Human Genetics Exam Bank
Course Introduction
Human Genetics is an exploration of the principles and mechanisms governing the inheritance and variation of traits in humans. This course covers foundational topics such as Mendelian and non-Mendelian inheritance, chromosomal structure and behavior, gene mapping, and molecular genetics. It delves into the genetic basis of diseases, population genetics, genetic counseling, and emerging technologies such as genome editing and personalized medicine. Ethical, legal, and social implications of genetic research are also discussed, providing students with a comprehensive understanding of how genetics shapes human diversity and impacts modern healthcare.
Recommended Textbook
Human Genetics and Society 2nd Edition by
Ronnee Yashon
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20 Chapters
995 Verified Questions
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Sex and Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) 22
A)normal number of chromosomes in humans
B)number of autosomal chromosomal pairs
C)number of chromosomes present in an individual with Kleinfelter syndrome
D)number of chromosomes present in an individual with Turner syndrome
Answer: B
Q2) An individual who is (47,XXY)would be phenotypically female.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) What is the normal number of pairs of chromosomes for humans?
A) 21
B) 22
C) 23
D) 24
E) 42
Answer: C
Q4) fertilization occurring
Answer: C
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Chapter 2: Assisted Reproductive Technology
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Q1) In vitro fertilization,as the procedure is commonly used today,can lead to multiple births.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) Laparoscopy is a surgical procedure that is used to remove eggs from the donor.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) testosterone is produced here
Answer: B
Q4) What environmental influence(s)lead(s)to an increased risk of infertility and miscarriages?
A) exposure to lead
B) exposure to ethylene oxide
C) exposure to excessive radiation
D) smoking
E) All of these lead to an increased risk.
Answer: E
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Chapter 3: Changes in Chromosome Number
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Sample Questions
Q1) Edwards syndrome
A)Trisomy 21
B)XXY
C)XO
D)47, +13
E)Trisomy 18
F)47, XYY
Answer: E
Q2) The q arm.
Answer: E
Q3) Which of the following chromosomes is the smallest in size?
A) chromosome 22
B) chromosome 1
C) X chromosome
D) chromosome 12
E) chromosome 2
Answer: A
Q4) The location of this can vary depending on the chromosome.
Answer: B
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Chapter
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cystic fibrosis
A)Production of thick mucus
B)Inability to form a clotting factor
C)Results in muscle wasting
D)Deformed red blood cells are destroyed faster than they can be replaced
E)Tumors can cause paralysis or blindness
F)Destruction of cells in parts of the brain
G)Lack of pigmentation
Q2) Huntington disease (HD)
A) is never lethal.
B) is inherited in a dominant manner.
C) affects people between the ages of 10 and 20 years.
D) is not inherited.
E) involves a very rapid progression of the disease.
Q3) Which type of genetic condition is much more common in males than females?
A) X-linked recessive
B) dominant autosomal
C) recessive autosomal
D) mutations
E) aneuploidy
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Chapter 5: Gene Expression and Gene Regulation
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Sample Questions
Q1) An anticodon is
A) located on miRNA.
B) a group of nucleotides in mRNA that encodes the information for a specific amino acid in a protein.
C) a group of nucleotides in a tRNA molecule.
D) a chemical link formed between amino acids.
E) the enzyme that carries out transcription.
Q2) The signal on the mRNA that causes translation to stop is the A) start codon.
B) termination tRNA.
C) stop codon.
D) start methionine.
E) termination sequence.
Q3) Peptide bond
A)Binds to an amino acid
B)Consists of two subunits
C)Carries codons
D)Ends translation
E)Translation begins here
F)Forms between two amino acids
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Chapter 6: Changes in DNA: Mutations and Epigenetics
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Q1) The main source of radiation exposure for most of the U.S.population is exposure to cosmic radiation.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Researchers have found that when radiation doses are below _____,the major risk is an increase in the risk of cancer.
A) 100,000 rem
B) 360 mrem
C) 1 rem
D) 5000 rem
E) 5000 mrem
Q3) Cite examples of how nucleotide repeats can cause genetic disorders.How does the number of repeats relate to the severity of the disorder?
Q4) Frameshift mutations
A) cause a change in the reading frame of mRNA codons.
B) are usually caused by base analogs.
C) usually occur because of radiation exposure.
D) cause a single amino acid change in the polypeptide chain.
E) are usually the result of damage caused by free radicals.
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Chapter 7: Biotechnology
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Q1) Which of the following statements about recombinant DNA is true?
A) Recombinant DNA techniques often make use of restriction enzymes.
B) Recombinant DNA molecules are formed when a DNA molecule attaches to the bacterial cell wall.
C) Recombinant DNA molecules always contain human DNA.
D) Recombinant DNA molecules result when DNA is transcribed.
E) Recombinant DNA molecules are formed when DNA from at least three different organisms are joined together.
Q2) As gene transfer technology becomes more sophisticated,novel combinations of traits may be developed,requiring specific management plans.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Distinguish between embryonic stem cells and adult stem cells.Make sure to include information on the source of each cell,potential to form different cell types,and their current and potential uses.
Q4) What are restriction enzymes,plasmids,and recombinant DNA molecules? Describe the steps involved in the production of recombinant DNA molecules.
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Chapter 8: Genetic Testing and Prenatal Diagnosis
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Q1) Prenatal testing is usually only done to detect genetic disorders in the fetus when there is a risk of such conditions.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Tay-Sachs disease
A) is inherited as a dominant trait.
B) occurs at a higher frequency among African Americans.
C) affects individuals in adulthood.
D) can lead to deterioration of mental capabilities.
E) can be treated by controlling diet.
Q3) Amniocentesis is recommended when the mother is 35 years or older.This is because after age 35,
A) the mother's health will be severely impacted with each pregnancy.
B) she is more likely to have a female child.
C) the risk of the child having an X-linked disorder increases.
D) the mother's chromosomes are likely to suffer some damage.
E) the risk of having a child with a chromosomal abnormality increases dramatically.
Q4) Distinguish between genetic testing and genetic screening.
Q5) Compare and contrast amniocentesis and chorionic villus sampling (CVS).
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Chapter 9: DNA Forensics
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Q1) mtDNA
A)useful for tracking maternal ancestry
B)passed only from fathers to sons
C)information stored in CODIS
D)a series of specific DNA markers
E)repeated sequences of 10-100 base pairs in length
F)DNA differences that are only one base pair long
G)method to make many copies of a segment of DNA
H)analysis using restriction enzymes
Q2) What was the first U.S.court case to challenge the admissibility DNA evidence?
A) Frye v. U.S.
B) People v. Castro
C) Narborough Village Murders
D) Jennifer Thompson-Canino v. Ronald Cotton
E) Margaret Sackler v. William Bern
Q3) Analysis of mtDNA or Y chromosomes provides data that allows people to trace their ancestry.
A)True
B)False
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Page 11
Chapter 10: Genomics
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Sample Questions
Q1) The human genome contains
A) 15,000-20,000 genes.
B) 20,000-25,000 genes.
C) 100,000-200,000 genes.
D) over 500,000 genes.
E) 50,000-100,000 genes
Q2) Sequencing of the portion of the human genome that carries genes was completed in
A) 1995
B) 1997
C) 1999
D) 2001
E) 2003
Q3) The frequency of crossing over between two genes is dependent on the A) size of each gene.
B) distance between the genes.
C) number of mutations in each gene causing disease.
D) genetic information coded in the genes.
E) number of alleles of each gene.
Q4) What are some of the legal and ethical questions associated with genomics?
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Inheritance of Complex Traits
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the case of multifactorial traits,
A) the phenotypic distribution follows no particular pattern.
B) traits are inherited in a simple dominant or recessive manner.
C) only one gene determines the phenotype.
D) environmental factors play a role in determining the phenotype.
E) All of these are characteristics of multifactorial traits.
Q2) If monozygotic twins demonstrate very high concordance for a trait whether they are raised together or apart,what does this suggest about the heritability of this trait? Explain your answer.
Q3) The numerical calculation of the same trait in both members of a pair of twins is called
A) concordance.
B) recombination.
C) monozygosity.
D) multifactorial.
E) polygenic.
Q4) All humans suffering from obesity should respond to leptin treatment.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 12: Cancer and the Cell Cycle
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Sample Questions
Q1) The development of cancer has been linked to all of the following EXCEPT
A) mutations.
B) exposure to carcinogens.
C) diet.
D) smoking cigarettes.
E) use of drugs.
Q2) Gardasil
A)Translocation
B)Breast cancer
C)Oncogene
D)Skin cancer
E)Tumor suppressor gene
F)Cervical cancer
G)Lung cancer
Q3) Compare and contrast oncogenes and tumor suppressor genes.
Q4) Why are women more likely to develop breast cancer than men? What is the implication of this in terms of diagnosis of the disease in men? What are some risk factors for breast cancer in men?
Q5) What is cancer? Why is it considered a complex disease?
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Chapter 13: Behavior
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Sample Questions
Q1) Schizophrenia is a(n)____ disorder.
A) multifactorial
B) single gene defect
C) recessive
D) entirely X-linked
E) environmental
Q2) Neurotransmitters are all of the following EXCEPT
A) chemicals present in the brain.
B) capable of changing a person's moods and actions.
C) released in response to certain stimuli.
D) released when certain nerve cells in the brain become active.
E) are only produced by cells of the peripheral nervous system.
Q3) MAOA deficiency
A)A mutated form of the gene causes serotonin not to break down
B)Cell loss in the brain
C)An area in the chromosome is prone to breakage
D)Some are more aggressive, taller males
E)Lithium treatment
Q4) Discuss how information about the behavioral genetics of other organisms can be used in human genetics..
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Chapter 14: Immunogenetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) The number of people allergic to peanuts has been decreasing recently.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Pig-human immune system
A)HLA complex genes
B)HIV
C)ABO
D)Chimeric system
E)Xenograft
F)Hyperacute rejection
G)Mismatch of antigens
H)Vaccination
I)T4 helper cell
Q3) All of the following statements about current HIV drugs are true EXCEPT
A) some prevent the HIV RNA from replicating once inside the T4 helper cells.
B) enfuvirtide blocks entry of the virus into cells.
C) some prevent entry of the virus into target cells.
D) HIV drugs are never used in combination with each other.
E) many of them have serious side effects.
Q4) Discuss how vaccinations work.
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Genetics and Populations
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Sample Questions
Q1) Malaria is transmitted from person to person via A) mosquitoes.
B) direct contact with an infected individual. C) food.
D) bacteria.
E) contact with bodily fluids of an infected individual.
Q2) Cystic fibrosis affects all of the following EXCEPT
A) the glands that produce mucus.
B) the glands producing digestive enzymes.
C) lung health.
D) sweat glands.
E) cholesterol levels.
Q3) Some genetic diseases occur at much higher frequencies in particular populations,especially populations that are geographically isolated.Why does this happen? What is the advantage to studying these isolated groups?
Q4) All populations of a species are genetically identical.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What is population genetics? Why do geneticists sometimes study particular populations?
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Chapter 16: Human Evolution
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Sample Questions
Q1) In The State of Tennessee v.John Thomas Scopes,Scopes was found guilty and served 30 days in jail.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Charles Darwin
A) did not present his ideas on evolution in public until after he published On the Origin of Species.
B) did not present his ideas on evolution in public until after he published The Descent of Man.
C) presented his ideas on evolution in a joint paper with Charles Lyell.
D) presented his ideas on evolution in a joint paper with Alfred Russel Wallace.
E) presented his ideas on evolution before Alfred Russel Wallace did.
Q3) The out-of-Africa hypothesis of human origins proposes that proposes that Homo sapiens originated from
A) Homo habilis after H. habilis migrated from Africa.
B) Homo erectus after H. erectus migrated from Africa.
C) Homo habilis before H. habilis migrated from Africa.
D) Homo erectus before H. erectus migrated from Africa.
E) Homo neanderthalensis in Europe.
Q4) What are characteristics shared by all primates?
Page 18
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Chapter 17: A Different World: The Past, Present, and Future
of Human Genetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Discuss how vaccinations work.
Q2) Describe the problems that arise from (a)maternal Rh incompatibility and (b)ABO blood type incompatibility?
Q3) In the U.S.,the ____ movement began by applying Darwin and Wallace's theory of natural selection to humans.
A) selective breeding
B) national security
C) natural selection
D) evolutionary
E) eugenics
Q4) Two whippets who are each homozygous for the normal myostatin gene can produce overmuscled "bully" offspring.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Animals have been cloned using a technique called nuclear transfer.
A)True
B)False
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Q6) List possible options for a woman who has a family history of breast cancer and tests positive for a mutant allele of the BRCA1 or BRCA2 gene.
Chapter 18: Biology Basics 1-Cells and Cell Structure
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Q1) mitochondrion
Q2) The Golgi apparatus is responsible for energy production within the cell. A)True
B)False
Q3) All of the following are typically present in or on the surface of the plasma membrane EXCEPT
A) cholesterol.
B) lipids.
C) chromosomes.
D) channel proteins.
E) HLA markers.
Q4) The lysosomes
A) contain digestive enzymes.
B) are involved in energy production.
C) contain chromatin.
D) are the sites of protein synthesis.
E) are not known to be involved in any genetic disorders.
Q5) Homologous chromosomes are members of a pair of chromosomes. A)True
B)False
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Chapter 18: Biology Basics 2-DNA and RNA
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Q1) All of the following are differences between DNA and RNA EXCEPT
A) DNA has deoxyribose and RNA has ribose.
B) DNA is only found in the nucleus while RNA is found in both the cytoplasm and nucleus.
C) RNA is usually single-stranded and DNA is usually double-stranded.
D) RNA contains uracil and DNA contains thymine.
E) DNA is a polynucleotide while RNA is not.
Q2) In DNA,base pairing involves a
A) histone core binding with DNA.
B) ribosome pairing with a purine.
C) purine binding to a phosphate group.
D) purine binding to another purine.
E) purine binding to a pyrimidine.
Q3) In a DNA molecule,hydrogen bonds form between which of the following pairs of bases?
A) thymine and adenine
B) guanine and thymine
C) cytosine and thymine
D) adenine and uracil
E) adenine and cytosine
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Chapter
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Q1) All of the following statements are true about supertasters for PTC EXCEPT
A) the taste of spices are often unpleasant to supertasters.
B) they often find that high-sugar foods are too sweet.
C) they often find coffee too bitter.
D) supertasters often enjoy the taste of soy products.
E) many supertasters avoid grapefruit juice.
Q2) Multifactorial traits are affected by
A) only genetics.
B) only environmental factors.
C) both genetics and the environment.
D) the prenatal environment.
E) all of these.
Q3) Which of the following statements about the ability to taste PTC is true?
A) Nontasters of PTC are homozygous for the gene.
B) Tasters find PTC has a pleasant sweet taste.
C) Everyone can taste PTC, but to different degrees.
D) The distribution of PTC tasters is the same throughout all parts of the world.
E) Tasters of PTC are homozygous for the gene.
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