Human Biology
Solved Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Human Biology is an interdisciplinary course that explores the structure, function, and processes of the human body at molecular, cellular, and systemic levels. Emphasizing anatomical and physiological principles, the course covers topics such as genetics, cell biology, organ systems, nutrition, immunity, reproduction, and development. Students also examine how human biology relates to health, disease, and modern medical advances, integrating scientific knowledge with current societal and ethical issues. Through lectures, labs, and discussions, this course provides a foundation for understanding human health and the biological basis of life.
Recommended Textbook
Principles of Anatomy Physiology 13th Edition by Gerard J. Tortora
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Chapter 1: An Introduction to the Human Body
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Sample Questions
Q1) The brain is located in the
A)cranial cavity.
B)vertebral cavity.
C)abdominal cavity.
D)pericardial cavity.
E)pleural cavity.
Answer: A
Q2) This directional term is the opposite of deep.
A)superficial
B)superior
C)inferior
D)distal
E)proximal
Answer: A
Q3) List and briefly describe the six basic life processes.
Answer: No Answer
Q4) List the eleven organ systems of the human body.
Answer: No Answer
Q5) List the basic processes of life.
Answer: No Answer
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Chapter 2: The Chemical Level of Organization
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Sample Questions
Q1) What region of an atom contains the protons and neutrons?
A)cloud
B)nucleus
C)element
D)ring
E)shell
Answer: B
Q2) This type of chemical reaction combines reactants to produce larger products.
A)synthesis
B)decomposition
C)potential
D)exchange
E)activated
Answer: A
Q3) Why is the human digestive system unable to digest cellulose?
Answer: No Answer
Q4) Define mixture and then distinguish between the three types of mixtures called solutions,colloids and suspensions.
Answer: No Answer
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Chapter 3: The Cellular Level of Organization
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following transport processes uses vesicles that fuse with the plasma membrane to secrete materials into the extracellular fluid?
A)endocytosis
B)exocytosis
C)facilitated diffusion
D)osmosis
E)Both endocytosis and exocytosis.
Answer: B
Q2) The major function of mitochondria is to
A)move the cell.
B)generate ATP.
C)produce proteins.
D)oxidize organelles.
E)synthesize glycolipids.
Answer: B
Q3) Briefly describe the driving force for the movement of water across plasma membranes.
Answer: No Answer
Q4) Briefly describe alternative splicing.
Answer: No Answer
Page 5
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Chapter 4: The Tissue Level of Organization
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the basic structural unit of compact bone tissue?
A)osteon
B)stroma
C)lamellae
D)chromosome
E)lacunae
Q2) Spongy bone tissue lacks A)lamellae.
B)lacunae.
C)osteocytes.
D)osteons.
E)canaliculi.
Q3) Briefly describe the four parts of an osteon.
Q4) Which of the following types of tissues is made up of small spindle-shaped cells and is commonly found in the walls of hollow organs?
A)skeletal muscle
B)smooth muscle
C)cardiac muscle
D)transitional epithelium
E)areolar tissue
Page 6
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Chapter 5: The Integumentary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) This layer of the epidermis contains layers of flattened keratinocytes that are going through apoptosis.
A)Stratum basale
B)Stratum spinosum
C)Stratum granulosum
D)Stratum lucidum
E)Stratum corneum
Q2) This type of exocrine gland is a simple,branched acinar gland connected to a hair follicle.
A)Sebaceous gland
B)Sudoriferous gland
C)Both sebaceous gland and sudoriferous gland
D)None of these answers are correct
Q3) Albinism is the inherited inability to produce
A)melanin.
B)carotene.
C)both melanin and carotene.
D)keratin.
E)creatinine.
Q4) List and briefly describe the major functions of the skin.
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Chapter 6: The Skeletal System: Bone Tissue
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Sample Questions
Q1) The renewal rate for compact bone tissue is
A)4% per year.
B)15% per year.
C)20% per year.
D)25% per year.
E)extremely difficult to measure.
Q2) Which of the following conditions is characterized by reduced bone mass due to a decreased rate of bone synthesis to a level too low to compensate for normal bone resorption?
A)osteogenic sarcoma
B)osteomyelitis
C)osteophytes
D)osteoarthritis
E)osteopenia
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a major function of the skeletal system?
A)support
B)locomotion
C)hemopoiesis
D)energy storage
E)carcinogenesis
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Chapter 7: The Skeletal System: The Axial Skeleton
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of following facial bones is a single (unpaired)bone in the human skull?
A)maxilla
B)nasal
C)lacrimal
D)mandible
E)zygomatic
Q2) Briefly describe the five categories of bones found in the human body based on the shape of the bones.
Q3) Which following types of bone is the occipital bone?
A)Long bone
B)Short bone
C)Flat bone
D)Irregular bone
E)Sesamoid bone
Q4) Briefly describe the function of the paranasal sinuses.
Q5) List and describe the number of bones found in all the regions of the adult vertebral column.
Q6) Briefly describe the six fontanels of the infant skull including their location,shape and time of closure.
Q7) Briefly discuss the main structural features of the temporal bones.
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Chapter 8: The Skeletal System: The Appendicular Skeleton
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Sample Questions
Q1) In comparison to the male pelvis,the female pelvis is NOT
A)wider.
B)shallower.
C)larger in the pelvic inlet.
D)larger in the pelvic outlet.
E)larger in the acetabulum.
Q2) This depression on the ulna is found lateral and inferior to the trochlear notch.
A)Radial notch
B)Elbow notch
C)Proximal radioulnar joint
D)Ulnar notch
E)Styloid process
Q3) This projection extends superiorly and laterally along the superior ramus of the pubis eventually merging with the arcuate line of the ilium.
A)Pectineal line
B)Ischial tuberosity
C)Anterior gluteal line
D)Inferior gluteal line
E)Greater sciatic notch
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10
Chapter 9: Joints
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following structures is NOT used to reduce friction in joints?
A)Tendon sheaths
B)Synovial fluid
C)Bursae
D)Accessory ligaments
E)All of these reduce friction
Q2) The functional joint classification that a suture joint fits into is
A)synarthrosis.
B)amphiarthrosis.
C)diarthrosis.
D)synovial.
E)cartilaginous.
Q3) Which of the following results from a forceful wrenching or twisting of a joint that tears or stretches its ligaments but does not dislocate the bones?
A)sprain
B)strain
C)subluxation
D)bursitis
E)compression
Q4) List and briefly describe the three common types of arthritis.
Page 11
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Chapter 10: Muscle Tissue
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Sample Questions
Q1) Myofibrils contain
A)contractile proteins.
B)regulatory proteins.
C)structural proteins.
D)all of these answers are correct.
E)none of these answers are correct.
Q2) Which of the following regions of a sarcomere contain thin filaments?
A)I band
B)A band
C)H zone
D)Both I band and A band.
E)All of these answer choices are correct.
Q3) What are the three ways that ATP can be produced in muscle fibers?
Q4) How many arteries and veins usually accompany a single nerve penetrating a skeletal muscle?
A)one artery and one or two veins
B)two arteries and two veins
C)three arteries and two veins
D)one artery and three veins
E)one artery and a varied amount of veins
Page 12
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Chapter 11: The Muscular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following muscles is NOT part of the quadriceps femoris muscle group?
A)rectus femoris
B)biceps femoris
C)vastus medialis
D)vastus lateralis
E)vastus intermedius
Q2) Which of the following pair of muscles have their insertion on the iliotibial tract?
A)gluteus medius,biceps femoris
B)tensor facia latae,biceps femoris
C)vastus lateralis,gluteus maximus
D)tensor facia latae,adductor longus
E)tensor facia latae,gluteus maximus
Q3) All of the following are muscles that move the eyeball EXCEPT
A)superior rectus.
B)lateral rectus.
C)inferior oblique.
D)internal oblique.
E)superior oblique.
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13
Chapter 12: Nervous Tissue
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is NOT a function of the nervous system?
A)Sensory function
B)Integrative function
C)Motor function
D)All are functions of the nervous system
Q2) Plasticity means
A)ability to regenerate after being damaged.
B)sending a signal through a converging circuit.
C)signal transmission at a synapse.
D)ability to change based on experience.
E)ability to stretch and recoil without damage.
Q3) Which of the following types of cells display the property of electrical excitability?
A)Muscle cells
B)Neurons
C)All of these choices
D)None of these choices
Q4) Describe the difference between spatial and temporal summation in a postsynaptic neuron.
Q5) Describe four ways drugs can modify the effects of neurotransmitters.
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Chapter 13: The Spinal Cord and Spinal Nerves
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Sample Questions
Q1) Denticulate ligaments are thickenings of A)arachnoid mater.
B)pia mater.
C)dura mater.
D)interstitial fluid.
E)subdural space.
Q2) This branch of a spinal nerve serves the deep muscles and skin of the posterior surface of the trunk.
A)Meningeal branch
B)Rami communicantes
C)Brachial plexus
D)Posterior ramus
E)Anterior ramus
Q3) Another term for the summing of EPSPs and IPSPs in the gray matter of spinal cord is A)refraction.
B)facilitation.
C)integration.
D)adaptation.
E)tetany.
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Page 15
Chapter 14: The Brain and Cranial Nerves
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cerebrospinal fluid is reabsorbed through these fingerlike projections found in the dural venous sinuses.
A)Choroid plexuses
B)Microvilli
C)Arachnoid villi
D)Dural villi
E)Lemnisci
Q2) The brain and spinal cord develop from the ______ neural tube.
A)mesodermal
B)endodermal
C)ectodermal
D)cranial
E)caudal
Q3) Which of the following structures conducts nerve impulses between the two different hemispheres of the cerebrum?
A)Association tracts
B)Corpus callosum
C)Projection tracts
D)Pyramids
E)Sulci
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Chapter 15: The Autonomic Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following does NOT describe the parasympathetic division of the ANS?
A)Long preganglionic neurons
B)Synapses with smooth muscle in blood vessels walls
C)Vagus nerve output
D)Ganglia found near visceral effectors
E)Sacral spinal cord output
Q2) Catechol-O-methyltransferase is an enzyme that performs which of the following functions in the ANS?
A)Inactivates ACh in a synapse.
B)Activates ACh in a synapse.
C)Inactivates norepinephrine in a synapse.
D)Activates norepinephrine in a synapse.
E)Promotes uptake of norepinephrine back into the synaptic knob.
Q3) The largest autonomic plexus is called the
A)superior mesenteric plexus.
B)renal plexus.
C)cardiac plexus.
D)celiac plexus.
E)hypogastric plexus.
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Page 17
Chapter 16: Sensory, Motor and Integrative Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following does NOT occur during sleep?
A)Sympathetic division of ANS is stimulated.
B)Decreased heart rate.
C)Decreased blood pressure.
D)Skeletal muscle tone decreases.
E)Dream during REM sleep.
Q2) Which of the following regions of the brain compares the intentions of skeletal muscle movements with the actual movement performed and then sends out corrective feedback to upper motor neurons?
A)hypothalamus
B)thalamus
C)basal nuclei
D)cerebellum
E)cerebrum
Q3) Infants spend approximately 50% of their sleeping time in
A)stage one NREM sleep.
B)stage two NREM sleep.
C)stage three NREM sleep.
D)stage four NREM sleep.
E)REM sleep.
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Chapter 17: The Special Senses
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Sample Questions
Q1) This lies between the lens and the retina.
A)Vitreous chamber
B)Anterior chamber
C)Anterior cavity
D)Cornea
E)Aqueous humor
Q2) How many days after fertilization do the eyes begin to develop?
A)5
B)150
C)10
D)22
E)55
Q3) This is the transparent layer on the anterior of the eyeball through which the iris can be observed.
A)Retina
B)Choroid
C)Sclera
D)Ciliary body
E)Cornea
Q4) Explain the process by which smell sensations are sensed and perceived.
Page 19
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Chapter 18: The Endocrine System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following germ layers does the thyroid gland develop from during embryonic development?
A)Mesoderm
B)Endoderm
C)Ectoderm
D)A combination of two of the layers
E)None of the answer selections are correct
Q2) Which of the following is a protein hormone produced by the testes that inhibits secretion of follicle-stimulating hormone by the anterior pituitary gland?
A)chorionic gonadotropin
B)testosterone
C)estradiol
D)inhibin
E)relaxin
Q3) Describe the role of the hypothalamus in the regulation of hormone release from the pituitary gland.
Q4) Compare the metabolic changes that occur during starvation with those that occur in diabetes mellitus.
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Page 20
Chapter 19: The Cardiovascular System: The Blood
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Sample Questions
Q1) Stercobilin,a brown pigment that gives feces its characteristic color,and urobilin,a yellow pigment that gives urine its color,are both breakdown products of which of the following components of blood?
A)heme
B)globin
C)iron
D)ferritin
E)erythropoietin
Q2) Towards the end of erythropoiesis in the bone marrow,a red blood cell loses its nucleus and becomes a
A)proerythroblast.
B)megakaryocyte.
C)progenitor cell.
D)mature erythrocyte.
E)reticulocyte.
Q3) List and briefly describe the three mechanisms used to reduce blood loss from a damaged blood vessel.
Q4) Explain the proposed role of hemoglobin in the regulation of blood flow and blood pressure.
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Chapter 20: The Cardiovascular System: The Heart
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Sample Questions
Q1) This term refers to the period of time during a cardiac cycle when contraction of a chamber occurs and pressure within the chamber rises.
A)filling
B)systole
C)repolarization
D)diastole
E)fibrillation
Q2) The volume of blood ejected from the left ventricle into the aorta each minute is called the
A)cardiac output.
B)cardiac input.
C)stroke volume.
D)heart rate.
E)pulse pressure.
Q3) The membrane that surrounds and protects the heart is called the A)pericardium.
B)pleura.
C)myocardium.
D)mediastinum.
E)endocardium.
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Chapter 21: The Cardiovascular System: Blood Vessels and Hemodynamics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following structures is used to control the flow of blood through a capillary bed?
A)thoroughfare channels
B)precapillary sphincters
C)postcapillary sphincters
D)venules
E)valves in veins
Q2) Which of the following blood vessels carries blood from the tissues back to the heart?
A)arteries
B)arterioles
C)aorta
D)veins
E)capillaries
Q3) What is the main difference between the pulmonary and systemic circulations with respect to their autoregulatory response to changes in blood O2 level?
Q4) What is a portal vein? Describe the hepatic portal circulation.
Q5) Describe the route of an RBC traveling from the heart to the left elbow and back to the heart.
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Chapter 22: The Lymphatic System, Nonspecific Resistance to Disease, and Immunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which type of adaptive immunity will result from mother-to-baby IgA transfer via breast feeding?
A)naturally acquired active immunity
B)naturally acquired passive immunity
C)artificially acquired active immunity
D)artificially acquired passive immunity
E)None of these choices
Q2) Natural passive immunity is associated with which of the following?
A)Vaccination
B)Exposure to a microbe resulting in antibody formation
C)Receiving booster shots
D)Transfer of IgG from mother to fetus
E)Intravenous injection of antibodies
Q3) Which is part of the body's second line of defense?
A)Mucous cells
B)Germ cells
C)B and T Lymphocytes
D)Natural killer cells
E)None of these choices
Q4) Describe how lymphatic capillaries are one-way only vessels.
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Chapter 23: The Digestive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) This hormone functions to counteract the effect of gastric acid in the small intestine.
A)Pepsin
B)Secretin
C)Gastrin
D)Cholecystokinin
E)Amylase
Q2) Brunner's glands
A)Secrete an acidic mucus
B)Secrete an alkaline juice
C)Secrete an alkaline mucus
D)Secrete an acidic juice
Q3) This hormone is stimulated by high levels of dietary fat in the small intestine.
A)Pepsin
B)Secretin
C)Gastrin
D)Cholecystokinin
E)Amylase
Q4) Identify the protein-hydrolyzing enzymes in the digestive tract,and name their sources.Why are these enzymes released in an inactive form?
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Chapter 24: Metabolism
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Q1) Which of the following is a fat-soluble vitamin?
A)Vitamin B
B)Vitamin E
C)Vitamin C
D)Vitamin O
E)None of these choices
Q2) Which vitamins are considered "antioxidant vitamins?" Why is this role so important?
Q3) Provitamins are
A)Building blocks of vitamins
B)Broken down glucose molecules
C)Derivatives of minerals
D)Found only in the blood
E)Not stored in the body
Q4) The higher the relative humidity
A)The higher the rate of radiation
B)The lower the rate of conduction
C)The higher the rate of convection
D)The lower the rate of thermoregulation
E)The lower the rate of evaporation
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Chapter 25: The Urinary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) This transports urine from the kidney to the bladder.
A)Urethra
B)Ureter
C)Descending loop of Henle
D)Renal hilus
E)None of these choices
Q2) Which is not a major function of the kidney?
A)regulation of blood ionic composition
B)regulation of blood cell size
C)regulation of blood volume
D)regulation of blood pressure
E)regulation of blood pH
Q3) This term means the return of substances into the blood stream from the filtrate.
A)reabsorption
B)filtration
C)secretion
D)excretion
E)none of these choices
Q4) Discuss the three main pressures that affect glomerular filtration.
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Chapter 26: The Reproductive Systems
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Q1) Describe the functions of testosterone.
Q2) What is produced by the ovaries?
A)Primary oocytes,insulin and estrogen
B)Secondary oocytes,progesterone and cortisol
C)Tertiary oocytes,insulin and estrogen
D)Secondary oocytes,estrogen and progesterone
E)Primary oocytes,estrogen and testosterone
Q3) This is formed by the union of the duct from the seminal vesicle and the ampulla of the vas deferens.
A)Urethra
B)Spermatic cord
C)Inguinal canal
D)Ejaculatory duct
E)Prostate
Q4) This attaches the ovaries and the uterus to the pelvic wall.
A)Broad ligament
B)Mesovarium
C)Ovarian ligament
D)Suspensory ligament
E)Hilum
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Chapter 27: Development and Inheritance
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Q1) In a heterozygous individual for a certain trait,the dominant allele gives syndactylism.What is the masked,recessive trait in this individual?
A)normal vision
B)brachydactyly
C)normal digits
D)polydactyly
E)straight thumb
Q2) Describe the process and purpose of amniocentesis.
Q3) CVS is taking cells from where?
A)Amnion
B)Chorion
C)Placenta
D)Umbilical cord
E)Uterus
Q4) This is any agent or influence that causes developmental defects in an embryo.
A)Carcinogen
B)Toxin
C)Nicotine
D)Radiation
E)None of these choices
Page 29
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