Human Disease Mechanisms
Question Bank
Course Introduction
Human Disease Mechanisms explores the molecular, cellular, and physiological processes underlying the development and progression of human diseases. Students will examine how genetic, environmental, and lifestyle factors contribute to disease etiologies, focusing on mechanisms such as inflammation, infection, metabolic dysregulation, and tumorigenesis. The course integrates foundational concepts in pathophysiology, molecular biology, and immunology to provide a comprehensive understanding of how disturbances in normal biological processes result in clinical manifestations of disease, and considers current approaches to diagnosis, treatment, and prevention.
Recommended Textbook
Pathophysiology 5th Edition by Copstead
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54 Chapters
1230 Verified Questions
1230 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Introduction to Pathophysiology
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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 17-year-old college-bound student receives a vaccine against an organism that causes meningitis.This is an example of
A) primary prevention.
B) secondary prevention.
C) tertiary prevention.
D) disease treatment.
Answer: A
Q2) Your patient's red blood cell is slightly elevated today.This might be explained by A) gender difference.
B) situational factors.
C) normal variation.
D) cultural variation.
E) illness.
Answer: A, B, C, E
Q3) When the cause is unknown, a condition is said to be ________.
Answer: idiopathic
Many diseases are idiopathic in nature.
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Chapter 2: Homeostasis and Adaptive Responses to Stressors
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is not normally secreted in response to stress?
A) Norepinephrine
B) Cortisol
C) Epinephrine
D) Insulin
Answer: D
Q2) Indicators that an individual is experiencing high stress include all the following except
A) tachycardia.
B) diaphoresis.
C) increased peripheral resistance.
D) pupil constriction.
Answer: D
Q3) Persistence of the alarm stage will ultimately result in A) stress reduction.
B) permanent damage and death.
C) movement into the resistance stage.
D) exhaustion of the sympathetic nervous system.
Answer: B
Page 4
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Chapter 3: Cell Structure and Function
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17 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Excitable cells are able to conduct action potentials because they have A) receptors for neurotransmitters.
B) tight junctions.
C) ligand-gated channels.
D) voltage-gated channels.
Answer: D
Q2) Gap junctions are connecting channels that allow passage of small molecules from one cell to the next and are especially important for A) distance signaling.
B) tissues requiring synchronized function.
C) communication within a cell.
D) passage of large molecules.
Answer: B
Q3) The resting membrane potential in nerve and skeletal muscle is determined primarily by
A) extracellular sodium ion concentration.
B) the ratio of intracellular to extracellular potassium ions.
C) activation of voltage-gated sodium channels.
D) activity of energy-dependent membrane pumps.
Answer: B
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Chapter 4: Cell Injury, Aging, and Death
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Sample Questions
Q1) Coagulative necrosis is caused by A) dissolving of dead cells and cyst formation.
B) trauma or pancreatitis.
C) lung tissue damage.
D) interrupted blood supply.
Q2) Viruses differ from most bacteria in that they
A) enter the host cell.
B) directly produce free radicals.
C) use the host's metabolic processes to survive and replicate.
D) do not induce an immune response.
E) do not produce toxins.
Q3) The cellular change that is considered preneoplastic is A) anaplasia.
B) dysplasia.
C) metaplasia.
D) hyperplasia.
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6
Chapter 5: Genome Structure, Regulation, and Tissue
Differentiation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which tissue type is categorized as epithelial?
A) Tendons and ligaments
B) Blood cells
C) Blood vessel endothelium
D) Cartilage
Q2) Characteristics of stem cells include that they
A) may differentiate into any type of cell.
B) reside only in the bone marrow.
C) have greater capacity to proliferate than more differentiated cells.
D) are dependent upon environmental cues for proliferation.
E) can die in the absence of an appropriate environment.
Q3) The differences in structure and function of cells in different body tissues is due to
A) gene differences in tissue cells.
B) expression of tissue-specific genes.
C) transcriptional controls.
D) translation of amino acids to proteins.
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7
Chapter 6: Genetic and Developmental Disorders
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14 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cystic fibrosis is a single gene disorder that primarily affects
A) brain and heart.
B) kidney and adrenals.
C) lungs and pancreas.
D) liver and intestine.
Q2) Huntington disease primarily affects the _____ system.
A) neurologic
B) muscular
C) gastrointestinal
D) endocrine
Q3) Males are more likely than females to be affected by ________ disorders.
A) X-linked
B) autosomal-dominant
C) autosomal-recessive
D) chromosomal nondisjunction
Q4) Characteristics of X-linked (sex-linked)recessive disorders include
A) all daughters of affected fathers' being carriers.
B) boys' and girls' being equally affected.
C) the son of a carrier female's having a 25% chance of being affected.
D) affected fathers' transmitting the gene to all their sons.
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Chapter 7: Neoplasia
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Sample Questions
Q1) Paraneoplastic syndromes in cancer involve excessive production of substances by multiple means.A common substance found in excessive amounts due to cancer paraneoplastic syndromes is
A) insulin.
B) tumor necrosis factor.
C) potassium.
D) calcium.
Q2) After surgery to remove a lung tumor, your patient is scheduled for chemotherapy, which will
A) selectively kill tumor cells.
B) stimulate immune cells to fight the cancer.
C) have minimal side effects.
D) kill rapidly dividing cells.
Q3) Retroviruses are associated with human cancers, including A) Burkitt lymphoma.
B) Hodgkin's lymphoma.
C) pancreatic cancer.
D) hepatic cancer.
Q4) In general, a cancer cell that is more tissue-specific differentiated is ____ (more/less)likely to be aggressive.
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Chapter 8: Infectious Processes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Drug resistance of microbes occurs secondary to A) patient allergy to a drug.
B) mutation of the microbe.
C) enhance pathogenicity of the microbe.
D) using high doses of drugs.
Q2) An infectious disease that is common in a community is termed A) endemic.
B) epidemic.
C) pandemic.
D) partdemic.
Q3) A characteristic of some bacteria is A) intracellular parasite.
B) composed of RNA or DNA.
C) contains cell wall endotoxin.
D) cannot replicate extracellularly.
Q4) The most common method of disease transmission is A) airborne.
B) droplet.
C) vector.
D) inoculant.
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Chapter 9: Inflammation and Immunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Functions of antibodies include
A) antigen agglutination.
B) antigen precipitation.
C) opsonization.
D) phagocytosis.
E) complement activation.
Q2) Proteins that are increased in the bloodstream during acute inflammation are called
A) membrane attack complexes.
B) selectin receptors.
C) acute phase proteins.
D) major histocompatibility complexes.
Q3) Functions of B cells include
A) synthesizing antibodies.
B) secreting cytokines.
C) killing antigen-presenting cells.
D) stimulating B cells.
E) killing virally infected cells.
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11
Chapter 10: Alterations in Immune Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) A child with a history of recent strep throat infection develops glomerulonephritis.This is most likely a type _____ hypersensitivity reaction.
A) I
B) II
C) III
D) IV
Q2) The hypersensitivity reaction that does not involve antibody production is type A) I.
B) II.
C) III.
D) IV.
Q3) Severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID)syndrome is an example of a(n)
A) deficient immune response.
B) excessive immune response.
C) primary acquired immunodeficiency.
D) hypersensitivity reaction.
Q4) Seasonal allergic rhinitis is most involved in type ____ hypersensitivity reactions.
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Chapter 11: Malignant Disorders of White Blood Cells
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Sample Questions
Q1) The patient is a 12-year-old boy diagnosed with acute lymphoid leukemia (ALL).As part of treatment, the patient must undergo several weeks of chemotherapy.The most serious complication of chemotherapy is A) vomiting.
B) anemia.
C) alopecia.
D) infection.
Q2) A patient is diagnosed with hairy cell leukemia.The patient's lab results would most likely indicate a decrease in A) granulocytes.
B) platelets.
C) white blood cells.
D) red blood cells.
E) melanocytes.
Q3) A diagnostic laboratory finding in myeloma is A) Bence Jones proteins in the urine. B) decreased platelet count.
C) increased IgM antibody titer.
D) elevated blood glucose levels.
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Page 13
Chapter 12: HIV Disease and AIDS
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23 Verified Questions
23 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which drugs are used for the management of HIV?
A) Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors
B) DNA polymerase inhibitors
C) Protease inhibitors
D) Nonnucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors
E) CD4 analogs
Q2) Which type of HIV virus causes most infections in the United States and Europe?
A) HIV type 1
B) HIV type 2
C) HIV type A
D) HIV type B
Q3) In which type of cells is the CD4 found?
A) T cells
B) Microglial cells
C) Retinal cells
D) Cervical cells
E) Pacemaker cells
Q4) Cleaning dirty needles prior to use helps prevent the spread of HIV.When using bleach, the user must rinse out all the blood first and then fill the needle and syringe with full-strength bleach three times for ____ to ____ seconds.
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Chapter 13: Alterations in Oxygen Transport
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29 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most appropriate treatment for secondary polycythemia is
A) volume expansion with saline.
B) measures to improve oxygenation.
C) phlebotomy.
D) chemotherapy.
Q2) The arterial oxygen content (CaO )for a patient with PaO 100 mm Hg, SaO 95%, and hemoglobin 15 g/dl is _____ ml oxygen/dl.
A) 19.4
B) 1909.8
C) 210
D) 21.05
Q3) Regarding iron deficiency anemia, what laboratory features are typically decreased?
A) MCV
B) MCH
C) MCHC
D) WBC
E) Thrombocytes
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15
Chapter 14: Alterations in Hemostasis and Blood Coagulation
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Sample Questions
Q1) The conversion of plasminogen to plasmin results in A) clot retraction.
B) fibrinolysis.
C) platelet aggregation.
D) activation of thrombin.
Q2) A normal bleeding time in association with normal platelet count, and increased prothrombin time (PT)and INR, is indicative of
A) vitamin K deficiency.
B) hemophilia B.
C) hemophilia A.
D) idiopathic thrombocytopenia.
Q3) The ________ is responsible for the synthesis of coagulation factors, with the exception of part of factor VIII.
Q4) The final step in clot formation is A) conversion of prothrombin to thrombin.
B) platelet degranulation and adhesion.
C) conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin.
D) clot retraction.
Q5) Hemophilia B is also known as ________ disease.
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Chapter 15: Alterations in Blood Flow
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which condition enhances lymphatic flow?
A) Increased tissue hydrostatic pressure
B) Increased colloid osmotic pressure
C) Decreased capillary hydrostatic pressure
D) Increased capillary oncotic pressure
Q2) The movement of blood through the vascular system is opposed by the force of A) viscosity.
B) the vessel length.
C) the vessel radius.
D) resistance.
Q3) When a patient is struck in the eye by a baseball, the result is redness and swelling.This increase in blood flow to a localized area is called A) autoregulation.
B) edema.
C) hyperemia.
D) hypoxia.
Q4) A(n)________ is a stationary blood clot formed within a vessel or a chamber of the heart.
Q5) The relationship between blood flow and resistance is a(n)________ one.
Page 17
Q6) Venules are composed of ________ tissue.
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Chapter 16: Alterations in Blood Pressure
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Sample Questions
Q1) After being diagnosed with hypertension, a patient returns to the clinic 6 weeks later.The patient reports "moderate" adherence to the recommended lifestyle changes and has experienced a decreased from 165/96 mm Hg to 148/90 mm Hg in blood pressure.What is the most appropriate intervention for this patient at this time?
A) Continue lifestyle modifications only.
B) Continue lifestyle modifications plus diuretic therapy.
C) Continue lifestyle modifications plus ACE inhibitor therapy.
D) Continue lifestyle modifications plus b-blocker therapy.
Q2) Hypertension with a specific, identifiable cause is known as _____ hypertension.
A) primary
B) orthostatic
C) secondary
D) malignant
Q3) A patient has a history of falls, syncope, dizziness, and blurred vision.The patient's symptomology is most likely related to
A) hypertension.
B) hypotension.
C) deep vein thrombosis.
D) angina.
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Page 18
Chapter 17: Cardiac Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) During which phase of the cardiac cycle is the mitral valve normally open?
A) Atrial systole
B) Isovolumic contraction
C) Isovolumic relaxation
D) Ventricular ejection
Q2) Which proteins are associated with the thin filament in the cardiac muscle?
A) Actin
B) Titin
C) Nebulin
D) Troponin
E) Myosin
Q3) Which is true about blood flow from the atria?
A) Occurs primarily during systole, because perfusion pressure is high
B) Is controlled primarily by the autonomic nervous system
C) Is increased with elevated right atrial pressure
D) Occurs primarily during ventricular diastole
Q4) A requirement for rhythmicity is that the cell membrane has channels that automatically open during phase ________.
Q5) The R wave is responsible for ________ depolarization.
Q6) A standard ECG has ________ leads.
Page 19
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Chapter 18: Alterations in Cardiac Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) An example of an acyanotic heart defect is
A) tetralogy of Fallot.
B) transposition of the great arteries.
C) ventricular septal defect.
D) all right-to-left shunt defects.
Q2) While hospitalized, an elderly patient with a history of myocardial infarction was noted to have high levels of low-density lipoproteins (LDLs).What is the significance of this finding?
A) Increased LDL levels are associated with increased risk of coronary artery disease.
B) Measures to decrease LDL levels in the elderly would be unlikely to affect the progression of this disease.
C) Increased LDL levels are indicative of moderate alcohol intake, and patients should be advised to abstain.
D) Elevated LDL levels are an expected finding in the elderly and therefore are not particularly significant.
Q3) Atherosclerotic plaque formation is due to injury to the ____________.
Q4) The cause of Prinzmetal angina is ________.
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Chapter 19: Heart Failure and Dysrhythmias: Common
Sequelae of Cardiac Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) First-degree heart block is characterized by
A) prolonged PR interval.
B) absent P waves.
C) widened QRS complex.
D) variable PR interval.
Q2) A patient's ECG lacks recognizable waveforms and is deemed to be in sinus arrest.The patient's sinus arrest may be a result of
A) MI.
B) electrical shock.
C) electrolyte disturbance.
D) acidosis.
E) alkalosis.
Q3) A patient with forward effects of heart failure may present with which symptoms?
A) Impaired memory
B) Mental fatigue
C) Stupor
D) Confusion
E) Aggression
Q4) First-degree block is identified by a prolonged ________.
Q5) Chronic elevation of myocardial wall tension results in ________.
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Chapter 20: Shock
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cardiogenic shock is characterized by A) hypovolemia.
B) reduced systemic vascular resistance.
C) reduced cardiac output.
D) elevated SvO2.
Q2) A type of shock that includes brain trauma that results in depression of the vasomotor center is ____________.
Q3) Massive release of histamine with consequent vasodilation and hypotension occurs with what type of shock?
A) Cardiogenic
B) Hypovolemic
C) Anaphylactic
D) Neurogenic
Q4) Which causes of shock are considered to be obstructive?
A) Ventricular rupture
B) Pulmonary embolus
C) Cardiac tamponade
D) Tension pneumothorax
E) Acute hemorrhage
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Chapter 21: Respiratory Function and Alterations in Gas Exchange
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Sample Questions
Q1) Virchow's triad can result in
A) decreased pulmonary arterial pressure.
B) alveolar collapse.
C) pulmonary embolus.
D) bronchoconstriction.
Q2) Right-sided heart failure secondary to pulmonary hypertension is also called
A) diastolic heart failure.
B) high output failure.
C) coronary disease.
D) cor pulmonale.
Q3) An increase in filtration of fluid from the pulmonary capillaries into the interstitium occurs with ________ pressure.
A) increased capillary colloid
B) increased capillary hydrostatic
C) decreased capillary hydrostatic
D) decreased interstitial colloid
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Chapter 22: Obstructive Pulmonary Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is true about epiglottitis?
A) Is usually caused by H. influenzae type B
B) Can be caused by bacterial infection
C) Usually occurs in children
D) Is characterized by pain with swallowing
E) Generally resolves without intervention
Q2) The hyper-secretion of mucus resulting for chronic bronchitis is the result of
A) recurrent infection.
B) destruction of alveolar septa.
C) reduced inflammation.
D) barrel chest.
Q3) COPD leads to a barrel chest, because it causes
A) pulmonary edema.
B) muscle atrophy.
C) prolonged inspiration.
D) air trapping.
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Chapter 23: Restrictive Pulmonary Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) When a parent of a toddler recently diagnosed with pneumococcal pneumonia asks why their child is so much sicker than a classmate was when they were diagnosed with pneumonia, the nurse replies
A) "It sounds as if the classmate was just lucky and less exposed at daycare."
B) "It sounds like your child has a case of bacterial pneumonia, while the classmate had viral pneumonia."
C) "It sounds as if your child is having a severe reaction to bacterial pneumonia. It hits some children harder than others."
D) "It sounds as if your child has a case of viral pneumonia, while the classmate had bacterial pneumonia."
Q2) Chronic occupational lung disease is characterized by
A) causation from long-term inhalation of inorganic material.
B) a latent period before symptoms occur.
C) hyperactive respiratory macrophages.
D) a progressive cough and dyspnea with exercise.
E) possible negative chest x-ray when symptom-free.
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Chapter 24: Fluid and Electrolyte Homeostasis and Imbalances
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Sample Questions
Q1) Signs and symptoms of clinical dehydration include
A) decreased urine output.
B) increased skin turgor.
C) increased blood pressure.
D) decreased heart rate.
Q2) Excessive antidiuretic hormone (ADH)secretion can cause _____ concentration.
A) increased serum sodium
B) decreased serum sodium
C) increased serum potassium
D) decreased serum potassium
Q3) The electrolyte that has a higher concentration in the extracellular fluid than in the intracellular fluid is _____ ions.
A) sodium
B) phosphate
C) magnesium
D) potassium
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Chapter 25: Acid-Base Homeostasis and Imbalances
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which acid are the kidneys unable to excrete?
A) Metabolic
B) Carbonic
C) Bicarbonate
D) Ammonia
Q2) Causes of metabolic acidosis include A) hyperventilation.
B) massive blood transfusion.
C) tissue anoxia.
D) hypoventilation.
Q3) Early manifestations of a developing metabolic acidosis include A) coma.
B) headache.
C) muscle cramps.
D) short and shallow respirations.
Q4) Respiratory alkalosis is caused by A) hyperventilation.
B) pneumonia.
C) chest muscle weakness.
D) pulmonary edema.
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Chapter 26: Renal Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which finding on urinalysis should prompt further evaluation?
A) pH 4.5
B) Red blood cells 2 per high-power field
C) Specific gravity of 1.015
D) White blood cells 20 per high-power field
Q2) Serious renal impairment generally does not occur until ____ of the total nephrons have been damaged
A) 20%
B) 40%
C) 60%
D) 80%
Q3) The primary function of the vasa recta is to
A) secrete renin.
B) reabsorb NaCl.
C) reabsorb interstitial fluid.
D) secrete urea.
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Chapter 27: Intrarenal Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most common sign/symptom of renal calculi is A) pain.
B) vomiting.
C) hematuria.
D) oliguria.
Q2) A patient with gouty arthritis develops renal calculi.The composition of these calculi is most likely to be
A) potassium oxalate.
B) struvite.
C) cysteine.
D) uric acid crystals.
Q3) The organism most commonly associated with acute pyelonephritis is A) Streptococcus.
B) Escherichia coli.
C) Klebsiella.
D) Enterobacter.
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Chapter 28: Acute Kidney Injury and Chronic Kidney Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with renal disease is at risk for developing uremia as the nephrons progressively deteriorate, because
A) the basement membrane becomes increasingly permeable.
B) filtration exceeds secretory and reabsorptive capacity.
C) excessive solute and water are lost in the urine.
D) GFR declines.
Q2) The most common cause of intrinsic kidney injury is _____ injury.
A) glomerular
B) tubular
C) interstitial
D) vascular
Q3) The patient most at risk for post-renal acute kidney injury is a(n)
A) elderly patient with hypertrophy of the prostate.
B) middle-aged woman with bladder infection.
C) young child with reflux at the ureterovesical junction.
D) patient who has both hypertension and diabetes.
Q4) The best intervention for acute kidney injury (AKI)is ________.
Q5) ________ is both a cause of chronic kidney disease and a result of chronic kidney disease.
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Chapter 29: Disorders of the Lower Urinary Tract
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Sample Questions
Q1) Vesicoureteral reflux is associated with A) increased serum creatinine.
B) recurrent cystitis.
C) polycystic renal disease.
D) proteinuria.
Q2) The difference between stress incontinence and urge incontinence is that stress incontinence
A) occurs in women, whereas urge incontinence occurs in both men and women.
B) occurs during sleep, whereas urge incontinence occurs during the waking hours.
C) is caused by a pelvic floor muscle problem, whereas urge incontinence is caused by a problem with the detrusor muscle.
D) is caused by a detrusor muscle problem, whereas urge incontinence is caused by a neurological problem.
Q3) The normal post-void residual urine in the bladder is
A) less than 100 milliliters.
B) 150 to 200 milliliters.
C) 250 to 300 milliliters.
D) none of these; no normal residual volume is identified.
Q4) Infection can lead to bladder ________ formation.
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Chapter 30: Male Genital and Reproductive Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) The main function of the prostate is to
A) produce sperm.
B) produce seminal fluid to support sperm.
C) secrete male hormones.
D) provide innervation for erection.
Q2) The _________ nervous system mediates the process of ejaculation.
Q3) The primary function of the epididymis is to
A) house developing sperm.
B) produce seminal fluid.
C) produce sperm.
D) secrete male hormones.
Q4) An important function of the scrotum is to
A) regulate the temperature of the testes.
B) provide support to the prostate gland.
C) regulate blood supply to the penis.
D) supply antibacterial secretions.
Q5) The thick covering of the ovum is called the ________.
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Chapter 31: Alterations in Male Genital and Reproductive Function
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Q1) Sexual impotence is rarely due to
A) drug side effects.
B) psychological factors.
C) primary causes.
D) vascular diseases.
Q2) The prognosis of penile carcinoma depends upon the ________ of the disease.
Q3) A patient presenting with a urethral stricture may experience
A) decreased urinary stream.
B) urethral discharge.
C) infection.
D) urine retention.
E) inability to retract the glans of the penis.
Q4) Cryptorchidism is
A) associated with an increased incidence of testicular cancer.
B) an extremely uncommon disorder.
C) rarely treated.
D) a consequence of gonorrhea.
Q5) The most common cause of urinary obstruction in male newborns and infants is ________.
Q6) The majority of penile cancer cases are classified as _______. Page 33
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Chapter 32: Female Genital and Reproductive Function
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Q1) The corpus luteum
A) is the site of implantation of a fertilized egg.
B) secretes hCG.
C) develops at the site of a ruptured ovarian follicle.
D) is part of the human placenta.
Q2) The heartbeat becomes audible through a stethoscope during which phase of fetal development?
A) First trimester
B) Second trimester
C) Third trimester
D) Parturition
Q3) At the midpoint of the menstrual cycle, ovulation occurs in response to the A) increase in progesterone.
B) increase in luteinizing hormone and FSH.
C) decrease in estrogen.
D) decrease in gonadotropin.
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Chapter 33: Alterations in Female Genital and Reproductive Function
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Q1) A 52-year-old female had a surgical procedure in which the breast, lymphatics, and underlying muscle were removed.The procedure performed was a A) radical mastectomy.
B) modified radical mastectomy.
C) mastectomy.
D) lumpectomy.
Q2) Excessive vomiting in pregnant women is known as A) placenta previa.
B) hyperemesis gravidarum.
C) abruptio placentae.
D) spontaneous abortion.
Q3) The most common types of uterine tumors are known as A) ovarian cysts.
B) endometriomas.
C) hydatidiform moles.
D) leiomyomas.
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Chapter 34: Sexually Transmitted Infections
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Q1) The initial incubation period of syphilis lasts for A) 2 to 3 days.
B) 10 to 90 days.
C) 3 to 6 weeks.
D) 40 years.
Q2) A painless ulceration called a chancre is a lesion associated with infection by A) human papillomavirus.
B) N. gonorrhoeae.
C) C. trachomatis.
D) T. pallidum.
Q3) The Centers for Disease Control estimate that there are ________ new sexually transmitted infections every year.
A) 300,000
B) 1.3 million
C) 19 million
D) 17 billion
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Chapter 35: Gastrointestinal Function
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Q1) Which is associated with contraction of the gallbladder?
A) Cholecystokinin
B) Morphine
C) Norepinephrine
D) Gastrin
Q2) Which can be absorbed through the intestinal epithelia without further digestion?
A) Sucrose
B) Lactose
C) Glucose
D) Glycogen
Q3) The portion of the stomach that controls gastric emptying is the A) fundus.
B) body.
C) antrum.
D) pylorus.
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Chapter 36: Gastrointestinal Disorders
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Q1) What clinical finding would suggest an esophageal cause of a client's report of dysphagia?
A) Nasal regurgitation
B) Airway obstruction with swallowing
C) Chest pain during meals
D) Coughing when swallowing
Q2) Acute right lower quadrant pain associated with rebound tenderness and systemic signs of inflammation are indicative of
A) appendicitis.
B) peritonitis.
C) cholecystitis.
D) gastritis.
Q3) Constipation in an elderly patient can be best treated by
A) maintaining a low-fiber diet.
B) maintaining the current level of activity.
C) fecal disimpaction.
D) increasing fiber in the diet.
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Chapter 37: Alterations in Function of the Gallbladder and Exocrine Pancreas
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Q1) It is true that biliary cancer
A) is most often cured by surgery.
B) respond well to chemotherapy.
C) are identifiable and treatable when diagnosed early.
D) tend to be asymptomatic and progress insidiously.
Q2) Chronic cholecystitis can lead to A) biliary sepsis.
B) calcified gallbladder.
C) porcelain gallbladder.
D) cirrhosis.
E) diabetes mellitus.
Q3) It is true that gallstones are A) a minimal risk for Native Americans.
B) more common in women.
C) more common in men.
D) at highest risk among Asians.
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Chapter 38: Liver Diseases
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Q1) Brain injury secondary to high serum bilirubin is called
A) hepatic encephalopathy.
B) hepatic meningitis.
C) kernicterus.
D) encephalitis.
Q2) Jaundice is a common manifestation of A) malabsorption syndromes.
B) anemia.
C) liver disease.
D) cholecystitis.
Q3) Coma, no liver flap
A)Grade 1
B)Grade 2
C)Grade 3
D)Grade 4
Q4) Steatohepatitis is caused by an accumulation of ________ in the liver cells.
A) fat
B) bile
C) acetaminophen
D) ferritin
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Chapter 39: Endocrine Physiology and Mechanisms of
Hypothalamic-Pituitary Regulation
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Q1) Aldosterone secretion would be expected to produce which change?
A) Decrease sodium reabsorption
B) Decrease urine potassium
C) Decrease blood pressure
D) Increase blood pressure
Q2) Growth hormone stimulates the liver to release
A) ketones.
B) insulin.
C) bile.
D) IGF-1.
Q3) Most endocrine hormones are water-soluble and exert their effects on target cells by
A) binding to nuclear receptors.
B) generating second messengers.
C) binding to intracellular receptors.
D) stimulating action potentials.
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Chapter 40: Disorders of Endocrine Function
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Q1) The formation of active vitamin D
A) occurs in the skin.
B) is impaired in renal failure.
C) is dependent on oral intake of vitamin D.
D) is necessary for normal potassium metabolism.
Q2) A tumor which results in excessive production and release of catecholamines is A) goiter.
B) pheochromocytoma.
C) Conn syndrome.
D) Cushing disease.
Q3) Which are major classifications of deficiencies in growth hormone secretion?
A) Increased IGF-1
B) Decreased GH secretion
C) Defective GH action
D) Decreased IGG secretion
E) Defective IGF-1 generation
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Chapter 41: Diabetes Mellitus
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which are complications of diabetes mellitus that are microvascular?
A) Cardiovascular disease
B) Retinopathy
C) Nephropathy
D) Neuropathy
E) Stroke
Q2) What indicator is most helpful in evaluating long-term blood glucose management in patients with diabetes mellitus?
A) Blood glucose levels
B) Urine glucose levels
C) Glycosylated hemoglobin levels (HbA c)
D) Clinical manifestations of hyperglycemia
Q3) In type I diabetes, respiratory compensation may occur through a process of
A) respiratory alkalosis.
B) respiratory acidosis.
C) metabolic acidosis.
D) metabolic alkalosis.
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Chapter 42: Alterations in Metabolism and Nutrition
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Sample Questions
Q1) What patient is most at risk for severe protein malnutrition?
A) A postsurgical patient who has been NPO for 3 days
B) A postburn patient who has a deep partial-thickness burn
C) A febrile patient who has had a temperature of 102.6° F for 3 days
D) An immobile patient who has been in skeletal traction for 1 week
Q2) During times of fasting, the body uses ________ as a source of energy.
A) protein
B) fat
C) carbohydrates
D) glucagon
Q3) A body mass index of 25.5 is considered to be
A) morbidly obese.
B) normal.
C) overweight.
D) obese.
Q4) Starvation is associated with
A) loss of visceral protein.
B) low serum albumin levels.
C) loss of somatic fat and protein.
D) generalized edema.
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Chapter 43: Structure and Function of the Nervous System
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Q1) In contrast to other cell types, nerve and muscle cells are able to conduct action potentials because they
A) are polarized to respond to membrane voltage.
B) are permeable to potassium at rest.
C) have voltage-gated ion channels.
D) are impermeable to sodium at rest.
Q2) Axonal myelination generally increases the
A) metabolic needs of the neuron.
B) flow of ions across the neuronal membrane.
C) sodium permeability.
D) speed of action potential conduction.
Q3) Which are parts of the meninges?
A) Dura mater
B) Pia mater
C) Choroid
D) Arachnoid
E) Ganglia
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Chapter 44: Acute Disorders of Brain Function
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Q1) It is true that epidural bleeding is
A) associated with widespread vascular disruption.
B) located between the arachnoid and the dura mater.
C) usually due to venous leakage.
D) characterized by a lucid interval immediately after injury.
Q2) Acceleration-deceleration movements of the head often result in polar injuries in which
A) injury is localized to the site of initial impact.
B) widespread neuronal damage is incurred.
C) bleeding from venules fills the subdural space.
D) focal injuries occur in two places at opposite poles.
Q3) Intracranial pressure normally ranges from ______ mm Hg.
A) 0 to 15
B) 10 to 20
C) 15 to 25
D) 20 to 30
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Chapter 45: Chronic Disorders of Neurologic Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) The classic manifestations of Parkinson disease include
A) intention tremor and akinesia.
B) rest tremor and skeletal muscle rigidity.
C) ataxia and intention tremor.
D) skeletal muscle rigidity and intention tremor.
Q2) Parkinson disease is associated with
A) demyelination of CNS neurons.
B) a pyramidal nerve tract lesion.
C) insufficient production of acetylcholine in the basal ganglia.
D) a deficiency of dopamine in the substantia nigra.
Q3) Which neurological disorder is commonly referred to as Lou Gehrig disease?
A) Multiple sclerosis
B) Parkinson disease
C) Alzheimer disease
D) Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis
Q4) The stage of spinal shock that follows spinal cord injury is characterized by A) reflex urination and defecation.
B) autonomic dysreflexia.
C) absent spinal reflexes below the level of injury.
D) motor spasticity and hyperreflexia below the level of injury.
Page 48
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Chapter 46: Alterations in Special Sensory Function
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Q1) When dealing with an elderly patient with hearing loss, the nurse should A) speak loudly so that the patient can hear better.
B) stand to the side of the patient, speaking into the dominant ear.
C) speak at a normal rate, rhythm and volume.
D) use long sentences and draw pictures.
Q2) Nerve fibers of the ________ system have their cell bodies in the mucous membrane of the upper and posterior parts of the nasal cavity.
A) visual
B) auditory
C) gustatory
D) olfactory
Q3) Which structures make up the middle ear?
A) Cerumen
B) Malleus
C) Incus
D) Scala media
E) Stapes
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Chapter 47: Pain
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Sample Questions
Q1) Most sensory afferent pain fibers enter the spinal cord by way of the ________ nerve roots.
A) anterior
B) posterior
C) C fiber
D) anterolateral
Q2) Referred pain may be perceived at some distance from the area of tissue injury, but generally felt
A) on the same side of the body.
B) with slightly less intensity.
C) within the same dermatome.
D) within 10 to 15 cm area.
Q3) Slow pain sensation is transmitted primarily by A) group Ia afferents.
B) a motor neurons.
C) unmyelinated C fibers.
D) Ad fibers.
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Chapter 48: Neurobiology of Psychotic Illnesses
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Q1) Researchers suggest a mediating role between the later development of schizophrenia and
A) prenatal radiation exposure.
B) prenatal influenza exposure.
C) childhood vaccinations.
D) childhood chickenpox.
Q2) A client who reported hearing voices, some of them saying bad and hurtful things, will now eat only food from unopened sealed packages.The behaviors described indicate that the patient may be experiencing a(n)_____ disorder.
A) bipolar
B) obsessive-compulsive
C) personality
D) psychotic
Q3) The action of most antidepressants currently available is to
A) improve brain norepinephrine and serotonin activity.
B) inhibit norepinephrine and serotonin activity.
C) convert into catecholamines in the brain.
D) block D2 receptors in the brain.
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Chapter 49: Neurobiology of Nonpsychotic Illnesses
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Q1) In individuals dealing with obsessive-compulsive disorder, ____ are most bothered by both obsessions and compulsions.
A) 20%
B) 28%
C) 50%
D) 90%
Q2) It is true that panic disorders
A) are diagnosed more often in women.
B) are diagnosed more often in men.
C) generally occur after age 45.
D) are common in the elderly.
Q3) Repetitive or ritualistic acts that a person performs with urgency are referred to as A) obsessions.
B) delusions.
C) hallucinations.
D) compulsions.
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Chapter 50: Structure and Function of the Musculoskeletal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Skeletal changes with increased age include
A) hypertrophy of cartilage.
B) decreased bone mass.
C) imbalance in bone resorption and formation.
D) loss of bone marrow.
E) dehydration of intervertebral disks.
Q2) Menisci facilitate the rotation of the A) neck.
B) elbow.
C) knee.
D) spine.
Q3) Radicular pain is pain caused by a A) tissue injury.
B) compressed nerve.
C) fracture of long bones.
D) meniscal tear.
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Chapter 51: Alterations in Musculoskeletal Function:
Trauma, Infection, and Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) People who have osteoporosis are at risk for A) rhabdomyolysis.
B) osteomyelitis.
C) osteomalacia.
D) bone fractures.
Q2) Following a bone fracture, the most likely event to occur is A) development of a blood clot beneath the periosteum.
B) leukocyte infiltration into bone tissue.
C) blood vessel growth at the fracture site.
D) migration of osteoblasts to the fracture site.
Q3) The pathophysiology of osteomalacia involves A) increased osteoclast activity.
B) collagen breakdown in the bone matrix.
C) crowding of cells in the osteoid.
D) inadequate mineralization in the osteoid.
Q4) A bone disorder that results from insufficient vitamin D is referred to as A) rickets.
B) osteoporosis.
C) osteomalacia.
D) subluxation.
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Chapter 52: Alterations in Musculoskeletal Function: Rheumatic Disorders
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Q1) Individuals diagnosed with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)are at risk for developing numerous complications of various organs because of
A) excessive production of connective tissue.
B) formation of osteophytes in tissues.
C) immune injury to basement membranes.
D) impaired tissue oxygen transport.
Q2) Ankylosing spondylitis is characterized by
A) inflammation, stiffness, and fusion of spinal joints.
B) loss of articular cartilage in weight-bearing joints.
C) excessive bone remodeling leading to soft bone.
D) immune mechanisms leading to widespread joint inflammation.
Q3) A patient diagnosed with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)is treated with low-dose oral steroids to reduce joint inflammation during intermittent flare-ups.Steroids are used because they
A) can be rapidly discontinued when no longer needed.
B) specifically suppress autoantibody production.
C) have minimal side effects.
D) effectively suppress a variety of immune responses.
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Chapter 53: Alterations in the Integumentary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) An elevated lesion containing purulent material is a
A) nodule.
B) pustule.
C) macule.
D) vesicle.
E) papule.
Q2) Manifestations of herpes zoster include
A) multiple fluid-filled vesicles on the lips, tongue, and hands.
B) generalized, painful maculopapular rash.
C) red, itchy palms and soles of feet.
D) a dermatomal distribution of lesions and pain.
Q3) Which finding is characteristic of oral candidiasis?
A) Silvery plaques on the skin
B) Itching, oozing rash
C) Thickened, discolored nails
D) Whitish coating on the tongue
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Chapter 54: Burn Injuries
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Q1) The goal of nutritional support of the burned individual is to A) limit the glucose available to infectious organisms.
B) create a positive nitrogen balance.
C) protect the kidney from excessive protein intake.
D) avoid hyperlipidemia.
Q2) A necessary intervention when managing burns associated with automobile airbag injury include
A) irrigation with water.
B) application of steroid cream.
C) IV infusion of antibiotics.
D) debridement of skin.
Q3) The time between the end of burn shock and closure of the burn to less than 20% of total body surface area is called the ________ phase.
A) postshock
B) rehabilitation
C) critical
D) emergent
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