Human Biology
Textbook Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Human Biology is a comprehensive exploration of the structure and function of the human body, emphasizing the key principles that govern our anatomy, physiology, and biochemistry. The course covers major organ systems, including the nervous, circulatory, respiratory, digestive, and reproductive systems, while introducing genetic, cellular, and molecular mechanisms fundamental to human life. Students will also examine the ways in which lifestyle, environment, and disease can impact human health, learning to apply scientific reasoning to current issues in medicine and wellness. This course provides a solid foundation for students interested in pursuing healthcare, research, and other biology-related fields.
Recommended Textbook
Holes Human Anatomy and Physiology 15th Edition by David Shier
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Chapter 1: Introduction to Human Anatomy and Physiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) The term "physiology" is related to
A)the Latin for "physical shape."
B)the structure of internal organs.
C)the Greek for "cutting up."
D)the Greek for "relationship to nature."
Answer: D
Q2) In all organisms, the basic unit of structure and function is
A)the atom.
B)the molecule.
C)the macromolecule.
D)the cell.
Answer: D
Q3) The origin of the term "anatomy" is related to
A)the Greek word for "function."
B)the name of the first anatomist.
C)the Greek word for "cutting up."
D)the function of internal organs.
Answer: C
Q4) Agriculture began in some countries as recently as ________ years ago.
Answer: 6,000
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Chapter 2: Chemical Basis of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) The symbol Na+ represents a sodium atom that has lost an electron.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) If helium (He)were to gain a proton, it would become
A)He .
B)He .
C)Helium-3.
D)Lithium.
Answer: D
Q3) The type of chemical bond formed when ions with opposite electrical charges attract is a(n)________ bond.
Answer: ionic
Q4) Which of the following is the least likely to dissolve in water?
A)Albumin
B)A triglyceride
C)Table sugar (sucrose)
D)Nucleotides
Answer: B
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Chapter 3: Cells
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Sample Questions
Q1) During telophase of mitosis, chromosomes elongate and form chromatin threads.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) The cytoplasm consists of organelles suspended in ________.
Answer: cytosol
Q3) The cellular abnormality that causes cystic fibrosis is
A)absence of the ability to feel pain.
B)abnormal chloride channels that trap salt inside cells lining the lung passageways.
C)abnormal potassium channels in heart muscle.
D)extra receptors for a growth factor.
Answer: B
Q4) The average number of divisions that a human cell cultured in a dish can undergo is A)10-20.
B)30-40.
C)40-60.
D)60-100.
Answer: C
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Cellular Metabolism
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Sample Questions
Q1) If one strand of DNA has the sequence TCAGGCTATTCCCG, then the complementary sequence of the other strand is
A)AGUCCGAUAAGGGC.
B)AGTCCGATAAGGGC.
C)TCAGGCTATTCCCG. D)UCAGGCUAUUCCCG.
Q2) Which of the following is not a characteristic of enzymes?
A)They speed up the rate of chemical reactions but are not used up in the process.
B)Most are proteins.
C)They are most active at temperatures above 53 degrees C.
D)They have active sites and interact with specific substrates.
Q3) MicroRNAs
A)are 21 or 22 bases long.
B)control gene expression.
C)are noncoding RNAs.
D)All of these answer choices are correct.
Q4) The two strands of a DNA molecule have opposite orientation.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 5: Tissues
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Sample Questions
Q1) Bone cells (osteocytes)are in concentric circles around central canals.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The type of epithelium that lines the urinary bladder and many of the urinary passageways is
A)cuboidal.
B)transitional.
C)pseudostratified.
D)columnar.
Q3) Tendons and ligaments are composed primarily of
A)dense irregular tissue.
B)reticular connective tissue.
C)muscle tissue.
D)dense regular connective tissue.
Q4) Osteoblasts become osteocytes.
A)True
B)False
Q5) White blood cells may become macrophages.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 6: Integumentary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) We enjoy sunbathing because it stimulates keratinocytes to release
A)beta endorphin.
B)collagen.
C)carotene.
D)keratin.
Q2) The skin is one of the larger organs in the body by weight.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Cutaneous melanomas are associated with
A)short exposure to high-intensity sunlight.
B)prolonged exposure to low-intensity sunlight.
C)occasional exposure to X-rays.
D)exposure to background radiation.
Q4) A man donates part of his liver to his daughter, who suffers from cystic fibrosis. This procedure is a(n)
A)xenograft.
B)autograft.
C)allograft.
D)isograft.
Q5) The ________ of the subcutaneous layer acts as a heat insulator.
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Chapter 7: Skeletal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Osteoporosis is more severe than osteopenia.
A)True
B)False
Q2) One of your friend's femurs is abnormally short and curved. When asked about it, they tell you that when they were very young, they fell from a tree and fractured the femur at the distal end. Their pediatrician urged the parents to allow your friend to receive surgery for the fracture, but they refused. What most likely happened to result in the abnormal femur?
A)Lack of physical therapy caused the muscles of the leg to not heal correctly, inhibiting bone growth.
B)Because the epiphyseal plate was not repaired, any subsequent growth in the bone was stunted and abnormal.
C)The hematoma stage of the fracture never filled in with fibrocartilage, which caused the bone to never heal properly.
D)Because he was young, the femur healed so rapidly that it grew incorrectly and no medical intervention prevented this from occurring.
Q3) The medullary cavity of a long bone is lined with a thin cellular layer called ________.
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Chapter 8: Joints of the Skeletal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) A yoga move in which a foot is grasped and the leg is brought upward so the foot touches the buttock is an example of ________ at the knee joint.
Q2) A muscle end attached to a less movable or relatively fixed part is called the A)symphysis.
B)articulation.
C)origin.
D)insertion.
Q3) The TMJ (temporomandibular joint)is composed of the upper condyle of the mandible, which fits into the temporal bone. These two surfaces exist in a capsule and are surrounded by a thin membrane that secretes a lubricating fluid. This means that the TMJ is a fibrous joint.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A synchondrosis
A)allows bone growth.
B)equalizes pressure between vertebrae.
C)includes a joint capsule.
D)allows free movement.
Q5) The type of joint that joins the fibula and tibia is called a(n)________.
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Chapter 9: Muscular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) During strenuous exercise, muscles may not be supplied with enough oxygen, causing a shift in metabolism resulting in the breakdown of pyruvic acid to lactic acid. This change in metabolism is called the
A)aerobic threshold.
B)lactic acid threshold.
C)pyruvic acid threshold.
D)glycogenic threshold.
Q2) Which of the following is not true?
A)Red fibers contract more slowly than white.
B)Red fibers contain more myoglobin than white.
C)Red fibers have fewer mitochondria than white.
D)Red fibers fatigue more slowly than white.
Q3) While examining a sample of muscle tissue under a microscope, you notice that the cells have a single nucleus. The fibers are striated and heavily branched. Which muscle type does this sample contain?
A)Skeletal muscle
B)Smooth muscle
C)Cardiac muscle
D)Striated muscle
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Chapter 10: Nervous System I: Basic Structure and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Enkephalins are neuropeptides.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A neuron is exposed to a drug that completely blocks voltage-gated potassium channels, but has no effect on non-gated channels or the sodium-potassium pump. Which of the following describes the effect on action potential generation?
A)Threshold will never be crossed, and therefore an action potential will never be generated.
B)Repolarization will never occur after threshold is crossed and sodium will continue to flow into the neuron.
C)Repolarization will still occur, but at an inefficiently slow rate.
D)Resting potential would not be maintained, as potassium could not leak out of the neuron.
Q3) Interneurons are specialized to carry impulses from receptor cells into the brain or spinal cord.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Neuropeptides that affect a neuron's response to other neurotransmitters are called
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Chapter 11: Nervous System II: Divisions of the Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Over the course of several months, Morris has experienced difficulty speaking coherently, clumsiness, muscle fasciculations, and increasing weakness in his limbs. These symptoms are most consistent with those of
A)Parkinson disease.
B)Hodgkin's disease.
C)muscular dystrophy.
D)amyotrophic lateral sclerosis.
Q2) A patient is admitted to the hospital with suspected meningitis. Their doctor uses a ________ to test for presence of bacteria or increased quantities of immune cells in the CSF.
Q3) Which of the following lists the parts of a reflex arc in the correct sequence?
A)Receptor, sensory neuron, motor neuron, interneuron, effector
B)Effector, receptor, sensory neuron, motor neuron, interneuron
C)Effector, sensory neuron, receptor, interneuron, motor neuron
D)Receptor, sensory neuron, interneuron, motor neuron, effector
Q4) Basal ganglia are located in the ________ and ________.
A)brainstem; relay motor impulses from the cerebral cortex
B)frontal lobe; aid in control of motor activities
C)deep regions of the cerebral hemispheres; aid in control of motor activities
D)cerebral hemispheres; control the senses
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Chapter 12: Nervous System III: Senses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Glaucoma is usually caused by
A)clouding of the lens.
B)clouding of the lens capsule.
C)accumulation of vitreous humor.
D)accumulation of aqueous humor.
Q2) The adjustment of the thickness of the lens to make close vision possible is called ________.
Q3) Choose the statement that does NOT correctly describe the function of the corresponding sensory receptor.
A)You feel searing pain as nociceptors in your skin respond to cell lysis and death from a spider bite.
B)An ice cube feels very cold as thermoreceptors in your fingers detect its temperature.
C)Your car appears blue as proprioceptors in your eyes detect light of 420nm wavelength reflecting from it.
D)Your heart rate increases as baroreceptors in your aorta detect low blood pressure.
Q4) Pain that feels like it is coming from a part other than the part being stimulated is called ________ pain.
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14
Chapter 13: Endocrine System
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Sample Questions
Q1) With age,
A)levels of GH increase but of ADH decrease.
B)levels of GH decrease but of ADH increase.
C)levels of GH and ADH both decrease.
D)levels of GH and ADH both increase.
Q2) A patient develops a cyst in the pars intermedia as a child which grows over time. The resulting shape of the cyst only puts significant pressure on the posterior lobe of the pituitary gland and causes defective hormonal production and secretion. Which of the following symptoms would you predict?
A)The patient will suffer from the adverse effects of low estrogen levels and won't ovulate regularly.
B)The patient will experience hypothyroidism, as the thyroid gland will not be stimulated to release its hormones.
C)The patient will experience abnormal/high risk labor and may be forced to undergo a C-section instead of vaginal labor due to weak or missing contractions.
D)The patient will experience muscle weakness and other effects of low protein production.
Q3) Adenylate cyclase causes ATP molecules to become ________ molecules.
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Chapter 14: Blood
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Sample Questions
Q1) The normal white blood cell count is ________ cells per microliter of blood.
A)500
B)4,500
C)45,000
D)5,000,000
Q2) Heme released from hemoglobin in aged red blood cells is decomposed in the liver into
A)iron and the bile pigment biliverdin, which is eventually converted to bilirubin.
B)iron and the bile pigment bilirubin, which is eventually converted to biliverdin.
C)iron and interleukins.
D)serum and plasma proteins.
Q3) The form of anemia caused by lack of dietary iron is
A)pernicious anemia.
B)aplastic anemia.
C)hemolytic anemia.
D)iron deficiency anemia.
Q4) The most abundant type of plasma protein is ________.
Q5) A clot that breaks loose and travels in the blood flow is called a(n)________.
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Chapter 15: Cardiovascular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The aorta is the largest artery in the pulmonary circuit.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Bruce has colorectal cancer that has spread to his lymphatic system. He is given a drug that is an angiogenesis inhibitor. The drug works by
A)stimulating new blood vessels to serve tissue damaged by the cancer.
B)starving tumors by cutting off their blood supplies.
C)halting cell division only in tumor cells.
D)cutting off the supply of ATP to cancer cells.
Q3) In an ECG pattern, the T wave is caused by
A)repolarization of atrial muscle fibers.
B)repolarization of ventricular muscle fibers.
C)depolarization of atrial muscle fibers.
D)depolarization of ventricular muscle fibers.
Q4) The pulse of a long-distance runner is measured by a doctor. Their heart rate is 53 bpm. This heart rate demonstrates a type of arrhythmia called ________.
Q5) The great saphenous vein is the longest vein in the body.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 16: Lymphatic System and Immunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most abundant type of immunoglobulin is
A)IgA.
B)IgD.
C)IgE.
D)IgG.
Q2) In HIV infection, reverse transcriptase
A)makes DNA from viral RNA.
B)makes RNA from viral DNA.
C)makes protein from viral RNA.
D)makes protein from viral DNA.
Q3) The Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)is responsible for the infection known as mononucleosis. The virus attacks B lymphocytes and uses them to replicate itself. When the immune system manages to halt EBV production, the virus still remains dormant in infected B cells for the rest of the life of the host. In which of the following locations would you most likely find dormant EBV (in a previously infected person)?
A)The eyes
B)The spleen
C)The stomach
D)The hair
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Chapter 17: Digestive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is true about bile?
A)Cholecystokinin stimulates its production.
B)Secretin stimulates release of bile into the duodenum.
C)It contains concentrated enzymes that digest carbohydrates.
D)Bile is produced by the liver.
Q2) Receptor-mediated endocytosis removes ________ molecules from plasma, delivering cholesterol to the tissues.
A)VLDL
B)LDL
C)HDL
D)triglycerides
Q3) The parietal cells of gastric glands secrete A)mucus.
B)pepsinogen.
C)hydrochloric acid.
D)pepsin.
Q4) The ________ canal includes the mouth, pharynx, esophagus, stomach, small intestine, large intestine, and anal canal.
Q5) The ________ reflex regulates the rate at which chyme leaves the stomach.
Page 19
Q6) The passageway through the digestive tube is called the ________.
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Chapter 18: Nutrition and Metabolism
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Sample Questions
Q1) Intrinsic factor regulates the absorption of A)biotin.
B)folacin.
C)vitamin B .
D)vitamin B .
Q2) Ribose and deoxyribose are carbohydrates.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The B vitamins are water insoluble.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following is not a monosaccharide?
A)Fructose
B)Glucose
C)Sucrose
D)Galactose
Q5) Cyanocobalamin is found exclusively in plants.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Niacin can be synthesized in human cells from the essential amino acid ________.
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Chapter 19: Respiratory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The glottis is the opening between the vocal cords.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following bones does not house a sinus?
A)Maxillary
B)Frontal
C)Sphenoid
D)Zygomatic
Q3) You are singing a song at karaoke and reach a part that requires a high pitch. To hit the high notes, you
A)change the force of the air passing over the vocal cords.
B)increase the tension on your vocal cords.
C)change the size of the laryngeal cartilages.
D)change the shape of the laryngeal cartilages.
Q4) Max works out about an hour every day using aerobic machines at a gym. During his moderate physical exercise, blood concentrations of A)oxygen and carbon dioxide increase.
B)oxygen and carbon dioxide remain nearly unchanged.
C)oxygen decrease and carbon dioxide increase.
D)oxygen increase and carbon dioxide decrease.
Page 21
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Chapter 20: Urinary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Glomerulonephritis is inflammation of the
A)glomerular capsule.
B)peritubular capillaries.
C)glomerular capillaries.
D)collecting ducts.
Q2) A fetus develops without macula densa in its nephrons. Which of the following will occur as a result?
A)The ability to detect sodium, potassium, and chloride ions in the nephron loop and secrete renin in response will be lost.
B)Renin secretion in response to renal baroreceptors during low blood pressure conditions cannot occur.
C)Fluid cannot pass from the glomerular capillaries into the Bowman's capsule, so blood cannot be filtered.
D)Renin will be able to convert angiotensinogen into angiotensin I, but angiotensin I cannot be converted into angiotensin II.
Q3) During urine formation, some substances move from the plasma in the peritubular capillary into the renal tubule by the process called ________.
Q4) Nephrons whose corpuscles are near the renal medulla are called ________.
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Page 22
Chapter 21: Water, Electrolyte, and Acid-Base Balance
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is the largest compartment of extracellular water?
A)Plasma
B)Lymph
C)Interstitial fluid
D)Transcellular fluid
Q2) People who are at high risk for heatstroke include
A)infants and people prone to fevers.
B)people who have mice for pets.
C)mountain climbers and elderly marathoners.
D)athletes who exercise in high heat and soldiers in the desert.
Q3) Respiratory alkalosis can be
A)caused by anything that decreases breathing rate.
B)compensated for by a increased secretion of bases by the kidneys.
C)compensated for by a decreased respiratory rate.
D)characterized by muscle paralysis.
Q4) A buffer system in blood involves
A)the chloride shift through the cell membranes.
B)deoxyhemoglobin generated in white blood cells.
C)phosphate buffer in the renal system.
D)hemoglobin binding hydrogen ions in red blood cells.
Page 23
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Chapter 22: Reproductive Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) As many as twenty primary ovarian follicles may reach maturity simultaneously.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following structures is unpaired?
A)Seminal vesicle
B)Ductus deferens
C)Bulbourethral gland
D)Prostate gland
Q3) Which of the following provides mechanical contraception?
A)The rhythm method
B)The minipill
C)Combined hormone contraceptives
D)A diaphragm
Q4) A woman going through menopause may take ________ to minimize the symptoms.
A)gonadotropin-releasing hormone
B)hormone replacement therapy
C)follicle-stimulating hormone
D)progesterone-releasing hormone
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Chapter 23: Pregnancy, Growth, and Development
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Q1) If a pregnant woman becomes infected with the Varicella (chicken pox)virus during the embryonic stage, the fetus can develop eye problems, mental retardation, and delayed growth. The Varicella virus is a(n)________.
Q2) The cells of a blastocyst that help form the chorion constitute the A)blastomere.
B)inner cell mass.
C)trophoblast.
D)zona pellucida.
Q3) Upon examination of a zygote, a developmental biologist discovers that it possesses 69 chromosomes. What does this indicate?
A)The zygote resulted from polyspermy (multiple fertilizations of the same oocyte)by two sperm cells
B)The zygote is a normal, healthy diploid zygote
C)Either the sperm or the egg received an extra chromosome as the result of a meiotic error
D)Either the sperm or the egg received an extra sex chromosome as the result of a meiotic error
Q4) The process of growing old is called ________.
Q5) In the day or two before milk secretion begins, the breasts secrete ________.
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Chapter 24: Genetics and Genomics
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Sample Questions
Q1) In a simple dominant-recessive inheritance pattern, what is the chance of the offspring exhibiting the dominant trait if one parent is heterozygous and the other is homozygous recessive?
A)25%
B)50%
C)75%
D)100%
Q2) An allele that is not expressed in the heterozygous condition is A)recessive.
B)dominant.
C)autosomal.
D)codominant.
Q3) A pharmacogenetic test can reveal whether a certain drug will be effective and/or cause adverse effects in a particular person.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A heterozygote has identical alleles of a gene and a homozygote has different alleles.
A)True
B)False
Page 26
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