Human Biology Study Guide Questions
Course Introduction
Human Biology is an in-depth exploration of the structure and function of the human body, integrating principles from anatomy, physiology, genetics, and evolutionary biology. This course examines the organ systems, their interrelationships, and how they contribute to maintaining homeostasis. Students will also study human development, health, disease mechanisms, and the influence of lifestyle and environment on wellbeing. Emphasis is placed on the scientific method, evidence-based understanding, and the application of biological concepts to real-world health issues, preparing students for further studies or careers in health-related fields.
Recommended Textbook
Structure and Function of the Body 15th Edition by Kevin
T. Patton PhD
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58 Chapters
7639 Verified Questions
7639 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: A: Organization of the Body
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106 Verified Questions
106 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cell specialization is a necessary characteristic in order for the human body to function as it does.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) Bacteria generally have a well-defined nucleus.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) In anatomy,the thigh is considered part of the leg.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q4) The kidneys are medial and anterior to the vertebrae.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Chapter 1: B: Organization of the Body
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158 Verified Questions
158 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Systemic anatomy is a term that refers to:
A) physiological investigation at a microscopic level.
B) anatomical investigation that begins in the head and neck and concludes at the feet.
C) anatomical investigation that uses an approach of studying the body by systems-groups of organs having a common function.
D) anatomical investigation at the molecular level.
Answer: C
Q2) Popliteal refers to the:
A) calf.
B) ankle.
C) cheek.
D) area behind the knee.
Answer: D
Q3) A somatotype characterized by a thin,fragile physique is a(n):
A) ectomorph.
B) mesomorph.
C) endomorph.
Answer: A
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Chapter 2: A: The Chemical Basis of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) An ionic bond forms crystals whereas a covalent bond forms molecules.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) ATP is broken down in an anabolic reaction.
A)True
B)False Answer: False
Q3) A substance that releases an OH- ion in solution is called a base.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q4) Nucleotides are used to make only RNA or DNA molecules.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q5) An atom is chemically inert if its outermost shell has two pairs of electrons.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Page 5
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Chapter 2: B: The Chemical Basis of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) Humans can synthesize 13 of 21 basic amino acids; the remaining 8,which must be included in the diet,are called:
A) enzymes.
B) essential amino acids.
C) structural proteins.
D) peptide bonds.
Q2) Which of the following bonds are the weakest?
A) Ionic
B) Hydrogen
C) Electrovalent
D) Covalent
Q3) The elements carbon,hydrogen,oxygen,and nitrogen make up which percentage of the human body?
A) 50%
B) 69%
C) 78%
D) 96%
Q4) Name and briefly describe the type of chemical bonds discussed in this chapter.
Q5) Explain the different functions performed by RNA in the cell.
Q6) Compare and contrast the structures of DNA and RNA.
Page 6
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Chapter 3: A: Anatomy of Cells
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Sample Questions
Q1) Tight junctions do not allow molecules to spread through the cracks between cells.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Primary cilia can act as sensory organelles.
A)True
B)False
Q3) All of the cell extensions-microvilli,cilia,and flagella-have basically the same structure.They only differ in number per cell and length.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Proteins in the cell membrane can control the movement of material through the cell membrane.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Small protein structures called molecular motors pull loads form one part of the cell to another along the cytoskeleton.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 3: B: Anatomy of Cells
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Sample Questions
Q1) Skin cells (epithelial)are held tightly together by:
A) gap junctions.
B) desmosomes.
C) tight junctions.
D) adhesions.
Q2) outer boundary of the cell made up of phospholipids and proteins
A)Plasma membrane
B)Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
C)Golgi apparatus
D)Nucleolus
E)Nucleus
F)Ribosome
G)Lysosome
H)Mitochondria
I)Peroxisomes
J)Rough endoplasmic reticulum
K.Proteasomes
Q3) What are molecular motors and what is their function in the cell?
Q4) Describe the structure and function of the nucleus.Include the structure and function of the nucleolus.
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Chapter 4: Physiology of Cells
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Sample Questions
Q1) add water to a molecule without splitting it
A)Hydrases
B)Hydrolases
C)Phosphorylating enzymes
D)Mutases or isomerases
E)Carboxylases or decarboxylases
F)Oxidases and hydrogenases
Q2) The process of glycolysis produces two molecules of pyruvic acid for every one molecule of glucose.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is not a passive transport process?
A) Dialysis
B) Osmosis
C) Filtration
D) Phagocytosis
Q4) For osmosis to occur,a selectively permeable membrane must be present.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Explain the classification system and naming system for enzymes.
Page 9
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Chapter 5: Cell Growth and Reproduction
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Sample Questions
Q1) When the chromosomes align themselves across the equator of the spindle fibers,it is characteristic of which phase of mitosis?
A) Prophase
B) Anaphase
C) Metaphase
D) Telophase
Q2) A DNA molecule is characterized by all of the following except:
A) double helix shape.
B) obligatory base pairing.
C) ribose sugar.
D) phosphate groups.
Q3) It is during meiosis phase I that the number of chromosomes is halved.
A)True
B)False
Q4) During which stage of mitosis do the centrioles move to the opposite poles of the cell?
A) Prophase
B) Metaphase
C) Anaphase
D) Telophase
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Chapter 6: Tissues
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Sample Questions
Q1) The study of how the primary germ layers differentiate into the different kinds of tissues is called histogenesis.
A)True
B)False
Q2) single layer of tall,thin cells; modification may appear goblet-shaped
A)Simple squamous
B)Simple cuboidal
C)Simple columnar
D)Pseudostratified columnar
E)Stratified squamous
F)Tr
Q3) Hematopoietic tissue can be found in the:
A) heart.
B) lungs.
C) bones.
D) intestines.
Q4) Fibroblasts in loose fibrous connective tissue are able to release substances such as histamine and heparin.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 7: A: Skin and Its Appendages
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Sample Questions
Q1) Light-skinned people have fewer melanocytes in their skin than do dark-skinned people.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Skin thermal receptors provide important information to the heat-regulating centers in the brain,resulting in autonomic regulation of body temperature.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The death of melanocytes in the hair follicle of older people cause the hair to turn gray.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The skin is the largest and thinnest organ.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The stratum lucidum and stratum basale are sometimes referred to as the stratum germinativum.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 7: B: Skin and Its Appendages
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Sample Questions
Q1) contains cells rich in ribonucleic acid and has prominent intercellular bridges or desmosomes
A)Stratum corneum
B)Stratum lucidum
C)Stratum granulosum
D)Stratum spinosum
E)Stratum basale
Q2) After several hours of landscaping the yard,Jennifer experienced a body temperature of 105° F; a rapid heart rate; headache; and hot,dry skin.She is taken to a medical facility and treated for what condition?
A) Heat exhaustion
B) Heat stroke
C) Hypothermia
D) Malignant hyperthermia
Q3) The body compensates for the increase in the core body temperature caused by exercise by:
A) decreasing the blood flow to the skin.
B) increasing the blood flow to the core.
C) increasing the blood flow to the skin.
D) vasoconstriction of the blood vessels in the skin.
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Chapter 8: A: Skeletal Tissues
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Sample Questions
Q1) Articular cartilage can be defined as a layer of elastic cartilage that covers the joint surface.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Sesamoid bones develop in tendons near a joint.
A)True
B)False
Q3) After birth,the amount of cartilage in the body increases.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The homeostasis of blood calcium is maintained by its moving into and out of bone tissue.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The epiphyses consist mostly of compact bone,usually with yellow marrow in the center.
A)True B)False
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Chapter 8: B: Skeletal Tissues
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which type of bone consists only of compact bone?
A) Long
B) Short
C) Irregular
D) All types of bones are composed of both compact and spongy bone.
Q2) The scapula is an example of a(n)_____ bone.
A) long
B) short
C) flat
D) irregular
Q3) In young children,vitamin A and protein deficiency will:
A) cause an increase in the thickness of epiphyseal plates in the growing long bones.
B) cause a decrease in the thickness of epiphyseal plates in the growing long bones. C) produce the same alterations of the epiphyseal plate as does vitamin D deficiency.
D) have no effect on the epiphyseal plate but will cause an increase in bone marrow production.
Q4) Compare and contrast osteoblasts,osteoclasts,and osteocytes.
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Chapter 9: Skeletal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) middle part of the sternum
A)Body
B)False ribs
C)Floating ribs
D)Manubrium
E)True rib
F)Xiphoid process
G)Costal cartilage
Q2) Although the mandible seems to be one bone,it is the result of a fusion of two bones in infancy.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Infectious material can accumulate in the air space within the mastoid bone because it does not drain into the nose like other sinuses.
A)True
B)False
Q4) In a newborn,the face is a much smaller part of the skull than it is in an adult.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 10: A: Articulations
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Sample Questions
Q1) The joint between the metatarsals and the phalanges is a hinge-type joint.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The medial and lateral menisci form cushions for the head of the femur as it articulates with the acetabulum.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Plantar flexion is a movement that applies only to the hands and feet.
A)True
B)False
Q4) When a person is standing on her toes,dorsiflexion of the foot has occurred.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The annular ligament is the ligament that helps connect the ulna and radius.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Total hip replacement is the most common orthopedic operation performed on older persons in the United States.
A)True
B)False
Page 17
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Chapter 10: B: Articulations
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Sample Questions
Q1) Differentiate among uniaxial,biaxial,and multiaxial joints.
Q2) The periodontal membrane is associated with which type of joint?
A) Gomphosis
B) Suture
C) Syndesmoses
D) Synovial
Q3) List the structures that characterize synovial joints.
Q4) A condyloid joint is an example of a(n)_____ joint.
A) uniaxial
B) biaxial
C) multiaxial
D) immovable
Q5) Which of the following is not an example of a fibrous joint?
A) Symphyses
B) Sutures
C) Syndesmoses
D) Gomphoses
Q6) Describe the stability of the hip joint.
Q7) Why is slight movement of the symphysis pubis necessary?
Q8) What purpose do ligaments serve?
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Chapter 11: A: Anatomy of the Muscular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The insertion is that point of attachment that does not move when the muscle contracts.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Muscles maintain posture by the property of tonicity.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Fixator muscles would most likely be found at the origin points of muscles rather than at the insertion points of muscles.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The two levator ani and coccygeus muscles form most of the pelvic floor.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The deltoid is an example of a muscle named by its shape. A)True
B)False
Q6) Agonists and prime movers are interchangeable terms. A)True
B)False
Page 19
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Chapter 11: B: Anatomy of the Muscular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The latissimus dorsi muscle is an example of a _____ muscle.
A) bipennate
B) convergent
C) spiral
D) fusiform
Q2) There are more than ____ skeletal muscles in the body.
A) 1200
B) 900
C) 600
D) 1000
Q3) below the skin,it is called "superficial"; surrounding the muscle,it is called "deep"
A)Endomysium
B)Tendon
C)Epimysium
D)Aponeurosis
E)Fascia
F)Perimysium
G)Tendon sheath
H)Fascicles
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Page 20
Chapter 12: A: Physiology of the Muscular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Shivering in response to a drop in body temperature is an example of a positive feedback mechanism in the body.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The anabolism of protein by muscle cells produces heat for the body.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Myofibrils contain several sarcomeres lined up end to end.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Myosin filaments interact with actin filaments during muscle contraction.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Eccentric muscle contractions actually result in the lengthening of the muscle.
A)True B)False
Q6) Muscles contract more forcefully after they have contracted a few times. A)True
B)False
21
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Chapter 12: B: Physiology of the Muscular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Aerobic respiration:
A) allows the body to avoid the use of oxygen for a short time.
B) results in the formation of an incompletely catabolized molecule.
C) results in the formation of lactic acid.
D) produces the maximum amount of energy available from each glucose molecule.
Q2) Describe the physiological process of muscle contraction.
Q3) A satellite cell in a muscle can become active:
A) during isotonic contractions.
B) during isometric contractions.
C) after an injury to a muscle.
D) when a muscle becomes fatigued.
Q4) A contraction in which the tension within the muscle remains the same but the length changes is called a(n)_____ contraction.
A) tonic
B) isotonic
C) isometric
D) tetanic
Q5) Define rigor mortis.Why does it occur?
Q6) List and describe the three general functions of skeletal muscle tissue.
Q7) Name and describe the myofilament fibers in the sarcomere.
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Chapter 13: A: Nervous System Cells
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Sample Questions
Q1) The words nerve and neuron mean the same thing.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Myelinated fibers conduct impulses faster than unmyelinated fibers.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Regeneration of nerve fibers is impossible,even if the cell body is intact and the fibers have a neurilemma.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A membrane that exhibits a membrane potential is said to be depolarized.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Excitatory neurotransmitters are most likely to initiate an action potential.
A)True
B)False
Q6) An electrical synapse occurs when a strong action potential is able to arc across a small synaptic cleft.
A)True
B)False
Page 23
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Chapter 13: B: Nervous System Cells
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Sample Questions
Q1) Schwann cells have a function in the peripheral nervous system that is similar to that of which cells in the central nervous system?
A) Oligodendrocytes
B) Astrocytes
C) Microglia
D) Ependymal cells
Q2) Name and describe the three parts of the neuron.
Q3) The only ion(s)that can diffuse across a neuron's membrane when the neuron is at rest is(are):
A) sodium.
B) potassium.
C) proteins.
D) phosphate.
Q4) Neurotransmitters are released in a synapse and bind to:
A) presynaptic terminals.
B) the synaptic cleft.
C) the base of the axon.
D) receptors on the postsynaptic neuron.
Q5) What is the major function of neurons?
Q6) Describe the process of impulse conduction across a synapse.
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Chapter 14: A: Central Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The somatic senses include vision,hearing,and olfaction.
A)True
B)False
Q2) All of the 12 cranial nerves come from one of the three parts of the brainstem.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Both the pons and medulla oblongata have centers that help regulate respiration.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The cerebrospinal fluid is absorbed into the venous blood by the median foramen of Magendie.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The group of nerve roots that extend below the spinal cord are called the filum terminale.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Repetition of nerve impulses on the same neuron circuitry produces memory.
A)True
B)False
Page 25
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Chapter 14: B: Central Nervous System
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Q1) Nerve fibers of the spinothalamic tract are:
A) sensory.
B) motor.
C) descending.
D) none of the above.
Q2) Which of the following is not a function of the hypothalamus?
A) Production of hormones
B) "Go between" of the psyche and the soma
C) Appetite center
D) Regulation of motor activity
Q3) Explain the location and function of primary,secondary,and tertiary sensory neurons.Which of these neurons can decussate?
Q4) Explain how the cerebrum and cerebellum are similar to a negative feedback mechanism in terms of controlling the movement of skeletal muscles.
Q5) What structure drains cerebrospinal fluid into the fourth ventricle?
A) Cerebral aqueduct (of Sylvius)
B) Interventricular foramen (of Monro)
C) Lateral foramina (of Luschka)
D) Cisterna magna
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Chapter 15: Peripheral Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The spinal nerves are connected to the spinal cord and consist of _____ pairs.
A) 12
B) 21
C) 31
D) 41
Q2) nerve root that carries motor nerves away from the spinal cord
A)Cauda equine
B)Ventral nerve root
C)Dorsal nerve root
D)Cervical plexus
E)Brachial plexus
F)Lumbar plexus
G)Dermatome
H)Myotome
I)Somatic reflexes
J)Autonomic reflexes
Q3) There are 62 spinal nerves.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Describe the basic principles of somatic motor pathways.
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Chapter 16: Autonomic Nervous System
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Q1) "Fight-or-flight" physiological changes include all of the following except:
A) increased conversion of glycogen into glucose.
B) constriction of respiratory airways.
C) increased sweating.
D) dilation of blood vessels in skeletal muscles.
Q2) Explain the source and possible synapse points for the sympathetic preganglionic neurons.
Q3) List four ways the body adapts itself for maximum energy expenditure during stress conditions.
Q4) Which of the following is a description of the principle of antagonism as it relates to the autonomic nervous system?
A) If sympathetic impulses tend to inhibit the effector, parasympathetic impulses tend to stimulate it.
B) If sympathetic impulses inhibit autonomic centers, parasympathetic impulses tend to stimulate them.
C) If sympathetic impulses tend to stimulate an effector, parasympathetic impulses tend to inhibit it.
D) If sympathetic impulses initiate nerve conduction, parasympathetic impulses stop nerve conduction.
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Chapter 17: A: Sense Organs
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Q1) Dynamic equilibrium depends on the functioning of the crista ampullaris.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The primary mechanism of fibromyalgia seems to be an abnormal amplification of pain information by the central nervous system.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Chemically,all photopigments in rods can be broken down into opsin and retinal.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Encapsulated nerve endings are encapsulated by cuboidal epithelial tissue.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The tactile receptor is made up of two cells: a tactile epithelial cell and a tactile disk.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Each optic nerve contains fibers from both retinas.
A)True
B)False
Page 29
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Chapter 17: B: Sense Organs
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Q1) tympanic membrane
Q2) Amanda repeatedly became ill with throat infections during her first few years of school.Lately she has noticed that whenever she has a throat infection,her ears become very sore also.What might be the cause of this additional problem? Explain the connection between the two problems.
Q3) Which of the following statements is not true of the olfactory receptors?
A) They are chemoreceptors.
B) They are located in an area that is easily stimulated.
C) The sense of smell in humans is less keen than in many other animals.
D) All of the above statements are true.
Q4) Explain why watery eyes occur when a person gets a common cold.
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Chapter 18: Endocrine System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements is false?
A) Both the nervous system and endocrine system use chemicals to send messages.
B) For the nervous and endocrine systems to function, the receiving cells must have the correct type of receptors.
C) Cells can have receptors for hormones or for neurotransmitters but not for both.
D) The nervous and endocrine systems can be seen as one system-the neuroendocrine system.
Q2) Because most cells secrete prostaglandins,there is usually a fairly high concentration of prostaglandins in the blood.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The "lock-and-key" mechanism allows hormones to bind only with target cells that have receptors that "fit" them exactly.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Prostaglandins are lipid substances derived from cholesterol.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 19: Endocrine Glands
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Sample Questions
Q1) The neurohypophysis serves as a storage and release site for:
A) antidiuretic hormone.
B) oxytocin.
C) prolactin.
D) both A and B.
Q2) The vascular link between the hypothalamus and the adenohypophysis is termed the hepatic portal system.
A)True
B)False
Q3) PTH increases calcium absorption in the intestines by activating vitamin D.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Growth hormone is also called insulin-like growth factor.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The center of the adrenal gland is the cortex.
A)True
B)False
Q6) What are the three regions of the adrenal cortex and what types of hormones are produced by each region?
Page 32
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Chapter 20: Blood
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230 Verified Questions
230 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) basophil
A)105-120 days
B)10-12 days
C)Months
D)Days to years
E)Hours to 3 days
Q2) group of nucleated cells that lack hemoglobin; also called white blood cells
A)Agranulocytes
B)Basophils
C)Eosinophils
D)Granulocytes
E)Leukocytes
F)Lymphocytes
G)Megakaryoblasts
H)Monocytes
I)Neutrophils
J)Platelets
Q3) One of the functions of basophils is to protect the body from parasitic worms.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 21: Anatomy of the Cardiovascular System
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211 Verified Questions
211 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/34167
Sample Questions
Q1) The mitral valve has fewer flaps than the right atrioventricular valve.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Explain the differences between fetal and postnatal circulation.How do these differences make the circulation of the fetus more efficient?
Q3) As a person grows to adulthood,the heart increases in size and becomes a greater percent of the body weight.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Blood in both atria must pass through a semilunar valve to get to the next structure in the heart.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Which chamber of the heart normally has the thickest wall? Why is this thick wall helpful in accomplishing its function?
Q6) Collagen fibers function to keep the lumen of the blood vessel open.
A)True
B)False
Q7) Name,describe,and give the function of the heart coverings.
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Chapter 22: A: Physiology of the Cardiovascular System
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117 Verified Questions
117 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The interarterial bundles divide into right and left bundle branches.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The pulse wave is associated with left ventricular diastole.
A)True
B)False
Q3) During isovolumetric ventricular contraction,the semilunar valves are closed but the AV valves are open.
A)True
B)False
Q4) At rest,most of the body's blood supply resides in the pulmonary loop.
A)True
B)False
Q5) During isovolumetric ventricular relaxation,both the semilunar valves and the AV valves are closed.
A)True
B)False
Q6) In a typical healthy heart,ejection fraction is between 80% and 85%.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 22: B: Physiology of the Cardiovascular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The period between the filling of the ventricles and the opening of the semilunar valves is called:
A) atrial systole.
B) isovolumetric ventricular contraction.
C) isovolumetric ventricular relaxation.
D) passive ventricular filling.
Q2) The period during which blood is pumped out of the atria and into the ventricles is called:
A) atrial systole.
B) isovolumetric ventricular contraction.
C) isovolumetric ventricular relaxation.
D) passive ventricular filling.
Q3) Circulatory shock caused by a drop in the amount of blood in the circulatory system is called _____ shock.
A) cardiogenic
B) hypovolemic
C) anaphylactic
D) septic
Q4) Explain how the Starling law relates to cardiac output.
Q5) What part of the heart should serve as the normal pacemaker?
Page 36
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Chapter 23: Lymphatic System
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196 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) If lymphatic return is blocked:
A) blood protein concentration soon falls below normal.
B) blood osmotic pressure soon falls below normal.
C) fluid imbalance and death will result.
D) all of the above will occur.
Q2) Lymph capillaries called lacteals are located in the:
A) spleen.
B) liver.
C) thymus.
D) small intestine.
Q3) Lymph is derived from blood and tissue fluid.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Lymph ducts empty into the circulatory system,draining into the:
A) jugular vein.
B) subclavian veins.
C) superior vena cava.
D) inferior vena cava.
Q5) Describe the structure of a lymph node,and explain what happens when lymph passes through it.
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Chapter 24: A: Immune System
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117 Verified Questions
117 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Interferon production is stimulated by the presence of double-stranded DNA in a cell.
A)True
B)False
Q2) T cell immune mechanisms are classified as antibody-mediated immunity.
A)True
B)False
Q3) An antigen consists of two heavy and two light polypeptide chains.
A)True
B)False
Q4) T cells react mainly to antigens that are dissolved in plasma.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Most of the pus surrounding an inflammation site consists of dead or damaged tissue cells.
A)True
B)False
Q6) A person's natural killer cells usually kill cells of their own body.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 24: B: Immune System
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102 Verified Questions
102 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most numerous type of phagocyte is the:
A) neutrophil.
B) histocyte.
C) microglia.
D) Kupffer cell.
Q2) Steven had mumps as a child.Why did he not experience symptoms at the age of 41 after he was again exposed to the mumps virus?
A) He had an injection with weakened virus shortly before he was exposed.
B) He had natural passive immunity to ward off the virus.
C) He had artificial passive immunity that he received from his brother after he had the mumps.
D) He developed active immunity as the result of having mumps as a child.
Q3) Name and describe the mechanical and chemical barriers of the nonspecific immune system.
Q4) Steven had mumps as a child.At age 41,he was again exposed to the mumps virus; however,he did not experience any symptoms of the mumps.Explain why.
Q5) Describe the structure of an antibody molecule.
Q6) Why is it difficult to predict the total number of AIDS cases?
Q7) Describe the development and activation of B cells.
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Chapter 25: Stress
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not an alarm reaction response resulting from hypertrophy of the adrenal cortex?
A) Hyperglycemia
B) Decreased digestion
C) Decreased immunity
D) Decreased allergic responses
Q2) Identical psychological stressors generally induce identical physiological responses in different individuals.
A)True
B)False
Q3) An indicator of stress is a drop in lymphocytes and an increase in eosinophils.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH)is released by the _____ in response to stress.
A) adrenal medulla
B) adrenal cortex
C) anterior pituitary
D) hypothalamus
Q5) Differentiate between psychological stress and physiological stress.
Page 40
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Chapter 26: Anatomy of the Respiratory System
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213 Verified Questions
213 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Ciliated cells lining the respiratory tract:
A) help move air into and out of the lungs.
B) trap and phagocytize microorganisms.
C) help move the mucus blanket toward the pharynx.
D) do both B and C.
Q2) consists of the right and left bronchi,which branch off of the trachea
A)Alveoli
B)Primary bronchi
C)Secondary bronchi
D)Tertiary bronchi
E)Trachea
Q3) Which of the following is not a subdivision of the thoracic cavity?
A) Left pleural division
B) Right pleural division
C) Medial pleural division
D) Mediastinum
Q4) The cribriform plate is perforated by many small holes through which branches of the olfactory nerve pass,relaying smell to the brain.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 27: A: Physiology of the Respiratory System
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117 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) To produce the highest possible oxygen concentration in the blood,gas exchange occurs in only one direction at the respiratory membrane-from the lung to the blood.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The PO is higher in the femoral artery than in the femoral vein.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The gas laws are based on the concept of a standard gas whose molecules are so far apart that they rarely collide.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The Bohr effect describes the effect of an increased PCO causing a decreased affinity between hemoglobin and oxygen.
A)True
B)False
Q5) In both inspiration and expiration,air moves down a pressure gradient.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 27: B: Physiology of the Respiratory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not a regulated process associated with the functioning of the respiratory system?
A) Transport of gases
B) Gas exchange in lungs and tissue
C) Control of cell metabolism rate
D) Pulmonary ventilation
Q2) External respiration can be defined as:
A) the exchange of gases between the lung and the blood capillaries in the lung.
B) pulmonary ventilation.
C) the exchange of gases between the blood capillaries and the tissue cells.
D) both A and B.
Q3) Steve used a spirometer to analyze his respiratory capacities.He found the following results:
A. After normal inspiration,a normal expiration was 500 ml.
B. After a normal expiration,he was able to expel an additional 1000 ml.
C. Taking as deep a breath as possible,then forcefully exhaling all the air possible,he yielded an output of 4500 ml.
Based on the outcome of these measurements,what is Steve's inspiratory reserve?
Q4) Explain the diving reflex.
Q5) Briefly describe and diagram the oxygen-hemoglobin dissociation curve.
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Chapter 28: A: Anatomy of the Digestive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) One of the functions of the intrinsic factor of the stomach is to protect vitamin A from damage.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A hiatal hernia is caused by a weakening of the wall of the large intestine.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The liver occupies most of the right hypochondrium.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Glucagon and insulin assist the GI tract in the digestive process.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Both cholecystectomy and ultrasound lithotripsy are methods of eliminating gallstones.
A)True
B)False
Q6) The serosa layer of the alimentary canal is actually the parietal peritoneum.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 28: B: Anatomy of the Digestive System
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116 Verified Questions
116 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A permanent set of teeth normally consists of _____ teeth.
A) 26
B) 30
C) 32
D) 36
Q2) Describe the location,structure,and function of the pancreas.
Q3) Which of the following is not a function of the stomach?
A) It serves as a reservoir for storage of food.
B) It destroys pathogenic bacteria.
C) It begins the absorption of proteins.
D) All of the above are functions of the stomach.
Q4) Which of the following is not made up of nerves running through the walls of the digestive system?
A) Meissner plexus
B) Auerbach plexus
C) Intramural plexus
D) All of the above are nerves running through the walls of the digestive system.
Q5) List the functions of the liver.
Q6) Give the complete definition of digestion.
45
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Chapter 29: A: Physiology of the Digestive System
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128 Verified Questions
128 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Glycogen and sucrose are examples of polysaccharides.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Bicarbonates are useful in the GI tract for neutralizing hydrochloric acid.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The lipase found in saliva is unable to digest much fat because the fat has not been emulsified.
A)True
B)False
Q4) During deglutition,food is denied entry to the larynx by muscle action that causes the epiglottis to block that opening.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The process of emptying the stomach takes about 12 hours after a meal. A)True
B)False
Q6) The main proteases found in gastric juice are pepsin and trypsin.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 29: B: Physiology of the Digestive System
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122 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The final product of carbohydrate digestion is a:
A) disaccharide.
B) monosaccharide.
C) polysaccharide.
D) fatty acid.
Q2) Donna has Crohn disease,which results in inflammation and ulceration of the small intestine.Her physician recommended surgery to help in the management of this autoimmune disease.Could her entire small intestine be removed? Why or why not?
Q3) stimulates secretion of gastric juice rich in pepsin and hydrochloric acid
A)Secretin
B)Cholecystokinin (CCK)
C)Gastrin
D)Gastric inhibitory peptide (GIP)
Q4) The enzyme pepsin begins the digestion of:
A) carbohydrates.
B) protein.
C) fat.
D) nucleic acids.
Q5) Explain the process of fat digestion.
Q6) What happens in the chemical process of hydrolysis?
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Chapter 30: A: Nutrition and Metabolism
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Sample Questions
Q1) A larger individual has the same basal metabolic rate as a small person per square meter of body surface.
A)True
B)False
Q2) To maintain a constant body weight,caloric intake must equal caloric output.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Oxidative phosphorylation refers to the joining of a phosphate group to ADP to form ATP.
A)True
B)False
Q4) One of the roles of pyruvic acid in anaerobic respiration is to convert NADH back to NAD.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The cells add phosphate to glucose so it can pass through the cell membrane more easily.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 30: B: Nutrition and Metabolism
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115 Verified Questions
115 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The process by which proteins are synthesized by the ribosomes in all cells is called protein:
A) catabolism.
B) anabolism.
C) metabolism.
D) transcription.
Q2) Which of the following is true of metabolism?
A) It involves both a physical and a chemical breakdown of foods.
B) It occurs both inside and outside of cells.
C) It involves synthesis and decomposition.
D) Energy is released from the process of anabolism and catabolism.
Q3) The action of phosphatase enzyme is to catalyze the:
A) combination of phosphate with glucose.
B) release of glucose from phosphate.
C) movement of glucose through the cell membrane.
D) formation of ATP.
Q4) The process of splitting glycogen is called:
A) glycogenesis.
B) glycogenolysis.
C) gluconeogenesis.
49
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Chapter 31: A: Urinary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The outer portion of the kidney is referred to as the cortex.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A glomerulus is a group of capillaries located in a Bowman capsule.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The kidneys influence secretion of the hormone aldosterone.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Intense exercise causes temporary proteinuria.This is caused by minor kidney damage from the intense exercise.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The primary cilium of the epithelial cells lining the renal tubules act as mechanoreceptors to regulate the flow of filtrate through the tube.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 31: B: Urinary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the average bladder,what amount of urine would cause a moderately distended sensation and the desire to void?
A) 250 ml
B) 100 ml
C) 600 ml
D) 150 ml
Q2) Assume that the nephron is able to return 150 mg/100 ml of glucose back to the blood.If the blood entering the glomerulus contains 192 mg/100 ml of glucose,what is the glucose concentration of the blood leaving the nephron and the concentration of the urine being formed?
Q3) A portion of the nephron that can lie within the medulla is the:
A) proximal tubule.
B) Bowman capsule.
C) distal tubule.
D) loop of Henle.
Q4) Which of the following is not a part of the glomerular-capsular membrane?
A) Parietal layer of Bowman capsule
B) Visceral layer of Bowman capsule
C) Glomerular endothelium
D) Basement membrane
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Chapter 32: Fluid and Electrolyte Balance
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not considered a "transcellular fluid"?
A) Lymph
B) Cerebrospinal fluid
C) The humors of the eye
D) Joint fluid
Q2) Impulses from the subfornical organ stimulates the release of ADH.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A 70-kg (154-lb)adult has a total body sodium pool of approximately 2800 to 3000 mEq.
A)True
B)False
Q4) When compared chemically,intracellular fluid and plasma are almost identical. A)True
B)False
Q5) A normal saline solution consists of a 9.0% solution of NaCl.
A)True B)False
Q6) Compare the volumes of the body fluid compartments in the infant,the adult male,and the adult female.
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Chapter 33: Acid-Base Balance
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190 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Ketone bodies are associated with cellular metabolism of:
A) fats.
B) carbohydrates.
C) proteins.
D) vitamins.
Q2) In the body,which of the following substances might be used to buffer a strong base such as NaOH?
A) H2CO3
B) KHCO3
C) Proteins
D) None of the above
Q3) An example of a physiological buffer system (with a delayed response time)would be the _____ system.
A) respiratory response
B) protein buffer
C) bicarbonate buffer
D) phosphate buffer
Q4) The control of acid and base levels is considered a homeostatic mechanism.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 34: Male Reproductive System
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213 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The wall of the vas deferens has two layers of muscle.
A)True
B)False
Q2) One type of infertility occurs when a female makes an antibody against her partner's sperm cells.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The perineum is a supporting structure of the male reproductive system.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A negative feedback mechanism exists between the testes and the hypothalamus in the regulation of testosterone.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The left testis is generally located about 1 cm lower in the scrotal sac than the right.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Define the term vasectomy.What does this procedure accomplish?
Q7) What is cryptorchidism? Explain the potential effect of it when not corrected.
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Chapter 35: A: Female Reproductive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The antrum is the shell-like covering surrounding the developing oocyte.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The granulose cells secrete the zona pellucida,which is a clear,gel-like shell that surrounds the oocyte.
A)True
B)False
Q3) An imperforate hymen may prevent the escape of menstrual flow from the body.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The myometrium contracts mildly but frequently after ovulation.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The myometrium is thickest at the cervix and thinnest at the fundus.
A)True
B)False
Q6) The time it takes for a fertilized egg to develop in the uterus is called gestation.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 35: B: Female Reproductive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The region between the vaginal orifice and the anus is called the:
A) mons pubic.
B) labia majora.
C) labia minora.
D) perineum.
Q2) The division of the uterine tube that has an outer margin that resembles a fringe is called the:
A) isthmus.
B) ampulla.
C) infundibulum.
D) oviduct.
Q3) hormone that at the time of ovulation acts on immature follicles and causes them to start developing; the follicles mature in the next menstrual cycle
A)Estrogen
B)FSH
C)GnRH
D)LH
E)Progesterone
Q4) What are the main functions of the uterus?
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Chapter 36: A: Growth and Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) The expulsion of seminal fluid from the male urethra into the female vagina is called insemination.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In a normally developing fetus,maternal blood and fetal blood should never mix.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A change in the organ of Corti,which is common in the elderly,requires bifocal glasses for correction.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A tetrad is a structure that occurs during meiosis I and is a homologous pair of chromosomes that are moved together.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Pregnancy may produce pressure on the bladder,reducing the urine-storing capacity and resulting in frequent urination.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 36: B: Growth and Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) Name the three primary germ layers and name several structures or systems that develop from each.
Q2) The secretion of human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)by the placental tissue peaks about _____ weeks after fertilization.
A) 2 to 3
B) 3 to 4
C) 8 to 9
D) 13 to 14
Q3) The chorion,which develops from the trophoblast,becomes:
A) an important fetal membrane in the placenta.
B) the inner cell mass.
C) the amniotic cavity.
D) the yolk sac.
Q4) Which of the following is not a function of the placenta?
A) Excretory organ
B) Respiratory organ
C) Endocrine organ
D) Barrier to alcohol
Q5) Discuss the major developmental changes that occur during infancy,childhood,adolescence,and adulthood.
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Chapter 37: A: Genetics and Heredity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Only about half of the human population has 23 pairs of chromosomes in their cells.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The sickle-cell gene produces an abnormal protein chain in the hemoglobin molecule.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Oncogenes are altered forms of normal genes.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A genetic carrier is someone who has the gene but does not express the trait.An example would be someone who is heterozygous for a dominant/recessive trait.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Fetal alcohol syndrome can be classified as both a congenital and genetic disorder. A)True
B)False
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Chapter 37: B: Genetics and Heredity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Assume that "A1" is the gene for light hair and that "A2" is the gene for dark hair.Also assume that these genes demonstrate codominance.Then,the heterozygous genotype "A1A2" will exhibit the phenotype of:
A) light hair.
B) dark hair.
C) hair color somewhere between light and dark.
D) red hair, because of the phenomenon of crossing over.
Q2) Which of the following statements is(are)true regarding Tay-Sachs disease?
A) Tay-Sachs disease results in the failure to make an essential lipid-processing enzyme.
B) This disease is most prevalent in Jewish populations.
C) This disease results in severe retardation and death by age 4.
D) All of the above are true regarding Tay-Sachs disease.
Q3) Define the term congenital disorder.Are these disorders always inherited? Explain.
Q4) What is meant when a trait is classified as sex-linked? Give an example of such a trait.
Q5) Describe three possible hypotheses for the genetic basis of cancer.
Q6) Explain how the regulation of enzyme production can regulate cell activity.
Q7) Why must DNA transcription stop during mitosis?
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