hypothesis asserts that all adults retain excellent physical and mental function until just a few years before death.
Q2) Summarize the trends in life expectancy in the U.S. from the early 20th century into the 21st century. Be detailed and specific in your answer.
Q3) Auditory problems typically are experienced
A) by more women than men.
B) by more men than women.
C) with equal frequency by women and men.
D) only by the oldest old subgroup.
Q4) What are the poor health habits which seem to have the biggest impact on decreased longevity? What is the single most crucial variable in predicting longevity in later life?
Q5) Which of the following statements is true?
A) From 1960 - 1994 the over-65 population in the U.S. decreased.
B) By 2050 it is estimated that the over-100 population will triple.
C) From 1960 - 1994 the over-85 population in the U.S. decreased.
D) By 2050 it is estimated that the over-85 population in the U.S. will exceed 19 million.
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Q6) In the United States, the average 65 year old woman will live to age ________.

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Q1) Isabelle was raised Catholic although she only occasionally attended church services. Now that she is in her 80s, she attends mass regularly. What is this behavior called?
Q2) How does attendance at religious services correlate with health? Explain the possible reasons for this correlation.
Q3) Which of the following is the BEST example of Erikson's despair?
A) When Mr. Trump offers advice to his family, he often says, "Don't make the same mistakes I did. I wish I could live my life over."
B) Mr. and Mrs. Albertson are the unofficial grandparents of many children in their neighborhood, and their home is always open to any child who needs a hot meal or a caring word.
C) Mrs. Smith and Mr. White had both been widowed for many years and were eager for the love and companionship they could offer each other in their last years.
D) Mrs. Brown tells her family that she will die happy with the world because she has lived a good life and has few regrets.
Q4) According to disengagement theory, ________ is the tendency of people to interact with fewer and fewer people and fill fewer and fewer roles.
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Q1) It is believed that widowhood has both immediate and long-term effects on which of the following?
A) The cardiovascular system
B) The immune system
C) Hormone production of the endocrine system
D) The nervous system
Q2) One of your employees has just lost his spouse. What can you do to assist your employee and benefit yourself and your business in the long-run?
A) Take up a collection to buy flowers for the funeral of the deceased
B) Encourage your employee to return to work as soon as possible in order to help them get on with their life
C) Attend the funeral of her husband to show your support
D) Give your employee enough time off to sufficiently grieve
Q3) How are young adults unique in their beliefs about death? Cite a specific example from your text which exemplifies this unique view of death.
Q4) According to the research conducted by Greer and his colleagues on women with cancer, what type of attitude toward a terminal diagnosis correlates positively with longevity after diagnosis?
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