Human Biology Textbook Exam Questions - 1631 Verified Questions

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Human Biology

Textbook Exam Questions

Course Introduction

Human Biology explores the structure and function of the human body, examining the systems that maintain life, such as the circulatory, respiratory, digestive, nervous, and reproductive systems. The course covers core biological principles, including genetics, cell biology, and human development, while also addressing health, disease, lifestyle, and environmental factors that influence human physiology. Emphasis is placed on understanding how the body works, how it responds to internal and external challenges, and the scientific basis for current biomedical advances and healthcare practices.

Recommended Textbook

Biology Science for Life with Physiology Edition 5th Edition by Colleen M. Belk

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25 Chapters

1631 Verified Questions

1631 Flashcards

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Chapter 1: Can Science Cure the Common Cold

Introduction to the Scientific Method

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79 Verified Questions

79 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) What is an intentionally ineffective treatment given to members of a control group in an experiment?

Answer: placebo

Q2) Why is the scientific method used?

A) to answer specific questions about the natural world

B) to determine absolute truth

C) to distinguish good from evil

D) to establish moral codes

Answer: A

Q3) Why might scientists often be hesitant to believe the results of a single experiment testing a particular treatment, even when the results are peer reviewed and statistically significant?

A) The experimental and control groups may be too alike.

B) The results may not be true for humans if the experiment used a model organism.

C) A single experiment may have eliminated most of the alternative hypotheses.

D) The experiment was likely to have had many biases that affected the results.

Answer: B

Q4) What type of reasoning is used to make predictions based on a hypothesis?

Answer: Deductive

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Chapter 2: Science Fiction, Bad Science, and

Pseudoscience:

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53 Verified Questions

53 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which type of macromolecule is present in enzymes?

A) carbohydrates

B) lipids

C) nucleic acids

D) proteins

Answer: D

Q2) Which component of amino acids accounts for the differences in their properties?

A) the amino group

B) the carboxyl group

C) the side group

D) the type of bonds

Answer: C

Q3) What type of electric charge do protons carry?

A) negative

B) positive

C) neutral

D) no charge

Answer: B

Q4) What is the fundamental structural unit of life on Earth?

Answer: cell

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Chapter 3: Is It Possible to Supplement Your Way to Better

Performance and Health

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87 Verified Questions

87 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) What is the high energy molecule that is made from converted food energy in the mitochondria and is used to power cellular reactions?

Answer: adenosine triphosphate

Q2) Which process fuses vesicles with the plasma membrane to move substances out of a cell?

Answer: exocytosis

Q3) Which food is most likely to contain all essential amino acids?

A) beef

B) carrots

C) corn

D) rice

Answer: A

Q4) How are trans fats different from regular saturated fats?

A) Trans fats cannot form carbon-carbon double bonds.

B) Trans fats have flattened fatty acids.

C) Trans fats are liquid at room temperature.

D) Trans fats do not contain glycerol.

Answer: B

Q5) Which type of amino acids cannot be synthesized by the body?

Answer: essential

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Chapter 4: Body Weight and Health: Enzymes, Metabolism, and Cellular Respiration

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63 Verified Questions

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Sample Questions

Q1) What is the resting energy requirement of a person who is awake but not active? (three words)

Q2) During glycolysis, what molecule is formed when NAD picks up a hydrogen atom along with its electron?

A) NADP

B) NADPH

C) NADH

D) H O

Q3) What is the function of the protein channel where H ions escape into the matrix of the mitochondrion?

A) to add a phosphate to ADP

B) to remove a phosphate from ATP

C) to break the bonds of ATP

D) to create ADP from ATP

Q4) Why is a very low level of body fat unhealthy in young women?

A) Women need a certain amount of fat to maintain their fertility.

B) Reduced levels of body fat make a woman unable to expend any energy.

C) Women with very low body fat have an increased risk of developing diabetes.

D) Women with very low body fat have an increased risk of heavy menstrual bleeding.

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Chapter 5: Life in the Greenhouse: Photosynthesis and Climate Change

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70 Verified Questions

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Sample Questions

Q1) How many years ago did the plants that formed fossil fuels actually live?

A) 300,000,000,000

B) 300,000,000

C) 300,000

D) 30,000

Q2) What is the role of a CAM plant?

A) It uses 4-carbon sugars to pump carbon dioxide molecules to the Calvin cycle.

B) It is often used in agriculture because of its ability to conserve water.

C) It slows water loss by opening stomata only at night.

D) It tends to grow very slowly because of its inability to undergo the Calvin cycle.

Q3) Which item emits carbon dioxide into the atmosphere?

A) green plants

B) volcanoes

C) soil

D) water

Q4) In plant leaves, what are the tiny pores that allow carbon dioxide to enter and oxygen to exit?

Q5) What unconsumed macromolecule from dead organisms eventually formed fossil fuels?

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Chapter 6: Cancer: DNA Synthesis, Mitosis, and Meiosis

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58 Verified Questions

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Sample Questions

Q1) Consider a strand of DNA with the sequence GAATTCGGCA. What is the sequence of the complementary strand?

A) ACGGCTTAAG

B) AGGCCTAATG

C) CTTAAGCCGT

D) GAATTCGGCA

Q2) During which meiotic phase does crossing over occur?

A) anaphase I of meiosis I

B) anaphase II of meiosis II

C) prophase I of meiosis I

D) prophase II of meiosis II

Q3) During which phase of mitosis are the replicated chromosome aligned in the middle of the cell?

A) prophase

B) anaphase

C) metaphase

D) telophase

Q4) What are the two halves of a duplicated chromosome? (two words)

Q5) What is the process by which cells of a malignant tumor can break away and start new cancers at distant locations?

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Chapter 7: Are You Only As Smart As Your Genes Mendelian and Quantitative Genetics

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71 Verified Questions

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Sample Questions

Q1) What does the highest point on a bell-shaped curve represent?

A) maximum amount of variation in a trait

B) heritability value of a trait

C) number of people in the population who are heterozygous

D) mean of the population

Q2) How many different kinds of gametes can be made by an individual with the genotype AaBb?

A) 2

B) 4

C) 8

D) 16

Q3) When does the segregation of alleles occur?

A) Homologous chromosomes separate during meiosis.

B) Homologous chromosomes separate during mitosis.

C) Sister chromatids separate during meiosis.

D) Sister chromatids separate during mitosis.

Q4) What type of trait shows continuous variation, where there is a large range of phenotypes in a population (for example, height or skin color)?

Q6) What type of genetic cross involves two traits? Page 9

Q5) What are the segments of DNA that generally code for proteins?

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Chapter 8: DNA Detective: Complex Patterns of Inheritance and

Dna Profiling

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Sample Questions

Q1) What enzyme is used to synthesize daughter strands of DNA during PCR?

A) replicase

B) DNA polymerase

C) RNA polymerase

D) Taq polymerase

Q2) Because the bones thought to belong to the Romanov family were highly decayed, what type of analysis was used by scientists to determine the gender of each deceased individual?

A) pelvic bone analysis only

B) DNA analysis of material that is specific to the Y chromosome

C) DNA analysis of material that is specific to the X chromosome

D) both pelvic bone analysis and DNA analysis

Q3) In which group can sex-linked traits be expressed?

A) males only

B) females only

C) either males or females

D) carriers only

Q4) What pattern of inheritance occurs in the ABO blood system where there are three distinct alleles in human populations?

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Chapter 9: Genetically Modified Organisms: Gene

Expression, Mutation,

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66 Verified Questions

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Sample Questions

Q1) What changes should result from using stem cells in therapeutic cloning?

A) healthy tissues

B) new genomes

C) model organisms

D) reproductive clones

Q2) Which structure could be incorporated into a protein?

A) alanine

B) ribonucleic acid

C) thymine

D) uracil

Q3) What molecule does a sequence of DNA typically code for?

A) protein

B) lipid

C) monosaccharide

D) nucleotide

Q4) Which molecule is not directly involved in the process of translation?

A) ribosome

B) tRNA

C) mRNA

D) DNA

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Chapter 10: Where Did We Come From the Evidence for Evolution

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72 Verified Questions

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which example describes biological evolution?

A) You are vaccinated against polio and are protected against the disease.

B) A tree branch is broken off and another grows in its place.

C) Over time, a caterpillar species becomes as green as the leaves it eats.

D) The average woman's dress size has increased over the last 50 years.

Q2) Bat wings are homologous to the front legs of cats. What does the term homologous mean in this context?

A) Both structures are used for the same purpose.

B) The common ancestor of bats and cats had limbs that functioned as wings.

C) The common ancestor of bats and cats had a limb with a bone structure similar to that found in cat legs and bat wings.

D) Bat wings are vestigial legs.

Q3) You discover a primate fossil while on an expedition in Africa. Which part of the skeleton should be examined to classify this fossil as a human or a nonhuman primate?

A) the hand bones

B) the base of the skull

C) the ribs

D) the backbone (vertebrae)

Q4) What is the main mechanism that results in evolution?

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Chapter 11: An Evolving Enemy: Natural Selection

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70 Verified Questions

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Sample Questions

Q1) True or false: Any allele that's present in a population exists because it increases fitness.

A)True B)False

Q2) Which description applies to individuals who are well adapted for a particular environment?

A) They may or may not be equally fit in another environment.

B) They are the best fit for all other environments.

C) They are at a disadvantage in other environments.

D) They will mutate to become fit in other environments.

Q3) How did an understanding of genetics lead to "the modern synthesis"?

A) It showed how traits could be passed from one organism to the next.

B) It showed how many offspring a single individual was capable of producing.

C) It showed the extent of variation for many traits.

D) It showed the kind of environmental change that could cause evolution.

Q4) True or false: Any trait that is controlled by genes can be acted on by natural selection.

A)True B)False

Q5) What traits increase fitness in a particular environment?

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Chapter 12: Who Am I Species and Races

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Sample Questions

Q1) Genealogical species are groups that have diverged from a common ancestor but aren't yet reproductively ________.

Q2) True or false: Fossil evidence shows that all modern human populations evolved from human ancestors in Africa.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Which situation is an example of behavioral isolation?

A) A species of daisy only blooms when nights become longer than nine hours.

B) The offspring of horses and donkeys are sterile.

C) The pollen of roses isn't recognized by the eggs of morning glories.

D) Female spiders only mate when a male of the same species taps her web in a particular way.

Q4) You read that the frequency of a particular disease-associated recessive allele in a population is 12%. What does that mean?

A) 12% of the population has the disease caused by that allele.

B) 12% of the population is a carrier for that disease.

C) For every 100 people, there are 12 copies of the allele.

D) The allele is present in 12% of the cells in your body.

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Chapter 13: The Greatest Species on Earth Biodiversity and Classification

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Sample Questions

Q1) Fossils of ancient organisms are found in deep layers of rock, while the fossils of more recent organisms are found in shallower layers. Which two groups' common ancestor would be found in relatively shallow fossils?

A) protists and bacteria

B) fungi and archaea

C) animals and plants

D) plants and protists

Q2) Approximately how old is life on Earth?

A) 36 billion years old

B) 3.6 billion years old

C) 360 million years old

D) 36 million years old

Q3) For what reason might scientists change the most current classification system?

A) if more species became extinct

B) if more types of vertebrates were discovered

C) if more information became available on the evolutionary history of existing species

D) if new species evolved

Q4) What was the first antibiotic, discovered as a result of a laboratory accident?

Q5) What process is performed by both algae and plants?

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Chapter 14: Is the Human Population Too Large Population

Ecology

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69 Verified Questions

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Sample Questions

Q1) True or false: Nearly all developed countries in the world are beginning a demographic transition in the twenty-first century.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Which activity would be an example of an ecological study?

A) measuring monthly ocean temperature changes

B) developing a medication to treat kidney failure in cats

C) comparing the effects of varying water temperature on fish egg development

D) calculating the age of a giant redwood tree by counting its annual rings

Q3) True or false: The carrying capacity of a given geographic region for a single population can change over time.

A)True

B)False

Q4) When you look at the spacing of humans on a global level, what type of distribution does the population follow?

A) clumped

B) uniform

C) random

D) indescribable

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Chapter 15: Conserving Biodiversity: Community and Ecosystem Ecology

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Sample Questions

Q1) Fenway Park, home of the Boston Red Sox, is situated on land that was once a fen, a kind of wetland. The replacement of the fen is an example of

A) pollution.

B) overexploitation.

C) habitat destruction.

D) competition.

Q2) A population of snakes lives in a valley. This population of snakes is 30% black and 70% brown in coloration. A dam is built to flood part of the valley, separating the snakes into two populations. West of the human-made lake, there's a very small population of all black snakes, while east of the lake, the population is much larger and retains the same percentage of black and brown coloration as before the dam was built. What process applies to this example?

A) a homozygous population growth

B) genetic drift

C) inbreeding

D) competitive exclusion

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Chapter 16: Where Do You Live Climate and Biomes

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Sample Questions

Q1) How many degrees does the Earth's axis tilt from perpendicular?

A) 10°

B) 90°

C) 23.5°

D) 0°

Q2) What biome includes an environment where the plants are low to the ground and many boggy areas are found?

A) a boreal forest

B) a savanna

C) a tundra

D) a prairie

Q3) When is the length of day always the greatest?

A) during the September equinox

B) during the March equinox

C) during the winter solstice

D) during the summer solstice

Q4) In a general sense, ________ refers to short term environmental conditions, and ________ refers to long term environmental conditions.

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Chapter 17: Organ Donation: Tissues and Organs

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Sample Questions

Q1) In order to increase blood glucose levels, what hormone is secreted by the pancreas to stimulate the liver to convert stored glycogen into glucose?

A) insulin

B) gastrin

C) glucagon

D) cholecystokinin

Q2) Which tissue type in the human body is exposed directly to the bloodstream?

A) muscle

B) connective

C) epithelial

D) nervous

Q3) Which cells make up cartilage?

A) fibroblasts

B) osteocytes

C) chondrocytes

D) hepatocytes

Q4) What connective tissue is made from substances secreted by osteocytes?

Q5) What example of homeostasis includes the maintenance of constant internal body temperature?

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Q6) What tissue type protects the body from water loss?

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Chapter 18: Binge Drinking: the Digestive and Urinary Systems

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Sample Questions

Q1) What would a person born without an epiglottis not be able to do?

A) digest fats

B) digest proteins

C) absorb the products of digestion

D) swallow food without a high risk of choking

Q2) Valuable substances in filtrate are returned to the blood through what process?

A) filtration

B) reabsorption

C) secretion

D) excretion

Q3) What is emulsification?

A) the digestion of food inside vacuoles

B) the breaking up of fat molecules

C) the secretion of digestive enzymes in the stomach

D) the involuntary movement of a bolus through the alimentary canal

Q4) What process releases urine from the bladder?

A) filtration

B) excretion

C) micturition

D) nephronation

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Chapter 19: Clearing the Air: Respiratory and Cardiovascular Systems

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Sample Questions

Q1) Although children believe that "holding my breath until I die" is possible, why should parents not be concerned by this threat?

A) As a child holds his or her breath, oxygen levels build, stimulating breathing by the brain stem.

B) As a child holds his or her breath, oxygen levels decrease, stimulating breathing by the brain stem.

C) As a child holds his or her breath, carbon dioxide levels decrease, stimulating breathing by the brain stem.

D) As a child holds his or her breath, carbon dioxide levels increase, stimulating breathing by the brain stem.

Q2) True or false: The presence of known carcinogens in ETS supports the argument that ETS can cause lung cancer in nonsmokers.

A)True

B)False

Q3) What term describes the many components of tobacco smoke that are known to cause cancer?

Q4) In the human cardiovascular system, what's the difference between the pulmonary circuit and the systemic circuit?

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Chapter 20: Vaccination: Protection and Prevention or Peril

Immune System,

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which cells are important elements that comprise antibody-mediated immunity?

A) B cells

B) cytotoxic T cells

C) helper T cells

D) macrophages

Q2) Refer to the figure to answer the following question: Which statement about viruses is correct?

A) Viruses are composed of cells.

B) Viruses have no genome.

C) Viruses can make their own enzymes.

D) The genes of a virus code for proteins necessary to make more viruses.

Q3) What disease is caused by the Epstein-Barr virus?

A) the common cold

B) rabies

C) tuberculosis

D) mononucleosis

Q4) What are molecules such as viruses and bacteria that are foreign to the host and stimulate the immune system to react?

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Q5) Where are developing lymphocytes tested to determine whether they'll bind to self-proteins?

Chapter 21: Human Sex Differences: Endocrine, Skeletal, and Muscular Systems

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Sample Questions

Q1) Unlike most steroid-based hormones, how will protein hormones typically work?

A) by binding to receptors on the surface of target cells

B) by binding to receptors inside the target cells

C) by binding to receptors in the nucleus of target cells

D) by causing target cells to turn specific genes on and off

Q2) Which muscle component is smallest?

A) myofibril

B) myosin filament

C) sarcomere

D) muscle fiber

Q3) In general, what hormone is produced in greater quantities in males that allows them to have a greater muscle mass than females?

A) adrenaline

B) testosterone

C) estrogen

D) growth hormone

Q4) True or false: Because of generally larger Q angles, women may be more susceptible to knee injuries than men.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 22: Is There Something in the Water Reproductive and Developmental Biology

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Sample Questions

Q1) What structures inside the human penis are responsible for an erection?

A) columns of erectile tissue that fill with blood

B) a series of small bones that push out of the pelvic cavity and into the penis during arousal

C) small balloon-like glands that fill with air

D) one large bone that pushes out of the pelvic cavity and into the penis during arousal

Q2) The drug diethylstylbestrol, or DES, mimics estrogen and interferes with the development of the fetal uterus. What is this drug considered?

A) a hormone

B) as good as estrogen

C) an endocrine disruptor

D) a good form of birth control

Q3) What tissue in the gastrula gives rise to muscle?

A) ectoderm

B) mesoderm

C) endoderm

D) gastrula

Q4) What body system allows the survival of different species?

Page 25

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Chapter 23: Study Drugs: Brain Boost or Brain Drain Brain

Structure and Function

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Sample Questions

Q1) What is the network of nerves that radiates out from the brain and the spinal cord part of?

A) the central nervous system

B) interneurons

C) the peripheral nervous system

D) neurotransmitters

Q2) A drug called ouabain specifically inhibits the sodium-potassium pump present in neuron cells. Over time, what would this action of ouabain cause?

A) the inside of the neuron to become more negative

B) repolarization

C) elimination of a concentration gradient

D) more potassium to be transported into the neuron

Q3) Which structure is directly associated with synaptic transmission?

A) axon

B) vesicles

C) nodes of Ranvier

D) cell body

Q4) What system is composed of the spinal cord and brain?

Page 26

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Chapter 24: Feeding the World: Plant Structure and Growth

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Sample Questions

Q1) What is a leaf blade attached to a stem by a stalk-like structure?

A) internode

B) stoma

C) petiole

D) node

Q2) For how many years did the human race rely upon hunting and gathering, with no agriculture?

A) 1,500,000 years

B) 1,000,000 years

C) 500,000 years

D) 250,000 years

Q3) Which technique would make agricultural practices more sustainable?

A) monoculture

B) salinization

C) integrated pest management

D) irrigation

Q4) What is the concentration of persistent toxic chemicals at higher levels within a food chain or food web?

Q5) Pollination occurs when the pollen of a flower lands on which plant structure?

Page 27

Q6) What is the emergence of a plant embryo from a seed?

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Chapter 25: Growing a Green Thumb: Plant Physiology

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which plant has the greatest hardiness (can tolerate the lowest temperature)?

A) a tomato plant

B) a cabbage plant

C) an apple tree

D) a houseplant that evolved in the tropics

Q2) What type of force moves water up a tree, from its roots to its leaves?

A) pushing

B) pulling

C) pumping

D) positive pressure

Q3) What is the purpose of plant hormones?

A) They are produced in small amounts but have great effects.

B) They break down quickly after they are produced.

C) They act only at the location where they are produced.

D) They generally have one limited effect on the plant.

Q4) What is contained within the xylem sap of a plant?

A) water only

B) water and dissolved minerals only

C) water and sugars produced from photosynthesis only

D) water, dissolved minerals, and sugars

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