Course Introduction
Human Biology
Solved Exam Questions
Human Biology provides an in-depth exploration of the structure and function of the human body at the molecular, cellular, and systemic levels. This course covers major biological principles underlying anatomy, physiology, genetics, reproduction, development, and the complex interactions of organ systems. Emphasizing both normal biological processes and common diseases, it fosters an understanding of how lifestyle, environment, and genetics influence human health. The course integrates current research and ethical considerations to help students appreciate the roles of modern biology in medicine, healthcare, and society.
Recommended Textbook
Microbiology The Human Experience Preliminary Edition by John W. Foster
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Microbes Shape Our History
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why does traditional microbial growth media only allow for the growth of 0.1% of all microorganisms in pure culture in the laboratory?
Answer: Traditional microbial growth media contains nutrients that are used to feed humans.While some microorganisms can flourish in these conditions,many are much more diverse and cannot grow on these nutrients or will be outcompeted by those organisms that can.
Q2) Which of the following is NOT an explanation for the centuries it took between Leeuwenhoek observing microorganisms with his microscope and the discovery that microbes are capable of causing disease?
A) Microbes are found everywhere.
B) Bacteria appeared similar to sperm and blood cells under the microscope.
C) Microorganisms are capable of existing through spontaneous generation.
D) Diseases were not a problem in the world until long after the discovery of microorganisms.
Answer: D
Q3) Florence Nightingale used a polar area chart to track the ________ of soldiers during the Crimean War.
Answer: cause of death mortality
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Basic Concepts of Infectious Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) A mosquito can transmit a viral pathogen into humans.The mosquito is an example of a(n)
A) fomite.
B) symptom.
C) vector.
D) endoparasite.
Answer: C
Q2) The typical signs and symptoms of a disease first appear during the ________ phase of an infectious disease.
Answer: invasive
Q3) Which of the following can weaken the host immune response?
A) too little sleep
B) moderate exercise
C) proper nutrition
D) avoiding alcohol and drugs
Answer: A
Q4) A disease that can spread to humans from nonhuman animals is known as a ________ disease.
Answer: zoonotic
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Chapter 3: Observing Microbes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Assume you stain Bacillus with malachite green with heat and then counterstain with safranin.What type of stain would you be performing?
A) a differential and endospore stain
B) a differential and Gram stain
C) a simple and endospore stain
D) a simple and Gram stain
Answer: A
Q2) Resolution is
A) the ability to detect individual cells.
B) using a microscope to be seen.
C) increasing the size of an image.
D) the smallest distance two objects can be separated and still be distinguished.
Answer: D
Q3) Which of the following statements is correct?
A) Safranin is a primary stain.
B) Iodine is a counterstain.
C) Ethanol is a decolorizer.
D) Crystal violet is a mordant.
Answer: C
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Living Chemistry: From Atoms to Cells
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Q1) ________ is the general name for a six-carbon sugar.
Q2) Redox reactions involve the movement of ________ from one molecule or atom to another.
Q3) Bacteria within a phagosome may be destroyed by the fusing of the phagosome with which acidic eukaryotic organelle?
A) endoplasmic reticulum
B) pseudopod
C) lysosome
D) vesicle
Q4) A molecule of ATP undergoes hydrolysis yielding AMP and two molecules of phosphate.Which of the following is true of this reaction?
A) The entropy has decreased.
B) The change in free energy,DG,is positive.
C) The change in free energy,DG,is negative.
D) The reaction is endergonic.
Q5) What does amphipathic mean?
Q6) What is osmosis and why is it important for cells to maintain osmotic balance?
Q7) The molecular formula of the amino acid glycine is C H NO .What is the molecular formula of a glycine pentapeptide?
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Cell Biology of Bacteria and Eukaryotes
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Q1) Which organelle houses a eukaryotic cell's genome?
A) rough endoplasmic reticulum
B) contractile vacuole
C) ribosome
D) nucleus
Q2) Which of the following structures is obligatory for all bacterial cells?
A) nucleoid
B) flagella
C) pili
D) magnetosomes
Q3) The bacterial cell wall is an attractive target for antibiotics because A) bacterial cells cannot develop resistance to antibiotics that target the cell wall.
B) animal cells lack a cell wall.
C) the cell wall is unimportant for bacterial survival.
D) the cell wall is the only structure bacteria require for survival.
Q4) Would pili be more advantageous to bacteria in a rapidly changing or in an unchanging environment? Please explain your answer.
Q5) Compare and contrast the Gram-negative and Gram-positive cell envelopes.
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Chapter 6: Bacterial Growth, Nutrition, and Differentiation
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Q1) Which of the following can be used to directly count bacterial cells without the use of a microscope?
A) viable counts
B) optical density
C) fluorescence-activated cell sorter
D) Petroff-Hauser counting chamber
Q2) What is a batch culture? Describe how it can be used to illustrate the bacterial growth curve.
Q3) Explain metabolically why bacteria grow faster in complex media than in minimal media.
Q4) Which of the following is NOT a toxic by-product of oxygen metabolism?
A) superoxide
B) hydroxide radicals
C) hydrogen peroxide
D) dihydrogen oxide
Q5) Explain what effect the loss of heterotrophs would have on the carbon cycle and the world.
Q6) Direct counting of bacterial cells under the microscope can be accomplished using a ________.
Q7) Explain why extremophiles are not a pathogenic threat to humans.
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Chapter 7: Bacterial Metabolism
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Sample Questions
Q1) In a metabolic reaction involving the conversion of NADH to NAD
A) NADH loses electrons and gains energy.
B) NADH gains electrons and gains energy.
C) NADH loses electrons and loses energy.
D) NADH gains electrons and loses energy.
Q2) Under what environmental conditions might bacteria produce ATP more readily?
A) slightly acidic environment
B) slightly basic environment
C) greatly elevated temperature
D) greatly decreased temperature
Q3) Which of the following is true of nitrogen fixation?
A) It requires ATP but not reducing agents.
B) It requires reducing agents but not ATP.
C) It is an important reaction carried out by organisms in all three domains of life.
D) Only prokaryotes have the metabolic capability to fix nitrogen.
Q4) Yeast ferment hexose sugars into two molecules of ethanol and two molecules of CO .This reaction is used in bread making-the CO causes the dough to rise.Explain why this reaction is so sensitive to temperature,slowing down considerably at lower temperatures.
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Chapter 8: Bacterial Genetics and Biotechnology
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Sample Questions
Q1) What enzyme is used to produce cDNA?
A) DNA polymerase III
B) DNA ligase
C) RNA polymerase
D) reverse transcriptase
Q2) Which of the following is NOT normally found in human cells?
A) cDNA
B) DNA
C) mRNA
D) tRNA
Q3) During Sanger DNA sequencing,in addition to normal dNTPs used in cellular DNA synthesis,small amounts of modified DNA polymerase substrates are added to the reaction.How do these modified monomers differ from the normal dNTPs?
Q4) Why might the insertion or deletion of three base pairs in a gene be less harmful than the insertion or deletion of only one or two base pairs?
Q5) If DNA polymerase misincorporates a base,leading to a mismatch,how do repair enzymes distinguish the parental and daughter DNA strands to specifically fix the daughter strand?
Q6) Proteins that assist the folding of newly formed proteins are known as ________.
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Bacterial Genomes and Evolution
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Q1) How do bacteria protect their own DNA from restriction enzymes?
A) restriction digestion
B) methylation of target sequences
C) generalized recombination
D) site-specific recombination
Q2) What are two reasons why the definition of a species is problematic for bacteria?
Q3) Explain how natural selection quickly leads to antibiotic resistance.
Q4) The ________ gene was used as a molecular clock to reveal the divergence of three domains of life.
Q5) The Enterobacteriaceae family is taxonomically considered a(n)
A) classification.
B) nomenclature.
C) identification.
D) homolog.
Q6) Which is NOT a useful way to identify a microorganism?
A) sequencing its genome
B) phenotypic trait analysis
C) microscopic observation alone
D) phylogenetic analysis
Page 11
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Chapter 10: Bacterial Diversity
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Q1) A 23-year-old man visited a community clinic after receiving notification from the health department that a previous sexual partner was diagnosed with a sexually transmitted disease.Although he does not recall having any ulcers,he currently has a macular rash on his trunk,arms,hands,and feet.He is tested for evidence of
A) Treponema pallidum pallidum.
B) Treponema pallidum pertenue.
C) Chlamydia trachomatis.
D) Neisseria gonorrhoeae.
Q2) The major group of bacteria that causes sexually transmitted infections and the eye disease trachoma and are obligate intracellular pathogens is ________.
Q3) If all cyanobacteria were suddenly removed from our environment,how would you expect the biosphere to be affected?
Q4) Which of the following does NOT accurately describe Pseudomonas aeruginosa?
A) causes opportunist infections in human surgical wounds
B) may form biofilms on pulmonary lining of cystic fibrosis patients
C) commonly grows in soil as a decomposer
D) may infect fleas,which transmit P.aeruginosa to humans
Q5) Cyanobacteria are the only bacteria that produce ________.
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Chapter 11: Eukaryotic Microbes and Invertebrate Infectious Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) Amoeba proteus,a lobed ameba,most likely moves by using A) flagella.
B) cilia.
C) cytoplasmic streaming.
D) needlelike pseudopods.
Q2) Which of the following occurs during gamete formation but NOT during asexual reproduction?
A) replication of all chromosomes
B) paired chromosomes condensing into short rods
C) separation of pairs of homologs
D) formation of nuclear membranes around groups of chromosomes
Q3) Arthropods that attach to the surface of a human or other vertebrate are referred to as ________.
Q4) Describe how the parasites that cause malaria are able to evade an immune response during an infection.
Q5) The ability of fungi to digest lignin is important in the
A) production of bread.
B) production of beer.
C) decomposition of wood.
D) decomposition of animal bodies.
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Chapter 12: Viruses
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT a possible effect of viral replication in the host cell?
A) death of the cell
B) differentiation of the cell
C) debilitation of the cell
D) alteration of the genome of the cell
Q2) Which of the following facts supports the argument that viruses are living?
A) Viruses lack metabolism for energy and biosynthesis.
B) Viruses are capable of being crystallized.
C) Some living pathogenic bacteria contain degenerate genomes and rely significantly on a host.
D) Viruses cannot replicate without a host.
Q3) ________ is an example of a virus that causes major economic losses in the agriculture industry.
A) Tobacco mosaic virus
B) Measles virus
C) HIV
D) Influenza
Q4) Influenza contains a ________ genome.
Q5) Explain why the HIV virion structure contains a tRNA from the host.
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Chapter 13: Sterilization, Disinfection, and Antibiotic Therapy
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Q1) Penicillin targets peptidoglycan synthesis to inhibit ________.
Q2) CASE HISTORY
Titus,a nine-month-old infant,suffered from a series of chronic problems after birth,including respiratory syncytial virus bronchiolitis (infection and inflammation of the bronchioles)and neonatal group B Streptococcal sepsis.(Neonatal sepsis happens soon after birth and is often caused by lancefield group B Streptococcus agalactiae,passed to the newborn from an infected mother. )As a result of his weakened state,Titus was fitted with a gastrostomy feeding tube so that his parents could feed him.Within a week of being sent home,however,Titus was rushed to the Johns Hopkins Hospital with an acute onset of fever,cough,regurgitation from his gastrostomy feeding tube,and dehydration.Physical exam confirmed that the boy had a severe cough resulting in respiratory distress,a rapid heart rate,and moderate dehydration.A nasopharyngeal aspirate (the nasopharynx is the nasal part of the pharynx)was positive for influenza A antigen.Titus was diagnosed with influenza and treated with the antiviral drug oseltamivir.He gradually improved and was discharged four days after admission. What is the mechanism of action for the drug,oseltamivir,used to treat Titus's influenza infection? Why would antibiotics such as 50S ribosomal inhibitors have had no effect on this viral infection?
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15
Chapter 14: Normal Human Microbiota: a Delicate Balance of Power
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following changes in human behavior has NOT altered the composition of the microbiota?
A) decreased antibiotic usage
B) increased cesarean deliveries
C) living in smaller families
D) use of antibacterial soaps
Q2) The blood-brain barrier is comprised of ________ between the endothelial cells of capillaries feeding the brain.
Q3) Which of the following would NOT be a good organism choice for a vaccine delivery system?
A) Streptococcus salivarius
B) Lactobacillus acidophilus
C) Staphylococcus epidermidis
D) Staphylococcus aureus
Q4) Which of the following is NOT an accurate description for epithelial cells?
A) interconnected
B) symmetrical
C) held together by tight junctions
D) glycoprotein-covered
Q5) ________ are organisms that cause disease in an immunocompromised host only. Page 16
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Page 17
Chapter 15: The Immune System: Inflammation and Innate Immunity
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Q1) There are two general types of interferons,type I and type II.Describe how type I interferons work to prevent the host from infection.
Q2) Substances that cause fever are known as ________.
Q3) Once the inflammatory process is complete,neutrophils undergo A) phagocytosis.
B) oxidative burst.
C) apoptosis.
D) opsonization.
Q4) Bacterial cells may be phagocytized and processed for presentation by A) erythrocytes.
B) macrophages.
C) T cells.
D) mast cells.
Q5) A consequence of chronic inflammation for the host is the formation of a A) boil.
B) granuloma.
C) abscess.
D) cyst.
18
Q6) Movement of neutrophils out of blood vessels and into infected tissue is called
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Page 19
Chapter 16: The Immune System: Adaptive Immunity
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Q1) CASE HISTORY
Luke,a 24-year-old mechanic from Egypt Beach,Massachusetts,was feeling run-down.Over the past month he had not been eating much and was always tired,and he recently noticed pain just under his right rib cage.His urine had recently turned the color of tea,and his wife noticed that the whites of his eyes were taking on a yellowish tinge.Luke finally went to the doctor,who suspected Luke had cirrhosis,a liver disease.This preliminary diagnosis was based on Luke's symptoms.Luke's abdominal pain was located over the liver,and the color of his urine and the jaundice evident in his eyes all pointed toward liver disease.Luke did not drink alcohol and had never left the country,but when questioned,Luke admitted to taking intravenous drugs.The doctor suspected hepatitis and ordered a series of blood tests to check for the presence of liver enzymes,antihepatitis antibodies,and hepatitis DNA or RNA in his blood.The tests revealed a high level of hepatitis B viral DNA.Luke had hepatitis B disease. How can cellular immunity,which normally protects the body against known viral and other intracellular pathogens,be harmful to Luke,given his diagnosis? Consider how T cells recognize and respond to cells displaying foreign antigen.
Q2) Why is it important for T cells to weakly recognize self MHC proteins while strong recognition is problematic?
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Chapter 17: Immune Disorders, Tools, and Vaccines
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Q1) Which of the following does NOT use fluorescent-labeled antibodies?
A) agglutination
B) western blot
C) immunofluorescence microscopy
D) flow cytometry
Q2) Which of the following is a symptom of systemic anaphylaxis?
A) sneezing
B) watery,itchy eyes
C) rhinitis
D) edema
Q3) Patients with primary immunodeficiencies and who are immunosuppressed are prone to developing cancers.Which is the most commonly developed cancer for these patients?
A) Epstein-Barr
B) B-cell lymphomas
C) myelomas
D) mononucleosis
Q4) Patients with ________ have normal or elevated serum IgM levels but low levels of other antibodies.
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Chapter 18: Microbial Pathogenesis
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Q1) Antigenic drift occurs when
A) two viruses infect the same cell.
B) a new viral strain is produced.
C) random mutations occur in the neuraminidase spike.
D) random mutations occur in the hemagglutinin spike.
Q2) Alpha toxin secreted by Staphylococcus aureus is a A) hyaluronidase.
B) leucocidin.
C) kinase.
D) hemolysin.
Q3) Most pathogenicity island genes were acquired by ________ transmission.
Q4) Genomic islands have all of the following features EXCEPT
A) they are flanked by phage or plasmid genes.
B) the ratio of GC/AT nucleases.
C) they do not need toxins or secretion systems.
D) they encode clusters of genes that contribute to the fitness of the organism.
Q5) Draw and label an AB toxin.List two diseases that are caused by AB toxins.
Q6) Organisms that can survive inside or outside host cells are called ________ pathogens.
Page 22
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Chapter 19: Infections of the Skin and Eye
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Q1) Which of the following is used to treat shingles?
A) penicillin
B) sulfonamide
C) acyclovir
D) fungicide
Q2) Measles is similar to German measles (rubella)in the fact that
A) they have a similar type of rash.
B) they are caused by the same virus.
C) encephalitis is a possible complication.
D) they can be controlled by vaccination.
Q3) Koplik spots are a diagnostic indicator of
A) chickenpox.
B) smallpox.
C) measles.
D) rubella.
Q4) Sterile maggot therapy is often used to treat which condition?
A) diabetic wounds
B) acne
C) conjunctivitis
D) keratitis
Page 23
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Chapter 20: Infections of the Respiratory Tract
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Q1) A day-care worker reports that two young children have been coughing all day.She first noticed that both children had runny noses a few days ago,but is not sure if they had fevers.She states that they both sound like barking seals.Most likely these children have
A) the common cold.
B) croup.
C) influenza.
D) respiratory syncytial disease.
Q2) The differential diagnosis for a patient presenting with a fever and productive cough with bloody sputum would likely include
A) tuberculosis and legionellosis.
B) walking pneumonia and Pseudomonas pneumonia.
C) inhalation anthrax and diphtheria.
D) whooping cough and tuberculosis.
Q3) Viruses that cause the common cold may also spread to the sinuses to cause ________.
Q4) The two bacterial diseases of the respiratory system that are prevented by the DTaP vaccine are ________.
Q5) Moraxella catarrhalis may cause bacterial ________.
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Chapter 21: Systemic Infections
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Q1) Which of the following procedures would most directly limit transmission of arboviruses such as dengue viruses?
A) eliminate mosquitoes
B) prevent contact with infected saliva
C) prevent contact with infected fecal matter
D) eliminate rodents
Q2) What role does stomach acidity play in a toxoplasmosis infection?
A) It converts bradyzoites into cyst forms for release from the body.
B) It causes the release of spores within the definitive host.
C) It allows the release of spores within the intermediate host.
D) It allows gametes to form from spores within the intermediate host.
Q3) The blood vessels returning oxygenated blood to the heart are the ________.
Q4) Drugs used to treat the major systemic bacterial diseases fall into the category of ________.
Q5) When Yersinia pestis remains untreated in a human body,it can enter the bloodstream and ultimately invade the
A) liver.
B) kidneys.
C) spleen.
D) lungs.
Page 25
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Chapter 22: Infections of the Digestive System
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Q1) Why would a nondeadly intestinal pathogen most likely want to cause diarrhea?
A) to leave before the host is irreparably harmed
B) to leave before the host immune system becomes activated and begins attacking the pathogen
C) to escape to a different organ system
D) to flush out the competition
Q2) People infected with ________ are treated with proton pump inhibitors and a high dose of antibiotics.
Q3) When does dental caries become painful?
A) when the biofilm forms on the tooth
B) when the enamel breaks down
C) when the decay penetrates the nerve
D) Dental caries is never painful.
Q4) Which of the following is NOT a natural defense of the oral cavity?
A) acidic conditions
B) lysozyme
C) IgA
D) digestive mucus
Q5) Describe the life cycle of the tapeworm.
Q6) ________ results when intestinal mucosal cells increase ion secretion.
Page 26
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Chapter 23: Infections of the Urinary and Reproductive
Tracts
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Q1) Which of the following diseases causes a skin rash,hair loss,malaise,and fever?
A) gonorrhea
B) syphilis
C) NGU
D) genital herpes
Q2) Which of the following is caused by an opportunistic pathogen?
A) genital herpes
B) gonorrhea
C) candidiasis
D) chancroid
Q3) A patient presents with fever and extensive lesions of the labia minora.Her VDRL test was negative.What is the most likely treatment?
A) metronidazole
B) acyclovir
C) cephalosporins
D) No treatment is available.
Q4) There are two types of urinary tract infections: bladder infections,or ________,and kidney infections,or ________.
Q5) Highly active antiretroviral therapy,or HAART,is used to treat ________.
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Chapter 24: Infections of the Central Nervous System
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Q1) What is the correct order of the meninges from most outer to inner structures?
A) pia mater,dura mater,arachnoid
B) pia mater,arachnoid,dura mater
C) dura mater,arachnoid,pia mater
D) dura mater,pia mater,arachnoid
Q2) Vaccination is available for all the following EXCEPT
A) Neisseria meningitis.
B) tetanus.
C) rabies.
D) botulism.
Q3) Initial treatment for tetanus in an unimmunized person with a puncture wound is A) tetanus immune globulin.
B) tetanus toxoid.
C) penicillin.
D) debridement.
Q4) Which of the following statements about prions is correct?
A) Prions are small particles that contain DNA.
B) Chemical agents easily destroy prions.
C) Acanthamoeba encephalitis is caused by prions.
D) Prions can be passed by patient-to-patient contact.
Page 28
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Chapter 25: Diagnostic Clinical Microbiology
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Q1) Twenty-five individuals with shigellosis are reported within a community.Which of the following pieces of information would be most useful to public health officials who are trying to stop the spread of this infection?
A) whether all individuals are infected with the same strain of bacteria
B) the antibiotic sensitivity of the causative agents
C) the complete health history of infected individuals
D) the day care centers attended by any children of infected individuals
Q2) Identification of the antigenic type(s)of Streptococcus pneumoniae in two patients with pneumonia is useful in
A) determining the appropriate antibiotic treatment.
B) determining whether the patients are producing antibodies.
C) identifying the source of the bacterium.
D) identifying whether the bacterium will grow easily in a laboratory.
Q3) Ten patients are diagnosed with shigellosis.Explain the importance of having a clinical laboratory identify the strains of Shigella in each patient.
Q4) A patient suspected of having septicemia is having blood samples drawn from both of her arms.Why is it important to draw blood samples from two different sites?
Q5) Body sites that contain no microorganisms are considered to be ________.
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Chapter 26: Epidemiology: Tracking Infectious Diseases
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Q1) Which of the following would indicate efforts to control a disease are working?
A) The disease becomes endemic.
B) The disease prevalence increases.
C) The disease incidence decreases.
D) Outbreaks of the disease only occur every other year.
Q2) Which of the following is likely to occur as a result of climate change?
A) Insect vectors will migrate from tropical regions to once-temperate regions.
B) Gastrointestinal infections will decrease in tropical regions.
C) Microbes currently found in temperate regions will move to tropical regions.
D) Extreme weather will decrease and diseases will become less seasonal.
Q3) Which of the following agencies would be the first to receive information about a reportable disease in the United States?
A) the WHO
B) the CDC
C) a state health agency
D) the FDA
Q4) An infectious agent with a high mortality rate that is highly contagious and lacks a vaccine and effective treatment is known as a ______.
Q5) A disease transmitted from animals to humans is called a _______ disease.
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Chapter 27: Environmental and Food Microbiology
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62 Verified Questions
62 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/46385
Sample Questions
Q1) Photosynthesis in microbes converts carbon dioxide into A) biomass.
B) carbonate rock.
C) ethanol.
D) nitrosamine.
Q2) Historically,N only entered the atmosphere as a result of nitrogen fixation by bacteria and archaea.How has human technology affected nitrogen cycling?
A) Humans genetically modified plants to allow them to fix nitrogen.
B) Humans developed a method for artificially fixing nitrogen to generate fertilizers.
C) Humans use nitrogen as a source of renewable energy.
D) Human technology has had no effect on nitrogen cycling.
Q3) One benefit of food fermentation is the generation of vitamin
A) A.
B) C.
C) B .
D) D.
Q4) Describe the carbon reservoir that cycles the most carbon through living bodies on Earth.
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