Human Brain and Behavior Practice Exam
Course Introduction
This course explores the intricate relationship between the human brain and behavior by examining how neural systems underlie cognition, emotion, perception, and action. Students will investigate brain anatomy, neural signaling, and the organization of major brain regions, while also analyzing how these structures contribute to learning, memory, language, decision-making, and social interactions. Integrating concepts from neuroscience, psychology, and biology, the course also considers clinical perspectives, highlighting how abnormalities in brain function can affect behavior and mental health. Through lectures, case studies, and interactive discussions, students will gain foundational knowledge of the brain-behavior connection and its relevance to understanding both typical and disordered human functioning.
Recommended Textbook
Cognitive Neuroscience 5th Edition by Michael Gazzaniga
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Page 2
Chapter 1: A Brief History of Cognitive Neuroscience
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Sample Questions
Q1) Aside from saving Anne Green's life, Thomas Willis and Christopher Wren also
A)created very accurate drawings of the brain.
B)came up with the names of a number of brain structures.
C)took the first steps that led to cognitive neuroscience.
D)All of the answer options are correct.
Answer: D
Q2) You decide that you want to measure blood flow of the brain. Which of the following methods would you employ to best achieve your goal?
A)Listen to the blood flow across veins.
B)Look at red blood cells under a microscope.
C)Measure the amount of iron in the blood.
D)None of the answer options is correct.
Answer: D
Q3) Cytoarchitectonic maps distinguish different cortical regions by
A)the structure of their surface convolutions.
B)their structure at the cellular level.
C)the complex functions they perform.
D)the basic functions they perform.
Answer: B
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Structure and Function of the Nervous System
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Q1) The value of the membrane potential to which an axon must be depolarized to initiate an action potential is called the ________ potential for that neuron.
A)graded
B)resting
C)threshold
D)refractory
Answer: C
Q2) Dendrites, which are large treelike processes extending from a neuron, are said to be presynaptic.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) The term saltatory conduction refers to the fact that
A)action potentials travel faster when extracellular salt concentration is high.
B)action potentials evoked by strong stimuli travel faster than those evoked by weaker stimuli.
C)action potentials appear to jump from node to node in myelinated axons.
D)action potentials are generated only by myelinated portions of axons.
Answer: C
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Chapter 3: Methods of Cognitive Neuroscience
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following can be done by combining functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI) and transcranial magnetic stimulation (TMS) and cannot be done by using only one of these methodologies?
A)Investigators can evaluate neurological function and provide effective treatment.
B)Investigators can test causal inferences of neural function.
C)Investigators can observe the time course of neural processing.
D)Investigators can localize neural activity to exact brain regions.
Answer: B
Q2) You have isolated a neuron in the occipital lobes that you believe is responsible for processing information about color. What type of neurophysiological technique would allow you to assess this hypothesis in a living animal?
A)single-cell recording
B)histology
C)electrical stimulation
D)Golgi stain
Answer: A
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Chapter 4: Hemispheric Specialization
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Q1) Assessment of the visual processing carried out by each hemisphere in split-brain patients usually involves the brief simultaneous presentation of different stimuli to each visual field while the participant fixates on a central point in space. Why is it necessary to ensure that stimulus presentation is brief?
A)If the stimuli were presented over longer intervals, information would be transferred between the hemispheres through the corpus callosum.
B)Brief presentation prevents participants from focusing attention on the stimuli.
C)The short presentation time is necessary to prevent eye movements, which would redirect information across the visual fields.
D)Increasing the presentation time increases task difficulty for split-brain patients.
Q2) Describe a visual field experiment involving a patient who has undergone the split-brain procedure. In your answer, provide at least one example of a question this person would not be able to answer under these conditions.
Q3) Damage to the right hemisphere is known to cause visual spatial function deficits. Give an example of a result from an experiment that supports this.
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Chapter 5: Sensation and Perception
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Sample Questions
Q1) The primary auditory cortex is located in the A)medial geniculate nucleus.
B)inferior temporal lobe.
C)lateral geniculate nucleus.
D)superior temporal lobe.
Q2) The term proprioception refers to the sensation of knowing the position of the body and limbs.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is a documented asymmetry in the olfactory system?
A)The number of receptor types in the left olfactory epithelium is 10 times greater than in the right olfactory epithelium.
B)The cortical volume of the primary olfactory cortex is larger on the right side than on the left in right-handed people.
C)The nasal passage in one nostril is larger than in the other nostril, and this switches back and forth every few hours.
D)Although the left nostril projects to both left and right cerebral hemispheres, the right nostril projects only to the right hemisphere.
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Chapter 6: Object Recognition
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Sample Questions
Q1) You, a neurologist, have just met a patient who suffered a stroke last year and is having trouble identifying objects. Could this person be experiencing visual agnosia? What tasks could you ask the patient to perform to help you determine the source of the problem?
Q2) Humphreys and Riddoch (1994) described a patient with a syndrome they called integrative visual agnosia, which was characterized by difficulty in A)linking visual percepts to long-term knowledge about objects.
B)combining parts of objects into coherent whole percepts.
C)drawing and copying pictures of objects.
D)matching different views of an object as representing the same item.
Q3) Optic ataxia is an inability to A)name familiar objects.
B)read, acquired as an adult.
C)recognize familiar visual objects.
D)use visual information to guide movements.
Q4) Explain a category-based and property-based organization of semantic knowledge. Discuss evidence in favor of each account.
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8
Chapter 7: Attention
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Q1) ________ refers to the ability to choose certain sensory inputs for further information processing while ignoring others.
A)Vigilance
B)Arousal
C)Visual search
D)Selective attention
Q2) The primary functional problem that results from damage to the attentional network and that produces neglect syndrome is that patients
A)fail to process sensory information from the ipsilesional side of space.
B)fail to process sensory information from the contralesional side of space.
C)cannot disengage attention from information in the ipsilesional side of space.
D)cannot disengage attention from information in the contralesional side of space.
Q3) Unilateral spatial neglect typically results from damage to the left temporal lobe.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Please describe the dorsal and ventral system of attention. What role do they play in neglect?
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9
Chapter 8: Action
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Q1) Neurons in each half of the cerebellum synapse on _______ targets in the thalamus and other subcortical structures, and therefore regulate the effectors on the _______ side of the body.
A)ipsilateral; ipsilateral
B)ipsilateral; contralateral
C)contralateral; ipsilateral
D)contralateral; contralateral
Q2) One reason that lesions to the cerebellum disrupt the eye blink conditioning response is because
A)the cerebellum regulates the production of acetylcholine in peripheral motor neurons.
B)this structure is involved in timing the activation of different effectors involved in a learned motor sequence.
C)the cerebellum controls the initiation of eye movements.
D)this structure normally inhibits activity in the motor cortex, and when this inhibition is disrupted, motor learning is impaired.
Q3) How is the planning of a complex movement hierarchical? Provide an example.
Q4) What is a population vector? How do population vectors play a role in the initiation of a movement?
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Page 10
Chapter 9: Memory
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Sample Questions
Q1) Dopamine is the neurotransmitter most associated with long-term potentiation.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Semantic memory is a kind of declarative memory that concerns events we recall from our own lives.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Classical conditioning is an example of a specific type of ________ memory.
A)priming
B)semantic
C)episodic
D)nondeclarative
Q4) Patient H.M. is to the ________ as patients with Korsakoff's syndrome are to the ________.
A)medial temporal lobes; cerebellum
B)cerebellum; diencephalon
C)diencephalon; medial temporal lobes
D)medial temporal lobes; diencephalon
Q5) Describe the BIC model. Describe an experiment that supports the model.
Q6) Define each of the three major stages of learning.
Page 11
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Chapter 10: Emotion
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement best characterizes the insula's role in emotional processing?
A)The insula processes interoception and bodily states, and plays a role in connecting the physiology of emotion with emotional state.
B)The insula receives information about emotional state and feeds it back to the body, which produces interoception.
C)The insula is primarily involved with decision making and the perception of emotions in other people, and thus is most associated with social cognition.
D)The insula is primarily involved with the same domains of emotional processing as the amygdala.
Q2) What is emotional regulation? Describe the different forms of regulation and the neural structures involved.
Q3) Which area of the frontal lobe does NOT show increased activity in the cognitive control of emotion?
A)left lateral prefrontal cortex
B)left dorsomedial prefrontal cortex
C)left dorsolateral prefrontal cortex
D)left rostromedial prefrontal cortex
Q4) Describe the role of the insula in emotion.
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Page 12
Chapter 11: Language
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Sample Questions
Q1) The brain regions involved with the unification process in Hagoort's model suggest that a person with a major comprehension deficit due to significant damage in Brodmann area 45 (BA45) could be expected to exhibit which of the following?
A)an abnormal N400
B)an abnormal P600
C)both an abnormal N400 and an abnormal P600
D)None of the answer options is correct.
Q2) Which of the following is NOT true of infants' speech recognition abilities?
A)At birth infants can distinguish between any phoneme.
B)The babbling of infants becomes more and more like the native language as they age.
C)At 9 months infants are unable to recognize foreign language phonemes.
D)Early babbling has phonemes from all the languages in the world.
Q3) ________ specifically refers to the variations in the pitch of a speaker's voice that convey emotion and emphasis in speech.
A)Phonology
B)Prosody
C)Speech segmentation
D)Orthography
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Chapter 12: Cognitive Control
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the task-switching experiment involving a digit task and a letter task, a digit or letter response was indicated by a word or by a color. Which of these conditions was particularly problematic when switching between digits and letters for frontal lobe patients?
A)letters indicated by words
B)digits indicated by colors
C)digits indicated by words
D)None of the answer options is correct.
Q2) Prefrontal areas are likely a temporary repository for representations accessed from other neural sites.
A)True
B)False
Q3) ________ theories describe what people ought to do, whereas ________ theories describe what people actually do.
A)Normative; descriptive
B)Descriptive; normative
C)Decision-making; goal-oriented
D)Goal-oriented; decision-making
Q4) Describe the components of valuation.
Q5) Is there more than one decision system? Provide evidence to support your view.
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Chapter 13: Social Cognition
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Sample Questions
Q1) Tasks involving thinking about mental states often engage which region of the brain, in comparison to thinking about social background or life events?
A)the left inferior frontal lobe
B)the left precentral gyrus
C)the right temporoparietal junction
D)the right anterior cingulate
Q2) When reading a series of statements such as "At the party, he was the first to start dancing on the table," the ________ is more active when making a personality inference as opposed to remembering the order of the statements.
A)anterior insula cortex
B)dorsolateral prefrontal cortex
C)anterior cingulate cortex
D)medial prefrontal cortex
Q3) The self-referent effect refers to the phenomenon that
A)social judgments about oneself tend to be biased.
B)social judgments about oneself tend to be highly accurate.
C)information processed in relation to the self is distorted in memory.
D)information processed in relation to the self is enhanced in memory.
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Chapter 14: The Consciousness Problem
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Sample Questions
Q1) Core consciousness is turned off by lesioning which intralaminar nuclei (ILN) of the thalamus?
A)left
B)right
C)both left and right
D)neither left nor right
Q2) Regarding layered architecture, "abstraction" refers to the phenomenon that the processing of each layer is hidden from the following layer.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Employing subliminal perception by quickly flashing an angry face before an image of someone could __________ the participant's attitude about the person.
A)improve
B)not change
C)worsen
D)remove
Q4) How can mental states go on to affect brain processing? Include at least one experimental result in your answer.
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