Human Genetics Pre-Test Questions - 1034 Verified Questions

Page 1


Course Introduction

Human Genetics

Pre-Test Questions

Human Genetics explores the principles of heredity and genetic variation in humans, covering the structure and function of genes, chromosomes, and genomes. The course examines patterns of inheritance, gene expression, genetic disorders, and the role of genetics in health and disease. Students will learn about molecular genetics techniques, genetic counseling, ethical issues, and recent advances such as genome editing and personalized medicine, equipping them with a comprehensive understanding of how genetics influences individual traits and contributes to human diversity.

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Human Genetics 10th Edition by Ricki Lewis

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22 Chapters

1034 Verified Questions

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2

Chapter 1: What Is in a Human Genome

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Sample Questions

Q1) DNA profiling has been used to 2-14-2013

A)identify victims of terrorist attacks and natural disasters.

B)cure metabolic diseases caused by mutations in single genes.

C)treat male infertility.

D)predict how children will do in school.

Answer: A

Q2) A genotype refers to

A)particular allele combinations.

B)expression patterns of certain genes.

C)the environmental components of a trait.

D)the number of chromosomes that a person has.

Answer: A

Q3) The four basic tissue types are

A)blood cells,skin cells,neurons,and muscle cells.

B)adipose cells,muscle cells,bone cells,and sex cells.

C)connective tissue,epithelium,muscle,and nervous tissue.

D)the stomach,the small intestine,the liver,and the pancreas.

Answer: C

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Chapter 2: Cells

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Sample Questions

Q1) Cilia are built of A)microorganisms.

B)microfilaments.

C)micronutrients.

D)microtubules.

Answer: D

Q2) The defining characteristic of a stem cell is

A)self-repair.

B)self-renewal.

C)the ability to turn into a cancer cell.

D)its origin from a progenitor cell.

Answer: B

Q3) Which of the following is true of the human microbiome?

A)High blood sugar following weight-loss surgery is partly due to a changed gut microbiome.

B)An altered microbiome hastens starvation in malnourished children.

C)Antibiotics do not alter the gut microbiome.

D)The microbiome consists primarily of cells that belong to the human body.

Answer: B

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Page 4

Chapter 3: Meiosis,Development and Aging

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Sample Questions

Q1) Amniotic fluid

A)absorbs wastes the fetus excretes.

B)protects the embryo against jarring movements.

C)prevents the fetus from becoming thirsty.

D)is a fetal form of blooD.

Answer: B

Q2) Meiosis in females

A)is completed only if an oocyte is fertilized.

B)results in large,mature polar bodies.

C)is completed with the production of one or two oocytes every month before ovulation.

D)is completed before birth.

Answer: A

Q3) The _____ are the male gonads.

A)scrotum

B)testes

C)urethra

D)penis

Answer: B

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Chapter 4: Single-Gene Inheritance

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Sample Questions

Q1) Hillary is 8 years old and has neuronal ceroid lipofuscinosis,also known as Batten disease.It is autosomal recessive.She was fine until age five,when she began to lose her vision and stumble.She had learning difficulties in school and was diagnosed at age six.Hillary may only live into her twenties,experiencing dementia and seizures.Her younger brother Jaden,age six,is healthy,as are her parents.The probability that Jaden is a heterozygote is A)1/8.

B)1/4.

C)1/3.

D)2/3.

Q2) The phenotypic ratio expected from a dihybrid cross involving complete dominance is

A)1:2:1.

B)9:3:1.

C)9:3:3:1.

D)4:1.

Q3) Family exome analysis compares the complete genome sequences of the members of a family.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 5: Beyond Mendels Laws

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Sample Questions

Q1) In many species,lens crystalline protein aggregates in the eyes to form lenses,yet in other cell types,functions as an enzyme.The gene that encodes this protein is therefore A)pleiotropic.

B)incompletely penetrant.

C)eclectiC.

D)mutant.

Q2) Can a woman with blood type A have a child with blood type O with a man who is AB?

A)Yes,because of codominance between the I<sup>A</sup> and I<sup>B</sup> alleles.

B)No,because a man with type AB blood could not contribute an i allele.

C)Yes,because of epistasis between the I and the H genes.

D)No,because the child's genotype must be ii.

Q3) In the context of linkage,the higher the LOD score,the closer are two genes. A)True

B)False

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Chapter 6: Matters of Sex

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Sample Questions

Q1) The Y chromosome was challenging to sequence because A)it is very small.

B)the sequence has many sites of high symmetry called palindromes.

C)it is very similar to the X chromosome.

D)not enough men volunteered to have their Y chromosomes sequenceD.

Q2) The probability that a boy whose mother is heterozygous for an X-linked trait inherits the recessive allele is

A)1/16.

B)1/8.

C)1/4.

D)1/2.

Q3) Amed has scaly skin due to the X-linked recessive condition icthyosis.He is _____ for the trait.

A)autosomal dominant

B)heterozygous

C)homozygous

D)hemizygous

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Chapter 7: Multifactorial Traits

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Sample Questions

Q1) Empiric risk is based on _____,which is the _____.

A)prevalence;rate at which a certain event occurs

B)incidence;rate at which a certain event occurs

C)prevalence;proportion of individuals in a population with a particular disorder at a specific time

D)incidence;proportion of individuals in a population with a particular disorder at a specific time

Q2) Two brothers share _____ percent of their genes.

A)10

B)25

C)50

D)100

Q3) To date,the most informative studies on how and to what degree heredity and the environment influence human traits have relied on data from

A)adopted children and their biological parents.

B)monozygotic twins reared in the same environment.

C)monozygotic twins separated at birth.

D)Egyptian mummies.

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9

Chapter 8: Genetics of Behavior

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Sample Questions

Q1) Schizophrenia means "split _____."

A)ends

B)mind

C)personality

D)emotions

Q2) Anandamide is a substance made in the body that is the equivalent of the active component of A)heroin.

B)chocolate.

C)marijuana.

D)barbiturates.

Q3) Viruses that may cause or contribute to development of schizophrenia includes A)rubella.

B)hepatitis A.

C)herpes virus.

D)HIV.

Q4) Causes of intellectual disability include gene and chromosomal disorders,infections,malnutrition,and noninherited birth defects.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 9: DNA Structure and Replication

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Sample Questions

Q1) DNA entwined around an octet of proteins is called a(n)

A)nucleotide.

B)karyosome.

C)nucleosome.

D)ribosome.

Q2) In DNA replication,

A)parental DNA shatters into pieces and joins with newly-synthesized pieces to fashion two double helices from one.

B)parental DNA remains intact but guides formation of new double helices.

C)the parental DNA splits and free nucleotides bond to their complements,building two DNA molecules from one.

D)an entirely new double helix is built using information in the sequence of amino acids.

Q3) Which of the following were part of the experiments of Hershey and Chase?

A)Mice were injected with type R bacteria and developed pneumoniA.

B)Mice were injected with type S bacteria and developed pneumonia.

C)DNA isolated from type S bacteria killed by heating transformed type R bacteria.

D)E.coli bacteria were infected with virus labeled with radioactive phosphorus.

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Chapter 10: Gene Action: From DNA to Protein

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Sample Questions

Q1) To express a gene,DNA is first transcribed into a corresponding strand of A)mtDNA.

B)rRNA.

C)mRNA.

D)tRNA.

Q2) In transcription,the promoter is A)an enzyme that binds DNA.

B)a series of proteins that collectively bind to DNA. C)a recognition sequence in RNA that attracts ribosomes.

D)A DNA sequence that RNA polymerase binds.

Q3) An mRNA molecule is also called a(n) A)intron.

B)transcript. C)gene.

D)proscript.

Q4) The nitrogenous base that is in RNA but not in DNA is A)thymine.

B)thiamine.

C)uracil. D)urea.

Page 12

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Chapter 11: Gene Expression and Epigenetics

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Sample Questions

Q1) Development of the pancreas in an embryo into a dual gland that has both exocrine and endocrine functions begins when

A)insulin is produced and bathes stem cells.

B)a transcription factor stimulates progenitor cells to give rise to exocrine or endocrine cells.

C)a globin gene duplicates and gives rise to alpha and beta globin genes.

D)progenitor cells become stem cells.

Q2) About _____ percent of the human genome actually encodes proteins.

A)0.5

B)1.5

C)5.0

D)10

E)100

Q3) Fetal hemoglobin is hemoglobin that consists of two gamma chains and _____.

A)two alpha chains

B)two beta chains

C)two zeta chains

D)two epsilon chains

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13

Chapter 12: Gene Mutation

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Sample Questions

Q1) Allelic disorders may result from mutations in different parts of the same gene.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Which of the following is a transition mutation?

A)ACC to CCC

B)A to G

C)GG to AA

D)A to T

Q3) A mutation is more likely to affect a differentiated cell than a stem cell due to

A)skewed distribution of parental versus newly replicated DNA.

B)a conscious effort on the part of the individual.

C)lack of DNA replication in stem cells.

D)skewed distribution of stem and progenitor cells.

Q4) A somatic mutation

A)occurs only in microbes.

B)affects a particular subset of cells.

C)affects all cells of an individual.

D)is expressed only in embryos.

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14

Chapter 13: Chromosomes

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Sample Questions

Q1) The technique called fluorescence in situ hybridization (FISH)uses

A)stains to sort chromosomes into general size classes,designated A through G.

B)DNA probes with attached fluorescent molecules that indicate specific DNA sequences.

C)lures to pull out specific sequences from their chromosomes.

D)stains that distinguish AT-rich from GC-rich sequences.

Q2) A person who is 46,XX is a

A)chromosomally normal female.

B)chromosomally abnormal female.

C)chromosomally normal male.

D)chromosomally abnormal male.

Q3) Which of these has never been observed in a viable human birth?

A)YO male

B)XO female

C)XXY male

D)XXX female

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Chapter 14: Constant Allele Frequencies

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following would not alter a gene's frequency in a population?

A)mutation

B)migration

C)random mating

D)inbreeding

Q2) Which of the choices best describes macroevolution?

A)Individuals with one genotype reproduce more than individuals with another genotype in a population.

B)Mutation creates new alleles that are dominant.

C)A new species emerges.

D)Dominant and recessive allele frequencies are in equilibrium in a population.

Q3) The difference between microevolution and macroevolution is that

A)microevolution affects bacteria and macroevolution affects larger organisms.

B)microevolution happens slowly and macroevolution happens quickly.

C)macroevolution happens slowly and microevolution happens quickly.

D)microevolutionary changes are small,and macroevolutionary changes are large.

Q4) Capillary electrophoresis is a technique used to separate DNA pieces.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 15: Changing Allele Frequencies

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Sample Questions

Q1) Members of two populations in different parts of the world have the same form of inherited breast cancer.The affected individuals in each population have only one specific mutation,but it is different between the two populations.An explanation for this mutation difference among these populations is

A)a founder effect.

B)mutations associated with religion.

C)random mating.

D)Hardy-Weinberg disequilibrium.

Q2) Many alleles cause phenylketonuria (PKU).A unique mutation found only in Yemenite Jews is probably

A)more ancient than other PKU mutations.

B)a result of genetic drift.

C)due to a strong heterozygote advantage.

D)identical to the original allele.

Q3) Resistance of sickle cell disease carriers to malaria illustrates A)genetic drift.

B)a population bottleneck.

C)balanced polymorphism.

D)a founder effect.

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Chapter 16: Human Ancestry and Evolution

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Sample Questions

Q1) A study of certain nuclear genes in humans and chimpanzees shows that the two species differ in 5 percent of their DNA bases.Base substitution mutations occur at a rate of 1 percent per one million years.How many million years ago did these species diverge?

A)0.5

B)1

C)3

D)5

Q2) The definition of an indigenous people is a group that A)is the oldest in its geographical area and has retained its culture.

B)has a genetic disease that is rare in other groups.

C)has most recently come into a geographical area.

D)has been the target of discrimination.

Q3) The type of hominid that was most likely to include mitochondrial Eve is A)Neanderthals.

B)Australopithecus afarensis.

C)Dryopithecus.

D)Homo sapiens idaltu.

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Chapter 17: Genetics of Immunity

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Sample Questions

Q1) The difference between innate immunity and adaptive immunity is that

A)adaptive immunity attacks pathogens;innate immunity attacks microbes.

B)innate immunity targets cancers and transplants;adaptive immunity targets viruses and bacteria.

C)innate immunity is fast and generalized;adaptive immunity is slow and specifiC.

D)adaptive immunity releases cytokines;innate immunity produces antibodies.

Q2) Which type of white blood cell secretes specific antibodies?

A)T cell

B)Cytokine

C)B cell

D)Erythrocyte

Q3) HIV destroys the immune system by primarily destroying

A)cytotoxic T cells.

B)B cells.

C)helper T cells.

D)erythrocytes.

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Chapter 18: Cancer Genetics and Genomics

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Sample Questions

Q1) When tumor cell DNA is examined from people at different stages of the same cancer type,mutations that are common to all of them

A)act early in the disease.

B)act late in the disease.

C)acted on an initial cell and then reverted to wild type.

D)entered the cells on the same type of virus.

Q2) After mutations begin a cancer,other factors that influence whether the disease proceeds include

A)how old a person is and whether he or she smokes.

B)whether a person has had cancer before and its location in the body.

C)location of the cancerous cell in the tissue and how specialized the cell is.

D)whether or not a person's relatives have cancer.

Q3) Which of these are thought to have anti-cancer benefits?

A)Heterocyclic aromatic amines (HAs)

B)Cruciferous vegetables such as broccoli

C)Red meats

D)Baked potatoes

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Sample Questions

Q1) Transgenic farm animals have not gained importance as sources of pharmaceuticals because

A)they are too difficult to maintain.

B)they are more susceptible to cancer and other diseases.

C)they produce diluted forms of pharmaceuticals.

D)they carry multiple viral strains.

Q2) Recombinant DNA technology is used to

A)create many copies of a specific piece of DNA.

B)make more copies of DNA polymerase.

C)copy protein into RNA.

D)make RNA in the cell nucleus.

Q3) A limitation of transgenesis is that

A)it only works on very short genes.

B)it only works on vertebrates.

C)the transgene can insert many copies of itself in the genome.

D)the transgene could disappear before it inserts in the genome.

Q4) In 2010,a federal judge in the U.S.ruled seven patents on the BRCA1 and BRCA2 genes had been improperly granted.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 20: Genetic Testing and Treatment

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Sample Questions

Q1) Sheree is referred to a genetic counselor because a cystic fibrosis (CF)test done as a routine part of her prenatal care indicated that she is a carrier of the most common mutant allele.Sheree is stunned,because no one in her family has the disease.She is 26 years old.The genetic counselor would most likely

A)explain autosomal recessive inheritance and suggest that Sheree's husband be tested for CF.

B)explain autosomal dominant inheritance and suggest that Sheree's husband be tested for CF.

C)explain autosomal recessive inheritance and suggest that Sheree's parents be tested for CF.

D)advise Sheree to have amniocentesis to check the fetus for the CF genotype.

Q2) Macy has BRCA1 breast cancer.Her sister Philene is healthy,but wants to know if she has inherited the BRCA1 mutation that could make her develop cancer.She is a candidate for a A)newborn screen.

B)carrier test.

C)genome screen.

D)genome-wide association study.

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Page 22

Chapter 21: Reproductive Technologies

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Sample Questions

Q1) A woman who is infertile because she lacks ovaries would benefit most from A)intrauterine insemination.

B)GIFT.

C)ZIFT.

D)embryo adoption.

Q2) A surrogate mother can help couples have a child when the woman does not have a functional A)uterine tube.

B)vagina.

C)cervix.

D)uterus.

Q3) A factor that lowers the likelihood of success when using IVF is A)advanced maternal age.

B)number of previous failed IVF attempts. C)number of previous IVF attempts. D)increased time being infertile.

Q4) Savior siblings born using ARTs have provided needed transplants for ailing siblings. A)True B)False

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Chapter 22: Genomics

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Sample Questions

Q1) Exome and genome sequencing are unlikely to detect A)introns.

B)deletions.

C)balanced translocations.

D)exons that are not buried within introns.

Q2) Sequencing genomes provides much more information than sequencing exomes.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Which genetic map is derived from overlapping short pieces of DNA and is used to distinguish genes tens of kilobases apart?

A)Cytogenetic map

B)Linkage map

C)Physical map

D)Sequence map

Q4) A limitation of exome and genome sequencing is that _____.

A)they cannot distinguish between pairs of SNPs on the same homologous chromosomes.

B)they cannot help detect inversions.

C)they are blind to uniparental disomy.

D)they cannot identify the frequency of a variant in a particular population.

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