Human Biology Question Bank
Course Introduction
Human Biology explores the structure and function of the human body, examining its systems, cells, organs, and tissues. The course investigates biological processes essential for life, including metabolism, genetics, reproduction, and homeostasis.
Students learn how human physiology interacts with environmental factors, and how lifestyle choices and diseases influence health and well-being. Through integrated lectures and laboratory experiences, the course equips students with a foundation in biology as it relates to the complexities of human life, development, and health across the lifespan.
Recommended Textbook
Essentials of The Living World 4th Edition by George B Johnson
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33 Chapters
1593 Verified Questions
1593 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: The Science of Biology
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Sample Questions
Q1) A discrete unit of genetic information is called a ___________.
Answer: gene
Q2) After scientists observed that an ozone hole was developing over Antarctica,they measured levels of chemicals in the upper atmosphere.They found a surprising concentration of ozone-destroying A) chlorofluorocarbons.
B) helium.
C) super nitric oxide. D) mercury.
Answer: A
Q3) In a control experiment,the variable of interest is not ____________. A) maintained B) observed C) altered D) predicted
Answer: C
Q4) The final step in the scientific process is the development of a ___________________.
Answer: conclusion
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Chapter 2: The Chemistry of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) Nonpolar molecules are said to be _________________ because they shrink away from water.
Answer: hydrophobic
Q2) Cells contain chemical substances called ____________ that minimize changes in concentrations of H<sup>+</sup> and OH<sup>-</sup>.
Answer: buffers
Q3) The mass number of an atom is the
A) number of neutrons only.
B) the number of electrons plus the number of protons.
C) the number of protons only.
D) the number of protons plus the number of neutrons.
E) the number of electrons,plus the number of neutrons,plus the number of protons.
Answer: D
Q4) The number of protons in the nucleus of an atom is called the
Answer: atomic number
Q5) Due to hydrogen bonding,ice is _______ dense than water.
Answer: less
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Chapter 3: Molecules of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) The bases of the two DNA chains are linked in the middle of the molecule by _________ bonds.
A) covalent
B) ionic
C) hydrogen
D) There are no bonds connecting the chains.
Answer: C
Q2) Hydrogen bonds between different parts of the polypeptide chain result in which level of protein structure?
A) Primary
B) Secondary
C) Tertiary
D) Quaternary
Answer: B
Q3) The final three-dimensional shape of a protein is its ____________ structure.
A) Primary
B) Secondary
C) Tertiary
D) Quaternary
Answer: C
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Chapter 4: Cells
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Sample Questions
Q1) The surface of a nucleus is bounded by a special kind of membrane called the
Q2) Select the membrane molecule that is made up of a polar region with two nonpolar fatty acid tails.
A) Phospholipids
B) Cell surface proteins
C) Transmembrane proteins
D) Carbohydrate chains
Q3) The passive movement of molecules along a concentration gradient is called ____________________.
Q4) In the sodium-potassium pump,sugars and amino acids,or other molecules,are brought through the membrane along with sodium ions through A) coupled channels.
B) chemiosmosis.
C) proton pumps.
D) receptor proteins.
Q5) Why are most cells so tiny?
Q6) ____________ is the minimum distance two points can be apart and still be distinguished as two separate points.
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Chapter 5: Energy and Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) Explain how enzymes are regulated by feedback inhibition.
Q2) The process of converting the energy from food molecules into energy of ATP is
A) cellular respiration.
B) catalysis.
C) thermodynamics.
D) photosynthesis.
Q3) Distinguish between reactants,substrates,and products.
Q4) A ball sitting on a table top has __________ energy because of its position.
Q5) The making and breaking of chemical bonds are called
A) entropy reactions.
B) chemical reactions.
C) thermodynamic reactions.
D) catalysis reactions.
E) activation energy reactions.
Q6) Which of the following factors do NOT influence the action of enzymes?
A) Temperature of the cytoplasm
B) The amount of reactant in the cell
C) pH of the cytoplasm
D) Relative humidity
E) Presence of a repressor
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Photosynthesis: Acquiring Energy From the Sun
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Sample Questions
Q1) The overall purpose of the Calvin cycle is to
A) generate molecules of ATP.
B) generate NADP.
C) give off oxygen for animal use.
D) build organic molecules.
Q2) Chlorophylls are important to many plants because these pigments are able to
A) remove carbon dioxide from the air.
B) absorb water so that hydrolysis can be carried out in the chloroplasts.
C) absorb red and blue wavelengths of light very efficiently.
D) capture UV radiation that is harmful to the DNA in the nucleus of plant cells.
E) store electrons for use during the "dark" reaction of photosynthesis.
Q3) _____________,which is generated by the light-dependent reactions,provides a source of hydrogens and the energetic electrons needed to bind them to carbon atoms in the Calvin cycle.
Q4) A photosystem transfers the excitation energy gathered by its pigment molecules to a specific chlorophyll at the reaction center.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What is photorespiration and under what conditions does it occur?
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Chapter 7: How Cells Harvest Energy From Food
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Sample Questions
Q1) When a high-energy phosphate group is transferred from a substrate to ADP it is called _____________.
Q2) During fermentation,_______ is recycled when hydrogens and electrons from NADH are donated to organic molecules in the absence of oxygen.
Q3) Explain which process evolved first-glycolysis or the Krebs cycle.
Q4) During the second stage of cellular respiration,the ______________ takes place in the mitochondria and generates NADH and FADH<sub>2</sub>.
Q5) Which is true about glycolysis?
A) More ATP is required than is produced.
B) ATP is required.
C) No ATP is required.
D) ATP is not produced.
Q6) Most of the carbon dioxide that is made during aerobic respiration is from A) glycolysis.
B) the Krebs cycle.
C) the electron transport chain.
D) the Calvin cycle.
E) chemiosmosis.
Q7) _________ is an electron carrier similar to NADH.
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Mitosis
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Sample Questions
Q1) During metaphase
A) chromosomes condense.
B) chromatids separate.
C) the nuclear membrane reforms.
D) the nucleolus reappears.
E) chromosomes line up on the equatorial plane.
Q2) Mitosis occurs in germ line cells.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Pairs of chromosomes that have the same size,shape,and function are
Q4) What features of chromosomes allow scientists to pair together the ones that are homologous in a karyotype? That is,how are the members of a homologous pair of chromosomes structurally similar to each other?
Q5) All of the following are correct about cancer except
A) malignant tumors are invasive.
B) malignant tumors can produce metastases.
C) cancer cells can sometimes spread into the bloodstream.
D) an oncogene is a cancer cell.
E) cancers are the direct result of mutations in growth-regulating genes.
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Meiosis
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Sample Questions
Q1) When does separation of homologous chromosomes occur?
A) Prophase I
B) Anaphase I
C) Interphase
D) Anaphase II
Q2) In almost all animals,the multicellular stage of the life cycle is diploid.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What are three key differences between meiosis and mitosis?
Q4) Many protists are ____________ for most of their lives.
A) diploid
B) germ-line
C) haploid
D) cross overs
Q5) The process of independent assortment refers to
A) the random meeting of an egg and sperm.
B) the orientation of homologous chromosomes at metaphase I.
C) the orientation of chromosomes at metaphase II.
D) the random choice of which cell in germ-line tissue will begin meiosis.
E) whether sexual or asexual reproduction will occur.
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Chapter 10: Foundations of Genetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the human ABO blood grouping,there are four basic blood types,type A,type B,type AB,and type O.The blood proteins A and B are
A) simple dominant and recessive traits. B) codominant.
C) incompletely dominant.
D) sex-linked traits.
Q2) Mendel tested for heterozygotes by using a A) dihybrid cross.
B) testcross.
C) monohybrid cross.
D) true-breeding cross.
Q3) When homologous chromosomes or chromatids fail to separate properly in meiosis,this is called _________________.
Q4) Tall is dominant to dwarf in pea plants.If two dwarf pea plants were crossed,their offspring will be A) all tall plants.
B) all dwarf plants.
C) half tall,half dwarf plants.
D) plants of an intermediate height.
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Chapter 11: DNA: The Genetic Material
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Sample Questions
Q1) If an error is made during DNA replication,mechanisms of DNA repair always correct the mistakes.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which is incorrect about the bases in nucleic acids?
A) The large bases are the purines.
B) Purines always pair with pyrimidines.
C) A = T and G = C
D) Hydrogen bonds form between base pairs.
E) The purines are thymine and cytosine.
Q3) A change in the genetic message is called a ____________.
Q4) The enzyme that joins the ends of newly synthesized segments of DNA after the primers have been removed is
A) DNA ligase.
B) DNA polymerase.
C) helicase.
D) primase.
E) RNA ligase.
Q5) The place where the parent DNA molecule becomes unzipped for replication is called the ___________________.
13
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Chapter 12: How Genes Work
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which site on the ribosome does the new tRNA bring an amino acid to?
A) A
B) P
C) E
D) C
Q2) The use of DNA information to direct the production of particular proteins is called A) transcription.
B) translation.
C) gene expression.
D) replication.
E) polymerization.
Q3) If an mRNA codon reads UAC,its complementary anticodon will be A) AUG.
B) CAG.
C) ATG.
D) TUC.
Q4) The relationship between mRNA codons and amino acids is called the _______________.
Q5) A mature mRNA transcript has had its ____________ removed during processing.
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Chapter 13: The New Biology
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Sample Questions
Q1) The enzyme used to make a DNA copy complementary to processed mRNA is:
A) transcriptase
B) reverse transcriptase
C) RNA polymerase
D) DNA polymerase
Q2) The percentage of the human genome made up of structural DNA is _________.
Q3) Restriction enzymes cut DNA at specific short sequences that are
A) CGG repeats.
B) rich in A-T pairs.
C) symmetrical.
D) methylated.
Q4) Explain what has to happen to embryonic stem cells from a donor before they are used in a patient as a therapy.
Q5) Do you feel there is any harm in eating genetically modified crops?
Q6) One disease in which gene therapy was used,but not successfully yet is A) the common cold.
B) cystic fibrosis.
C) tuberculosis.
D) anthrax.
Q7) Explain how gene reprogramming,or epigenetics,works.
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Chapter 14: Evolution and Natural Selection
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Sample Questions
Q1) The bones of vertebrate forelimbs are similar because of descent from the same body part in a common ancestor.These forelimbs can be called __________________ structures.
Q2) In 1859,naturalist ______________ suggested an explanation for why evolution occurs.
A) Robert McKormick
B) Charles Darwin
C) Charles Lyell
D) Thomas Malthus
E) Peter Grant
Q3) The notion that organisms that are more distantly related should have time to accumulate more biochemical differences than those more closely related can best be illustrated using
A) radioactive isotope dating.
B) gel electrophoresis.
C) the geologic time scale.
D) a molecular clock.
Q4) Give two examples of nonrandom mating.
Q5) Selection that favors one extreme of the array of phenotypes is called _____________ selection.
16
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Chapter 15: Exploring Biological Diversity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Mitochondria are descendents of __________ and chloroplasts are descendents of _________.
A) purple bacteria;cyanobacteria
B) methanogens;protists
C) cyanobacteria;fungi
D) orange bacteria;purple bacteria
Q2) The kingdom often referred to as an artificial group because many of its organisms are distantly related is
A) Bacteria.
B) Archaea.
C) Fungi.
D) Protista.
E) Animalia.
Q3) Which of these groups does not fit well into the biological species concept?
A) Animals
B) Humans
C) Protists
D) All of these are correct.
Q4) Mitochondria and chloroplasts are eukaryotic organelles that appear to have arisen by a process called ____________.
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Chapter 16: Evolution of Microbial Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) Amoebas move by
A) cilia.
B) flagella.
C) pseudopodia.
D) gliding mechanisms.
E) all of these.
Q2) Viruses that originate in one organism,pass to another organism,and cause a disease in the new host are called ____________ viruses.
Q3) The septa in hyphae
A) rarely form a complete barrier.
B) are commonly found in plants and animals as well as fungi.
C) are only found in the Zygomycota.
D) prevent cytoplasm from flowing.
Q4) A mass of fungal hyphae is called a A) septum.
B) mycelium.
C) gametophyte.
D) sporophyte.
Q5) A fungal __________ is light enough to be carried for miles in the wind,dispersing the fungus to new areas.
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Chapter 17: Evolution of Plants
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Sample Questions
Q1) Flowers evolved brighter colors,nectar,and fragrances to A) confuse predators.
B) attract mates.
C) promote seed dispersal.
D) attract pollinators.
Q2) In order to disperse water throughout themselves more effectively,plants evolved A) pores.
B) vascular tissues.
C) circulatory systems.
D) stomata.
Q3) When spores are released from the underside of the fern frond,they fall to the ground where they germinate,growing into
A) haploid gametophytes.
B) diploid sporophytes.
C) haploid sporophytes.
D) diploid gametophytes.
Q4) Alternation of __________________ occurs when a gametophyte alternates with a sporophyte.
Q5) In some seeds,the _____________ is stored as food in the cotyledons.
Q6) Flower parts are connected to a base called a _____________________ .
Page 19
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Chapter 18: Evolution of Animals
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which species of human survived longer than any other species of human?
A) Homo erectus
B) Homo sapiens
C) Homo habilis
D) Neanderthals
Q2) What is the likely explanation for the extinction of dinosaurs?
A) The earth was suddenly flooded with water.
B) Lightning storms started massive fires.
C) A meteor struck the earth sending clouds of soot that blocked the sunlight.
D) There was a severe drought.
Q3) Sand dollars,sea stars,sea cucumbers,and sea urchins all belong to the phylum
A) Cnidaria.
B) Nematoda.
C) Mollusca.
D) Echinodermata.
E) Arthropoda.
Q4) Why would you expect that placental mammals have outcompeted monotremes and marsupials,the other two groups of mammals?
Q5) Homo erectus was a very successful species.Describe the traits of this human ancestor.
Page 20
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Chapter 19: Populations and Communities
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Sample Questions
Q1) What types of density-dependent effects could we see in human populations as conditions become crowded due to overpopulation?
Q2) The long-term,mutual evolutionary adjustment of two or more species to each other is called _________________.
Q3) An experiment that was conducted by Gause in the 1930s with Paramecium clearly demonstrated
A) exploitative competition.
B) interference competition.
C) competitive exclusion.
D) fundamental competition.
Q4) Describe methods plants use to deter their herbivores.
Q5) Which organism is more likely to go extinct-one with a specialized,narrow niche or one with a broad,generalized niche? Explain your answer.
Q6) ______________ occurs when one organism comes to resemble another organism.
Q7) When a lion competes with a zebra for water it is an example of interspecific competition.
A)True
B)False
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Q8) The role an organism plays within its ecosystem is called its _______________.
Chapter 20: Ecosystems
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Sample Questions
Q1) A ___________ is a type of major land ecosystem determined mostly by the features of the climate in the area.Many are actually named for the dominant plants or lack of.
A) biome
B) community
C) biosphere
D) land formation
Q2) A type of ecosystem characterized by luminescent creatures eating debris can be found
A) in estuaries.
B) at the open ocean surface.
C) in shallow waters overlying the continental shelves.
D) in the deep sea waters,below the level of light penetration.
Q3) Plants are the ____________ in the food chain in an ecosystem.
Q4) Which of the following is NOT a component of the physical habitat in which organisms live?
A) Rocks
B) Water
C) Wind
D) Bacteria
Page 22
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Chapter 21: Behavior and the Environment
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Sample Questions
Q1) Give an example for each of the following types of communication within social groups.Alarm calls;Trail pheromones;Dance language.
Q2) As an animal matures,it may form preferences or social attachments to other individuals.This is referred to as ________.
Q3) A scout honeybee communicates information about a food source to its hive mates using a ____________ dance.
Q4) A type of selection that favors altruism directed towards relatives is called A) kin selection.
B) sexual selection.
C) group selection.
D) mate selection.
Q5) A goose attempts to retrieve an egg that is removed from the nest.This is an example of A) a sign stimulus.
B) imprinting.
C) a fixed action pattern.
D) kin selection.
Q6) List three examples and give details explaining each regarding animal cognition.
Q7) _____________ can be thought of as NOT responding to a stimulus.
Page 23
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Chapter 22: How Human Influence the Living World
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Q1) The amount of productive land required to support an individual at the standard of living of a particular population is called an ecological ______________.
Q2) Which element is related to the formation of acid rain?
A) Sulfur
B) Carbon
C) Nitrogen
D) Potassium
Q3) Currently,the human population is growing rapidly due to high birth rate.
A)True
B)False
Q4) How does DDT endanger bird species?
A) Causes sterilization of females.
B) Causes fatal damage to the liver.
C) Destroys required nesting habitats.
D) Causes production of thin,fragile eggs.
Q5) The chemical shield that protects the Earth's surface from ultraviolet radiation is
Q6) An increase in the rate of extinction is the heart of the ____________ crisis.
Q7) How might the aesthetic value of biodiversity relate to economic value?
Page 24
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Chapter 23: The Animal Body and How It Moves
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Sample Questions
Q1) Another name for red blood cells is ____________________.
Q2) Which of the following is mismatched?
A) hydraulic skeleton - earthworm
B) endoskeleton - echinoderms
C) exoskeleton - vertebrates
D) hydraulic skeleton - jellyfish
E) exoskeleton - crustaceans
Q3) The organ system of the human body that removes metabolic wastes from the bloodstream is the _______________ system.
A) digestive
B) urinary
C) lymphatic
D) respiratory
Q4) In humans,their are ____________ bones in the axial skeleton,which includes the skull,the spine,and the rib cage.
A) 206
B) 126
C) 100
D) 80
E) 66
25
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Chapter 24: Circulation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Megakaryocytes
A) are important in the immune response.
B) produce fibrin for blood clotting.
C) give rise to platelets.
D) carry carbon dioxide in the blood.
Q2) _________________ are blood vessels that move blood away from the heart.
Q3) How do veins prevent the backflow of blood within them?
A) By having thick,muscular walls
B) Because of the tiny lumen inside them
C) They are capable of contracting
D) They possess flaplike valves
Q4) In which order would a drop of blood in the superior vena cava encounter the four chambers of the heart and the four heart valves?
Q5) The fraction of the total volume of the blood that is occupied by red blood cells is called the blood's hematocrit.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Explain the protective functions of the vertebrate circulatory system.
Q7) _________________ are tiny blood vessels leading away from capillaries to veins.
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Chapter 25: Respiration
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Q1) Which of the following is incorrect about gills?
A) In fish,the gills are protected by an operculum.
B) Fish pump water over the gills.
C) In echinoderms,the gill is a thin sheet of tissue that waves through the water.
D) Terrestrial arthropods also have gills.
Q2) Which of the following is incorrect concerning hemoglobin?
A) Hemoglobin is made of amino acids.
B) Hemoglobin is made inside red blood cells.
C) Hemoglobin never leaves red blood cells.
D) Hemoglobin can bind to carbon dioxide.
E) Hemoglobin is composed of 3 protein chain subunits.
Q3) In terrestrial arthropods,gases are exchanged
A) within gills.
B) within tracheae.
C) within lungs.
D) across the skin.
Q4) Lungs are a more efficient method of respiration than gills.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 26: The Path of Food Through the Animal Body
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Q1) Explain why birds do not need teeth to "chew."
Q2) The first site of starch breakdown in the digestive system is A) in the small intestines.
B) in the stomach.
C) the mouth.
D) the esophagus.
Q3) Blood leaving the stomach and intestine goes directly to the ________.
A) heart
B) kidneys
C) liver
D) gallbladder
E) pancreas
Q4) The pancreatic hormones regulate levels of ______ in the blood.
A) oxygen
B) insulin
C) glucose
D) glycogen
Q5) Cnidarians digest their food intracellularly.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 27: Maintaining the Internal Environment
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Q1) The filtering device at the top of each nephron is called a A) loop of Henle.
B) ureter.
C) Bowman's capsule.
D) collecting duct.
Q2) The dynamic constancy of the internal environment of animals,in which conditions such as temperature,pH,and nutrient concentrations are kept within narrow limits,is termed
A) negative feedback loop.
B) the set point.
C) osmoregulation.
D) homeostasis.
Q3) Which of the following is not part of the normal glomerular filtrate?
A) Blood cells
B) Glucose
C) Amino acids
D) Ions
E) Water
Q4) The _____________ is the functional unit of the kidney that performs the functions of filtration,reabsorption,and secretion.
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Chapter 28: How the Body Defends Itself
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Q1) Which cells complete their maturation in the bone marrow?
A) Mast cell
B) B cell
C) T cell
D) Monocyte
E) Natural killer cell
Q2) A molecule that induces an immune response within an organism is called
A) an interleukin.
B) a lymphocyte.
C) an antibody.
D) an antigen.
Q3) Plasma cells release ________________ that attach to an invading microbe,marking it for destruction.
A) perforin molecules
B) interleukin-2
C) antibodies
D) histamine
Q4) How is it that vertebrates are able to produce antibodies to virtually every foreign antigen with which they come in contact?
Q5) Explain why relatives are sought for kidney transplants.
Page 30
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Chapter 29: The Nervous System
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Q1) The gray matter of the spinal cord is surrounded by the white matter.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The chamber of the inner ear that is shaped like a tightly-coiled snail shell and functions in sensing sound is the ___________.
Q3) A ____________ sheath is an insulating cover consisting of multiple layers that wrap around the axon of a neuron.
Q4) Two senses that are able to detect chemicals in air and in food are A) touch and pressure.
B) sight and smell.
C) hearing and balance.
D) taste and smell.
Q5) Describe the condition of a neuron when it is not transmitting a nervous impulse,that is,when it is at rest.
Q6) Nodes of Ranvier occur between adjacent A) nerves.
B) neurons.
C) Schwann cells. D) synapses.
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Chapter 30: Chemical Signaling Within the Animal Body
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Q1) The ____________ gland is a shield-shaped gland in the neck that produces thyroxine and calcitonin.
Q2) _______________ hormone is significant in the female menstrual cycle,triggering maturation of an egg.
A) Follicle-stimulating
B) Adrenocorticotropic
C) Prolactin
D) Growth
Q3) Which of the following is an advantage of using chemical hormones as messengers rather than electrical signals to control body organs?
A) Different hormones can be targeted at different tissues because they are all chemically different.
B) Chemical signals can persist longer.
C) Chemical signals can spread to all tissues via the blood.
D) Chemical signals are usually only required in only small amounts.
E) All of the choices are correct.
Q4) The peptide hormone ____________ regulates the kidney's retention of water.
Q5) Explain how the level of calcium in blood is kept within narrow limits and why this is important.
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Chapter 31: Reproduction and Development
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Q1) Which of the following encloses the embryo?
A) Chorion
B) Placenta
C) Blastocoel
D) Amnion
Q2) The developing embryo is termed a fetus at what stage?
A) After the third month
B) At the end of the first trimester
C) At the ninth month of pregnancy
D) At the end of the second trimester
Q3) __________________ is the male sex hormone,responsible for secondary sexual characteristics.
Q4) Compare and contrast hemaphoditism with asexual reproduction.
Q5) The muscular ring at the base of the uterus that dilates during labor and delivery is called the ___________.
Q6) In a process called _______________,a secondary oocyte is released from one of the ovaries into the fallopian tube.
Q7) Describe how oxytocin and prostaglandins function during labor and childbirth.
Q8) Why are the testes suspended outside the body in humans?
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Chapter 32: Plant Form and Function
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Q1) In woody plants,a layer called the ____________ consists of the cork,cork cambium,and a layer of parenchyma cells.
Q2) You cut down a tree and count 23 annual rings in the trunk.You conclude that the tree is
A) most likely 23 years old.
B) probably 230 years old.
C) 46 years old.
D) this does not tell the age of the tree.
E) 12.5 years old.
Q3) Leaf blades grow larger as a result of cell division in the A) apical meristems.
B) marginal meristems.
C) lateral meristems.
D) All of these are correct.
Q4) Specialized parenchyma cells,known as ________________ cells,occur in association with sieve-tube members.
Q5) Explain how plants are able to raise water to great heights at the top of the tree.
Q6) The stalk of a leaf is called the _______________.
Q7) ___________ is a type of vascular tissue that conducts water.
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Chapter 33: Plant Reproduction and Growth
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Q1) What is the primary purpose of a fruit?
A) To aid in seed dispersal
B) To reward animals for pollination
C) To feed the growing embryo of the plant
D) To deter predators
Q2) Within the embryo sac of the angiosperm,______ nuclei are arranged in precise positions.
A) 2
B) 4
C) 6
D) 8
E) 10
Q3) In order to delay the ripening of tomatoes,the gene for this hormone has been disrupted in genetically engineered tomatoes.
A) Gibberellin
B) Auxin
C) Cytokinin
D) Abscisic acid
E) Ethylene
Q4) The response of plants to touch is called _______________________.
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