Human Biology
Textbook Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Human Biology explores the structure, function, and systems of the human body, integrating foundational concepts from anatomy, physiology, genetics, and biochemistry. The course examines how the human body maintains homeostasis, responds to internal and external stimuli, and adapts to environmental changes. Key topics include cellular processes, organ systems, human development, and genetic inheritance, as well as current issues in health, disease, and biotechnology. Through a combination of theoretical knowledge and practical applications, students gain a comprehensive understanding of how the human body operates, how it can be affected by various factors, and how advances in science impact health and medicine.
Recommended Textbook
Anatomy and Physiology An Integrative Approach 2nd Edition by McKinley
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Chapter 1: The Sciences of Anatomy and Physiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cytology is a subdivision of gross anatomy.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) Which serous membrane covers the surface of an organ
A)The parietal layer
B)The visceral layer
C)The muscle layer
D)The dorsal layer
E)The ventral layer
Answer: B
Q3) The discipline that associates changes in organ system function with disease or injury is known as ____________.
Answer: pathophysiology
Q4) The appendix is in the right iliac region,and is therefore located in the _____ ______ quadrant.
Answer: right lower
Page 3
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Chapter 2: Atoms,Ions,and Molecules
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Sample Questions
Q1) When water mixtures are formed,the components are chemically altered and the new molecular bonds can be separated only by chemical means.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) When a strong acid is placed in water,it
A)does not dissolve or dissociate.
B)dissolves but does not dissociate.
C)dissolves and dissociates.
D)dissociates,but does not dissolve.
Answer: C
Q3) Two atoms that differ only in the number of neutrons they contain are known as A)anions.
B)isomers.
C)isotopes.
D)ions.
Answer: C
Q4) When the pH of an acidic solution is brought to 7.0,that change is called
Answer: neutralization
Page 4
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Chapter 3: Energy,Chemical Reactions,and Cellular
Respiration
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Sample Questions
Q1) Enzyme saturation occurs when substrate levels are so high that all enzyme molecules are actively engaged in the chemical reaction,and so further increases in substrate concentration do not increase reaction rate.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) The citric acid cycle involves
A)a multienzyme complex within the cytosol.
B)several enzymes within the matrix of the mitochondrion.
C)a multienzyme complex within the outer compartment of the mitochondrion.
D)several enzymes within the cytosol and the outer membrane of the mitochondrion. Answer: B
Q3) The energy of motion is known as _________ energy.
Answer: kinetic
Q4) Enzymes that remove phosphate groups from their substrates are called
Answer: phosphatases phosphatase
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Chapter 4: Biology of the Cell
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Sample Questions
Q1) The type of vesicular transport by which large molecules or large amounts of substances are secreted from a cell is _________.
Q2) Which of the following structures function in holding organelles in place,maintaining cell shape and rigidity,and directing organelle movement
A)Centrioles
B)Flagella
C)Golgi apparatus
D)Microtubules
E)Cilia
Q3) Peroxisomes are membrane-bound organelles.
A)True
B)False
Q4) During transcription
A)an RNA molecule is formed as a DNA sequence is read.
B)a protein is formed as a DNA sequence is read.
C)a DNA sequence is formed as a RNA sequence is read.
D)an amino acid is transferred to a ribosome as a DNA sequence is read.
E)a protein is formed as a RNA sequence is read.
Q5) The two identical cells that arise from mitosis are called ____________ cells.
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Chapter 5: Tissue Organization
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Sample Questions
Q1) Mucous connective tissue is found only in
A)the cartilage of the nose.
B)certain bones of the skull.
C)the umbilical cord.
D)serous fluid.
E)fibers of the respiratory system.
Q2) The primary role of epithelial tissue in the stomach is
A)housing blood vessels and nerves.
B)secretion of substances for chemical digestion.
C)mixing and propulsion of foodstuffs.
D)regulation of contraction.
Q3) Clusters of cells that make up the secretory portion of an exocrine gland are known as __________.
Q4) A large molecule made up of a glycosaminoglycan linked to a protein is known as a __________.
Q5) Many connective tissues play a role in immune protection.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Flat cells with tapered ends that are the most abundant resident cells in connective tissue proper are known as ___________.
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Integumentary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the greatest risk factor for skin cancer
A)Exposure to UV light rays
B)Advanced age
C)Being a female
D)Low skin hydration levels
E)Using excessive sun block
Q2) The cells that contract and squeeze sweat glands causing them to discharge their accumulated secretions are called __________ cells.
Q3) Freckles are the result of
A)melanocyte number and genetic inheritance.
B)melanocyte number and sun exposure.
C)melanocyte activity,genetic inheritance,and sun exposure.
D)melanocyte number,genetic inheritance,and diet.
E)melanocyte activity and diet.
Q4) One of the components of sweat is the nitrogenous waste urea.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The process of keratinization begins in the stratum granulosum.
A)True
B)False
8
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Chapter 7: Skeletal System: Bone Structure and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) In adults,an area of compact bone called the epiphyseal tract replaces the epiphyseal plate.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which hormone normally has a more significant effect on blood calcium levels in adults
A)Calcitonin
B)Parathyroid hormone
Q3) An example of a flat bone would be the
A)femur (of thigh).
B)radius (of forearm).
C)trapezoid (of wrist).
D)sternum (breast bone).
E)calcaneus (heel).
Q4) Which vitamin is required for the normal synthesis of collagen
A)Vitamin D
B)Vitamin B
C)Vitamin A
D)Vitamin C
E)Vitamin K
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Chapter 8: Skeletal System: Axial and Appendicular
Skeleton
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Sample Questions
Q1) The bones of the antebrachium are the
A)radius,ulna,and humerus.
B)radius,ulna,humerus,and carpals.
C)radius,ulna,carpals,and metacarpals.
D)radius and ulna.
E)carpals,metacarpals,and phalanges.
Q2) The only direct connection between the pectoral girdle and the axial skeleton is where the _____ articulates with the _____.
A)humerus;scapula
B)scapula;clavicle
C)scapula;thoracic cage
D)clavicle;humerus
E)clavicle;sternum
Q3) Which of these is not a paranasal sinus
A)Maxillary sinus
B)Ethmoid sinus
C)Sphenoid sinus
D)Mastoid sinus
E)Frontal sinus
Q4) The palm of the hand is formed by the _________ bones.
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Chapter 9: Skeletal System: Articulations
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Sample Questions
Q1) Sutures permit skull growth during childhood.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The deltoid ligament,lateral ligament,and tibiofibular ligaments belong to the ________ joint.
A)tarsometatarsal
B)talocrural
C)humeroradial
D)knee
E)fibulometatarsal
Q3) Circumduction is an example of a gliding motion.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A slightly mobile joint is referred to as a(n)_________.
Q5) Which knee ligament is most crucial for preventing hyperadduction
A)Tibial collateral ligament
B)Fibular collateral ligament
C)Patellar ligament
D)Anterior cruciate ligament
E)Medial meniscus
11
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Chapter 10: Muscle Tissue
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Sample Questions
Q1) For relaxation to occur,
A)ACh receptors close and Ca<sup>++</sup>channels on the sarcoplasmic reticulum close.
B)ACh receptors close and Ca<sup>++</sup>channels on the sarcoplasmic reticulum open.
C)ACh receptors open and Ca<sup>++</sup>channels on the sarcoplasmic reticulum close.
D)ACh receptors open and Ca<sup>++</sup>channels on the sarcoplasmic reticulum open.
Q2) A continuous,smooth contraction of muscle in which twitches are fully fused is referred to as _________.
Q3) The junction between an axon and the muscle fiber itself is called a _____________ junction.
Q4) Satellite cells are multinucleate.
A)True
B)False
Q5) When someone engages in exercise that requires more oxygen than is available,they develop a(n)_____ _______ (2 words),which results in heavy breathing for several minutes after the exercise is complete.
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Chapter 11: Muscular System: Axial and Appendicular
Muscles
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Sample Questions
Q1) Contraction of the diaphragm assists in A)expiration.
B)inspiration.
C)flexion at the waist.
D)extension at the waist.
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q2) Which muscle is part of the urogenital diaphragm and constricts the urethra to voluntarily inhibit urination
A)Ischiocavernosus
B)Superficial transverse perineal muscle
C)External urethral sphincter
D)Bulbospongiosus
E)Pubococcygeus
Q3) Which muscle is not innervated by the plantar nerve
A)Extensor digitorum brevis
B)Flexor digitorum brevis
C)Lumbricals
D)Flexor hallucis brevis
E)Plantar interossei
Q4) The _________ of a muscle is its less movable attachment.
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Chapter 12: Nervous System: Nervous Tissue
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Sample Questions
Q1) Voltage-gated sodium channels at a neuron's initial segment are triggered to open when the membrane becomes more positive.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The type of neuronal circuit in which several neurons process the same information at one time is a _____________ circuit.
A)converging
B)diverging
C)reverberating
D)parallel-after-discharge
E)None of the choices is correct.
Q3) Which is true regarding the action of a neurolemmocyte
A)Each neurolemmocyte can form a myelin sheath around many axons simultaneously.
B)A neurolemmocyte is responsible for forming part of the blood-brain barrier.
C)Neurolemmocytes function only within the CNS.
D)Each neurolemmocyte can wrap only a 1 mm portion of a single axon.
E)A neurolemmocyte attacks pathogens.
Q4) The periphery of a myelinating neurolemmocyte that contains its cytoplasm and nucleus is called the _________.
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Chapter 13: Nervous System: Brain and Cranial Nerves
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Sample Questions
Q1) Clusters of gray matter that contain neuron cell bodies and lie within masses of white matter are the A)cortex.
B)cerebral ganglia.
C)cerebral nuclei.
D)cerebral peduncles.
E)ventricles.
Q2) The inferior colliculi are auditory reflex centers of the midbrain.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Paired,irregular masses of gray matter buried deep within the central white matter in the basal region of the cerebral hemispheres,inferior to the floor of the lateral ventricle,are the A)cerebral nuclei.
B)corpus callosi.
C)inferior colliculi.
D)interthalamic adhesions.
E)ventricular connections.
Q4) Anatomical asymmetries between the two cerebral hemispheres are known as _______.
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Chapter 14: Nervous System: Spinal Cord and Spinal Nerves
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Sample Questions
Q1) This figure shows neuron pathways and nuclei locations.What type of nuclei does number 1 indicate
A)Somatic motor nuclei
B)Autonomic motor nuclei
C)Visceral sensory nuclei
D)Somatic sensory nuclei
E)None of the choices is correct
Q2) The tapered,conical inferior end of the spinal cord is called the conus A)finalis.
B)medullaris.
C)equine.
D)caudalis.
E)sacralis.
Q3) Following an injury to his arm,a patient complains that he has no sensations from his "pinky." You suspect that he has damaged the A)median nerve.
B)radial nerve.
C)musculocutaneous nerve.
D)ulnar nerve.
E)axillary nerve.
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Chapter 15: Nervous System: Autonomic Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The somatic nervous system and the autonomic nervous system are part of both the peripheral nervous system and the central nervous system.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Autonomic tone refers to
A)whether a response is stimulatory or inhibitory.
B)whether the body's reaction is to fight or to flee.
C)the continual activity maintained by the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions.
D)the degree of tension in skeletal muscles at rest.
Q3) Muscarinic receptors are proteins that bind the neurotransmitter
A)acetylcholine.
B)epinephrine.
C)norepinephrine.
Q4) Motor neurons of the autonomic nervous system
A)always excite effector organs.
B)always inhibit effector organs.
C)can either excite or inhibit effector organs.
D)do not excite effector organs but monitor their status of activity.
Q5) White rami appear white in color due to the fact that they are ___________.
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Chapter 16: Nervous System: Senses
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Sample Questions
Q1) By definition,transducers
A)are electrical devices that do not work with biological systems.
B)change one form of energy into another form.
C)transmit signals away from the central nervous system.
D)transmit signals toward the central nervous
Q2) When your eyes adjust from low levels of illumination to bright light,the process is known as light _________.
Q3) Which eye feature provides vitamin A for photoreceptor cells
A)Cornea
B)Conjunctiva
C)Sclera
D)Pigmented layer of the retina
E)Neural layer of the retina
Q4) In this view of the olfactory epithelium,what structure does number 6 indicate
A)Olfactory hair
B)Olfactory receptor cell body
C)Olfactory bulb
D)Basal cell
E)Axon of olfactory receptor cell
Q5) The opsin in rods is called _________.
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Chapter 17: Endocrine System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Modified amino acids that act as hormones are referred to as ________ amines.
Q2) The hormone oxytocin is synthesized in the A)anterior pituitary.
B)posterior pituitary.
C)paraventricular nucleus.
D)pineal gland.
E)nucleus of the solitary tract.
Q3) Protein hormones are
A)lipid-soluble.
B)water-soluble.
C)soluble in both water and lipids.
D)soluble in neither water nor lipids.
Q4) Reduced hormone concentration in the blood often causes target cells to
A)up-regulate receptors in order to increase cell sensitivity.
B)up-regulate receptors in order to decrease cell sensitivity.
C)down-regulate receptors in order to increase cell sensitivity.
D)down-regulate receptors in order to decrease cell sensitivity.
Q5) The reaction time for endocrine effects is generally measured in milliseconds.
A)True
B)False
Page 19
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Chapter 18: Cardiovascular System: Blood
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Sample Questions
Q1) Platelets play a key role in _________,but if they are not used they are broken down after about ________ days.
A)hemostasis,120
B)hemostasis,9
C)hematopoiesis,120
D)hematopoiesis,9
Q2) Erythropoietin is a hormone produced by the _______________ to increase the rate of production and maturation of erythrocyte progenitor and erythroblast cells.
Q3) In hemopoiesis,granulocytes such as neutrophils are formed from the _________ line.
A)lymphoid
B)myeloid
C)monocyte
D)killer cell
Q4) Most colony-stimulating factors are growth factors.
A)True
B)False
Q5) __________ are the most numerous type of leukocyte in the blood.
Q6) A reduced number of leukocytes causes a serious disorder called ____________.
Page 20
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Chapter 19: Cardiovascular System: Heart
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which carries oxygenated blood from the lungs to the heart
A)Pulmonary arteries
B)Pulmonary veins
C)Pulmonary trunk
D)Inferior vena cava
E)Superior vena cava
Q2) As blood is pumped out of the heart and into the major arteries leaving the heart,it
A)pushes against the semilunar valves and opens them.
B)pushes against the semilunar valves and closes them.
C)fills the cusps of the semilunar valves,causing them to expand and block the backflow of blood
D)pushes against the atrioventricular valves and opens them.
E)fills the cusps of the atrioventricular valve causing opening of the bicuspid and closure of the tricuspid.
Q3) Like skeletal muscle cells,cardiac muscle cells have an absolute refractory period prior to repolarization.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The _______________ cardiac vein travels alongside the right marginal artery.
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Chapter 20: Cardiovascular System: Vessels and Circulation
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Sample Questions
Q1) A network of small arteries called the ___________ provides a blood supply to the tunica externa of very large vessels.
A)vasa vasorum
B)companion vessels
C)distributing arteries
D)fenestrated arteries
E)thoroughfare channels
Q2) High carbon dioxide levels and low pH in blood of the carotid arteries will stimulate
A)baroreceptors to activate the vasomotor center.
B)chemoreceptors to activate the vasomotor center.
C)baroreceptors to activate the cardioinhibitory center and inhibit the cardioacceleratory center.
D)chemoreceptors to inhibit the vasomotor center.
E)baroreceptors and chemoreceptors to activate the cardioinhibitory center and inhibit the vasomotor center.
Q3) The cyclical process of contracting and relaxing of the precapillary sphincters is called _________________.
Q4) The formation of new blood vessels is a process known as __________.
Page 22
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Chapter 21: Lymphatic System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The thymus is at its maximum size
A)at birth.
B)at puberty.
C)between 30 and 50 years of age.
D)in old age.
Q2) This figure shows the lymphatic system.Which number indicates the inguinal lymph nodes
A)1
B)4
C)5
D)9
E)10
Q3) The spleen is considered a primary lymphatic structure.
A)True
B)False
Q4) One of the functions of the lymphatic system is to transport fat.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Fibrous extensions of the connective tissue capsule that surround thymic lobes are known as septa or ___________.
Page 23
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Chapter 22: Immune System and the Bodys Defense
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Sample Questions
Q1) In addition to creating a physical barrier to pathogen entry,mucus contains antimicrobial substances such as IgA.
A)True
B)False
Q2) MHC class II molecules are loaded with exogenous antigen after the antigen has been digested into fragments within a phagolysosome.
A)True B)False
Q3) "Complement" refers to a group of
A)white blood cells.
B)antibodies.
C)plasma proteins.
D)molecules on the surface of pathogenic microbes.
Q4) As T-lymphocytes leave the thymus,they are
A)naive and not yet competent.
B)naive and immunocompetent.
C)activated but not yet competent.
D)activated and immunocompetent.
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Chapter 23: Respiratory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Suppose that following an automobile accident,a broken rib penetrates into the pleural cavity,causing air to accumulate in the space between the visceral and parietal pleura.This condition is known as a A)pneumothorax.
B)tension hemothorax.
C)hemothorax.
D)cystic fibrosis.
Q2) Parasympathetic innervation to the lungs is from the ________ nerves.or or or
Q3) The depth and rate of respiration influence blood levels of hydrogen ion.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Tracheal cartilages provide for _______ on the ________ aspect of the trachea.
A)flexibility;anterior
B)flexibility;posterior
C)rigidity;anterior
D)rigidity;posterior
Q5) Relaxation of the smooth muscle within the walls of bronchioles leads to
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Chapter 24: Urinary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) For glucose to be reabsorbed from the tubule lumen,it is transported into the tubule cell by means of a A)glucose uniporter.
B)Na<sup>+</sup>/glucose symporter.
C)glucose protein channel.
D)Na<sup>+</sup>/glucose antiporter.
Q2) After the hairpin turn in the vasa recta,the blood within it starts to lose salt and gain water.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Blood colloid osmotic pressure opposes glomerular hydrostatic pressure.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Proteins that are recaptured from tubular fluid are transported into the luminal membrane by way of A)diffusion.
B)pinocytosis.
C)secondary active transport with a symporter.
D)primary active transport with a protein pump.
E)facilitated diffusion with a carrier.
Page 26
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Chapter 25: Fluid and Electrolytes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Severe diarrhea results in the increased elimination of A)hydrogen ions and therefore causes acidosis.
B)hydrogen ions and therefore causes alkalosis.
C)bicarbonate ions and therefore causes acidosis.
D)bicarbonate ions and therefore causes alkalosis.
Q2) The adrenal gland releases aldosterone in response to A)ANP and increased blood plasma sodium levels.
B)ANP and decreased blood plasma sodium levels.
C)angiotensin II and increased blood plasma sodium levels.
D)angiotensin II and decreased blood plasma sodium levels.
Q3) In the condition of volume excess,fluid gain involves
A)an increase in osmolarity of body fluid.
B)a decrease in osmolarity of body fluid.
C)no change in the osmolarity of body fluid.
Q4) Changes in blood osmolarity within capillaries of the hypothalamus are a signal for ADH release.The neurons that are sensitive to these changes in osmolarity are
Q5) When fluid intake equals fluid output,and there is a normal distribution of solvent and solutes in the body's fluid compartments,fluid ________ exists.
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Chapter 26: Digestive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) This figure shows an intestinal villus.What is the invagination indicated by the number 2
A)Gastric gland
B)Lymphatic nodule
C)Intestinal gland
D)Endocrine gland
E)Peyer patch
Q2) Which is an accurate description of glucose and sucrose
A)Glucose is a monosaccharide,sucrose is a polysaccharide,both molecules are starches.
B)Glucose is a monosaccharide,sucrose is a disaccharide,both molecules are carbohydrates.
C)Glucose is a disaccharide,sucrose is a monosaccharide,both molecules are lipids.
D)Glucose is a disaccharide,sucrose is a glycolipid,both molecules are essential nutrients.
E)Glucose is a monoamine,sucrose is a dipeptide,both molecules are acidic.
Q3) The gallbladder is part of the gastrointestinal tract.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 27: Nutrition and Metabolism
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Sample Questions
Q1) Some amino acids can be synthesized by the body.Such an amino acid would be classified as a nonessential nutrient.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Essential vitamins must be provided in the diet.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Minerals that must be ingested at levels greater than 100 milligrams per day are referred to as _______ minerals.
Q4) If more glucose is consumed than is needed,the glucose can be
A)converted to an essential amino acid so that protein synthesis can increase.
B)converted to acetyl CoA that is then used to synthesize triglycerides for storage.
C)broken down to 2 NADH molecules that can enter the citric acid cycle.
D)deaminated by the liver and sent to the kidney for excretion in the urine.
Q5) Beta oxidation is a step in the synthesis of cholesterol that involves
A)closing of a linear fatty acid chain into a steroid loop.
B)breakdown of fatty acids into two-carbon units to form acetyl CoA.
C)synthesis of bile salts from precursor lipids.
D)absorption of micelles from the small intestine.
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Chapter 28: Reproductive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The process that occurs during prophase I,during which tetrads are formed,is known as ________.
Q2) Although the lining of the uterine tubes contains cilia and the lining of the uterus does not,the epithelium within both organs is categorized as
A)pseudostratified columnar epithelium.
B)simple columnar epithelium.
C)nonkeratinized squamous epithelium.
D)stratified cuboidal epithelium.
E)simple cuboidal epithelium.
Q3) This figure shows the duct system in the male reproductive tract.Which number indicates the seminal vesicle
A)2
B)3
C)4
D)5
E)7
Q4) The fold of the labia minora that forms a hood over the clitoris is the ________.
Q5) During fetal development,the vagina forms from the _________ sinus.
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Chapter 29: Development,Pregnancy,and Heredity
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the approximate duration of the fetal period of development
A)4 weeks
B)12 weeks
C)29 weeks
D)39 weeks
Q2) Polyspermy results in the production of monozygotic twins.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Neurulation is the development of the nervous system from the
A)endoderm.
B)mesoderm.
C)ectoderm.
D)hypoderm.
Q4) What is expelled during the expulsion stage of labor
A)Colostrum
B)The fetus
C)The placenta and remaining fetal membranes
D)Only amniotic fluid
Q5) Blood vessel growth within the uterus is promoted by the hormone __________.
Q6) The germ layer between the ectoderm and the endoderm is the __________.
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