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This course explores the fundamental principles and processes of human communication, examining how people create, transmit, interpret, and respond to messages in various contexts. Students will study verbal and nonverbal communication, the influence of culture and society on communication practices, the role of perception, listening skills, and barriers to effective communication. The course emphasizes developing interpersonal, group, and public communication skills, fostering an understanding of how effective communication shapes relationships and impacts both personal and professional environments.
Recommended Textbook
COMM 4th Edition by Rudolph F. Verderber
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Q1) A technologically mediated communication channel:
A)lacks nonverbal and visual images.
B)uses movements and gestures.
C)uses acronyms that stand for common phrases.
D)has the highest media richness and synchronicity.
Answer: C
Q2) Which of the following statements is true of intrapersonal communication?
A)It plays a role in shaping our self-perceptions.
B)It is usually verbalized as monologues.
C)It rarely occurs subconsciously.
D)It occurs when you engage in a conversation with a friend.
Answer: A
Q3) Ethical communicators:
A)maintain inconsistency between their actions and words.
B)consider all the circumstances even if they are irrelevant to situation at hand.
C)refrain from gossiping, bullying, and spreading rumors.
D)communicate easy dark side messages.
Answer: C
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Q1) Which of the following is true of bullying and cyberbullying?
A)They do not have long-lasting effects on a person's self-esteem.
B)They often lead to more accurate self-perceptions.
C)They are aggressive behaviors that damage self-esteem.
D)They rarely affect individuals who are just forming self-concept.
Answer: C
Q2) Discuss the use of conscious processing as a way to get to know people better. Answer: Conscious processing is a slow, deliberative approach where we examine and reflect about the stimuli.It is done when we encounter things out of the realm of our normal experiences or expectations.Using conscious processing as a way to get to know people helps improve your perception of them and their messages.When you mindfully pay attention to someone, you are more likely to understand that person's uniqueness.
Q3) We are more likely to self-monitor when we are familiar with a situation.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Q1) _________ is a selfish interest in one's own needs to the exclusion of everything else.
A)Ethnocentrism
B)Altruism
C)Prejudice
D)Egocentricity
Answer: D
Q2) Which of the following is true of a person's ethnicity?
A)Ethnicity is based on a person's biological characteristics rather than cultural heritage.
B)Ethnicity is usually inherited from a dominant culture.
C)People differ in the extent to which they identify with their ethnicity.
D)People from the same race belong to the same ethnic groups.
Answer: C
Q3) Altruistic people focus on the needs and contribution of both parties involved in a conversation.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Q1) _________ comes from understanding a message related to its conversational context.
A)Connotative meaning
B)Semantic meaning
C)Denotative meaning
D)Pragmatic meaning
Q2) Which of the following best defines the term phonology?
A)It refers to the implicit additional meaning people associate with a word.
B)It is the study of a unique form of language spoken by a specific group of people.
C)It refers to the sounds used to pronounce words.
D)It is the study of word origins and root words.
Q3) _________ aids in improving linguistic sensitivity.
A)Idiomatic language
B)Inclusive language
C)Pragmatic language
D)Specific language
Q4) What is a language? Discuss the various components of a language, and explain the reasons behind distinctions of communities based on language.
Q5) Explain the characteristics of language.
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Q1) In the context of paralanguage, _____ is the loudness or softness of vocal tone.
A)pitch
B)volume
C)rate
D)timbre
Q2) _________ refers to how much and what kinds of information can be transmitted via a particular channel.
A)Chronemics
B)Media richness
C)Mediated communication
D)Paralanguage
Q3) Nonverbal behavior is _________, since the meaning is perceived through postures, gestures, facial expressions, vocal pitch and rate, and appearance.
A)multi-channeled
B)ambiguous
C)inevitable
D)conveyor of emotions
Q4) Explain the important guidelines for interpreting nonverbal messages.
Q5) Describe the characteristics of nonverbal communication.
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Q1) Which of the following is true of content-oriented listeners?
A)They fail to evaluate the facts offered as evidence.
B)They notice the inconsistencies that a speaker makes.
C)They are sensitive to their partner's emotional needs.
D)They elicit more information by asking questions.
Q2) In the process of active listening, _________ is the process of providing feedback.
A)attending
B)understanding
C)evaluating
D)responding
Q3) A _____ focuses on the emotions attached to a message.
A)mnemonic device
B)content paraphrase
C)feedback cue
D)feelings paraphrase
Q4) Briefly explain how listeners should respond with verbal and nonverbal cues.Explain formal constructive speech critique strategies.
Q5) Briefly explain the five processes of active listening.
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Q1) _________ refers to communication strategies used to keep a relationship operating smoothly and satisfactorily.
A)Grave-dressing
B)Stagnating
C)Circumscribing
D)Relational maintenance
Q2) _____ refers to putting one's needs or desires on hold to attend to the needs of his or her partner or the relationship.
A)Sacrifice
B)Honor
C)Sufferance
D)Toleration
Q3) The _____ refers to the relationship stage during which partners create physical distance by making excuses not to do things with the other person in the relationship.
A)maintaining stage
B)stagnating stage
C)circumscribing stage
D)avoiding stage
Q4) Briefly explain the various types of relationships.
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Q1) _________ is the perception people want others to have of their worth.
A)Symbol
B)Face
C)Image
D)Charisma
Q2) Abe tells Madison, "I feel hurt when you stop talking to me." In this scenario, Abe is
A)being aggressive
B)describing his feelings
C)protecting his feelings
D)buffering his words
Q3) The _____ describes the decision-making process one goes through as one chooses whether or not to disclose confidential information about oneself (self-disclosure) or about others (other-disclosure).
A)differential privacy theory
B)privacy management theory
C)communication accommodation theory
D)uncertainty reduction theory
Q4) List the types of communication styles.Discuss passive and passive-aggressive communication styles.
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Q1) Group norms are always productive.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The purpose of team-building activities is to establish group norms and ground rules in a group.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Explain the three kinds of group conflicts and ways to overcome them.
Q4) Discuss virtual groups and how communication takes place in virtual groups.
Q5) _________ refers to a deterioration of mental efficiency, reality testing, and moral judgement that results from in-group pressure to conform.
A)Storming
B)Transforming
C)Evaluating
D)Groupthink
Q6) Which of the following statements is true of service groups?
A)Service groups are usually not goal-oriented.
B)The size of a service group is limited to five members.
C)Group members in service groups are encouraged to share personal information.
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D)Service groups are voluntary and task-oriented.
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Q1) Explain leadership.Discuss task leadership roles.
Q2) Streaming videos are the most effective way of communicating the results of a problem-solving process in a group when:
A)the group members do not like to take the time to read a report.
B)all group members can be assembled at the same location to watch the video.
C)group members cannot meet at the same time or in the same location.
D)audience input is needed.
Q3) A(n) _____ is a one-page synopsis of a comprehensive report.
A)mission statement
B)symposium
C)written brief
D)executive summary
Q4) When the staff were straying from the agenda, Paul, the Principal of Penton High school, interfered to ensure that the discussion was on track.In this scenario, Paul is involved in:
A)repairing damaged relationships.
B)playing devil's advocate.
C)monitoring interaction between members.
D)managing the meeting logistics.
Q5) Explain how group dynamics operates in a group.
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Q1) As secondary sources of information, periodical articles are excellent sources for:
A)basic terminologies associated with a topic.
B)a topic that is current or highly specialized.
C)statistical information.
D)a topic related to public policy.
Q2) Which of the following is a guideline to evaluate secondary sources of information?
A)Older information is generally more accurate than newer information.
B)Even if the sources cannot be trusted, one can use the information if it is relevant.
C)Irrelevant information can be used if it will keep the audience engaged.
D)A revised version of an online article should be preferred to the original version.
Q3) Primary research is easier than secondary research.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Brainstorming is a process of evaluating new ideas.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) A _________ is one that does not require an overt response from an audience.
A)direct question
B)factual question
C)rhetorical question
D)topical question
Q2) The length of a speech depends on:
A)the number of main points used in the speech.
B)the general goal of the speech.
C)the extent to which the main points are developed.
D)the willingness and the intellect of the audience.
Q3) Simon is giving a speech on 'Time Management.' He starts his speech by saying, "Every one of you must have come across days when you had to race against time, or perform inadequately due to lack of time.This speech should give you ideas on how to manage time." In this scenario, Simon's opening sentence serves the purpose of:
A)a listener relevance link.
B)appealing to action.
C)establishing credibility.
D)a signpost.
Q4) Identify and briefly explain the functions of a speech introduction.
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Q1) Information should be written on flip charts prior to giving a speech.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Movie clips, television shows, and podcasts are all examples of _________.
A)mobility aids
B)ergonomic aids
C)audiovisual aids
D)olfactory aids
Q3) Marsha is preparing a speech on metals.She wants to explain the steps involved in the extraction of metals from their ores.In this case, which of the following would be an appropriate visual aid?
A)A flow chart
B)A line graph
C)A bar graph
D)A pie chart
Q4) Explain a handout.Discuss the advantage and disadvantage of passing presentational aids around to audience members.Suggest two alternatives to handouts.
Q5) Define audio aids and audio visual aids.
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Q1) Ella, in her speech on natural disasters, says, "Remember how we empathized with the victims when an earthquake was reported on the TV last year? I still remember thinking how I would have saved my life if I was among the victims." In this scenario, Ella is:
A)using slang and jargons.
B)using nonparallel language.
C)enhancing her credibility.
D)drawing from common experiences.
Q2) Which of the following statements is true of slang?
A)It can make a speech sound very unprofessional.
B)It can be understood only by people who are of the same age.
C)It shares similar meaning across co-cultures or social groups.
D)It can be used in oral but not in written speeches.
Q3) When a speaker wants to speak clearly, he or she should use as much jargon and slang as possible.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Discuss the ways to establish relevance with your audience.
Q5) Explain the characteristics of an effective oral style.
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Q1) When we have _________, we believe we must impress a hypercritical audience with our knowledge and delivery.
A)a performance orientation
B)systematic desensitization
C)cognitive restructuring
D)a communication orientation
Q2) Lucas is delivering a speech on the recent developments in robotics.He has prepared well for his topic and wants to maintain effective body language.In this scenario, which of the following strategies should be followed by Lucas?
A)He should adopt mannerisms such as jiggling the change in his pocket or smacking his tongue.
B)He should dress very casually as it will make him look friendly.
C)He should avoid using motivated movements in his speech.
D)He should avoid wearing jewellery or anything that will distract his audience.
Q3) Which of the following statements is true of evaluating speeches?
A)It rarely deals with what went wrong during a speech.
B)It is done by the speaker himself after the speech.
C)It is done on the basics of content, structure, and delivery.
D)It negatively affects a speaker's successive speaking experiences.
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Q1) Audrey is preparing a speech for a group of students who prefer to learn through the doing dimension.Audrey can appeal to her audience's learning style by:
A)using visual aids while presenting her speech to the audience.
B)providing concrete, vivid images, examples, stories, and testimonials.
C)including definitions, explanations, and statistics.
D)encouraging her audience to perform a relevant activity during her speech.
Q2) Provide a brief overview of process speeches and expository speeches.
Q3) Pedro is giving a speech on robotics.He starts his speech by stating that a robot is a machine that is capable of carrying out simple to complex actions.In the given scenario, Pedro defines a robot by its _____.
A)classification
B)synonym
C)etymology
D)function
Q4) In a narrative speech, a third-person voice is used when:
A)a speaker describes the emotional trauma he or she has experienced.
B)a speaker wants to place the audience at the narrative scene.
C)a speaker reports what he or she has experienced personally.
D)a speaker describes what has happened to other people.
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Q1) According to the three-part model developed by Stephen Toulmin, the_________ is the conclusion a speaker wants an audience to agree with.
A)claim
B)warrant
C)support
D)premise
Q2) Discuss how negative emotions can be evoked to increase audience involvement.
Q3) In the context of arguing from sign, signs bring about, lead to, or create the claim.
A)True
B)False
Q4) An audience is not likely to be interested when negative emotions are evoked.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The most compelling persuasive messages appeal more to ethos and pathos than logos.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Explain the three-part model developed by Stephen Toulmin.
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