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Human Biology is an interdisciplinary course that explores the structure, function, and development of the human body, emphasizing its biological systems and processes. Students will examine the anatomy and physiology of major organ systems, genetic inheritance, human evolution, and the bodys responses to the environment and disease. The course incorporates current research to discuss topics such as nutrition, reproduction, immunity, and public health, helping students understand the biological principles that underpin human health and disease within a societal context.
Recommended Textbook
The Human Body in Health and Disease 6th Edition by Patton
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Q1) A transverse plane divides the eyes from the back of the head.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) A protein molecule is considered to be at the cellular level of organization.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) Which word is defined as the scientific study of disease?
A) dissection
B) physiology
C) pathology
D) anatomy
Answer: C
Q4) The middle toe is medial to the big toe but lateral to the smallest toe.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q5) Name the two major body cavities and describe what is in each.
Answer: Answers will vary.
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Q1) When a covalent compound is put into water,it dissociates into ions.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) The electrolyte most often formed by magnesium (Mg)is Mg<sup>++</sup> This shows that the ion has two more electrons than protons.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) Structural proteins include collagen,keratin,and enzymes.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q4) An atom with 11 protons,12 neutrons,and 10 electrons has a +1 charge.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q5) Explain the structure of a nucleic acid and list the differences between RNA and DNA. Answer: Answers will vary.
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Q1) One function of the cell membrane is to identify the cell as belonging to a particular individual.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) If one side of a DNA molecule is adenine - guanine - cytosine - cytosine,the opposite side would be thymine - cytosine - guanine - cytosine.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) The process of translation occurs in the nucleus.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q4) The cell membrane is able to efficiently move material because each ion pump can move a number of different substances.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Q1) growth of new tissue
A)regeneration
B)keloid
C)glia
D)chondrocyte
E)matrix
Q2) Epithelial tissue is characterized by large amounts of intercellular matrix and few cells.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which type of tissue specializes in movement of the body?
A) epithelial
B) connective
C) muscle
D) nervous
Q4) nonstriated,involuntary,narrow fibers with only one nucleus per cell
A)cardiac muscle
B)skeletal muscle
C)smooth muscle
Q5) Name and describe the four types of tissues in the body.Give an example of each.
Page 6
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Q1) A cochlear implant is a device that aids in hearing.
A)True
B)False
Q2) List the structures and explain the functioning of the male reproductive system.
Q3) system that has a secondary function of storing calcium and phosphorus for the body
A)integumentary system
B)skeletal system
C)muscular system
D)nervous system
E)endocrine system
F)cardiovascular system
Q4) The prostate gland and the scrotum are classified as accessory organs of the male reproductive system.
A)True
B)False
Q5) In a kidney transplant,the diseased kidney is removed and the transplanted kidney is put in its place.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) refers to a type of tumor that spreads to other parts of the body
A)neoplasm
B)benign
C)malignant
D)metastasis
E)carcinoma
F)sarcoma
Q2) One of the unique characteristics of viruses is their use of only RNA as a nucleic acid.
A)True
B)False
Q3) One characteristic of viral diseases is their rapid onset after the initial infection.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The terms etiology and pathogenesis are interchangeable.
A)True
B)False
Q5) List and briefly describe the four classes of protozoa described in the chapter.
Q6) List and explain the eight mechanisms of disease discussed in this chapter.
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Q1) The stratum germinativum allows injury to the skin to heal rapidly.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is not an example of an eccrine gland?
A) sweat gland
B) sudoriferous gland
C) sebaceous gland
D) perspiration gland
Q3) Describe the location and secretions of the sebaceous glands.
Q4) membrane that lines the walls of the abdominal cavity
A)cutaneous membrane
B)visceral pleura
C)parietal pleura
D)visceral peritoneum
E)parietal peritoneum
F)mucous membrane
G)synovial membrane
H)bursae

Page 9
Q5) Describe the four types of skin cancer identified in the chapter.
Q6) Describe the connective tissue membranes of the body.
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Q1) cartilage cancer
A)osteoarthritis
B)osteosarcoma
C)Paget disease
D)rickets
E)osteoporosis
F)osteomyelitis
G)chondrosarcoma
H)sprain
I)strain
J)rheumatoid arthritis
Q2) The symphysis pubis is an example of an amphiarthrotic joint.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Name and describe the three types of inflammatory arthritis discussed in this chapter.
Q4) The acetabulum is part of the hip bone.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Explain the process of endochondral ossification.
Page 11
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Q1) A severe muscle injury can have a negative effect on functioning of the kidneys.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Both calcium and ATP are needed for a muscle to contract.
A)True
B)False
Q3) usually the moving attachment point of a muscle
A)voluntary muscle
B)visceral muscle
C)intercalated disks
D)origin
E)sarcomere
F)insertion
G)actin
H)Z line
I)bursae
J)myosin
Q4) In an isotonic contraction,the muscle itself actually shortens.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Parkinson disease is treated by trying to get more dopamine into the brain. A)True
B)False
Q2) Describe and give the function of the brainstem.
Q3) Axons carry nerve impulses away from the cell body. A)True
B)False
Q4) The spinal cord consists of both white and gray matter.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Only cells with myelin have nodes of Ranvier. A)True B)False
Q6) The axon of a motor neuron usually transmits an impulse to a muscle. A)True B)False
Q7) Explain the structure and function of the sympathetic nervous system.
Q8) Spinal tracts are composed of gray matter. A)True B)False
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Q1) Explain myopia,hyperopia,and astigmatism and what means are used to correct these vision disorders.
Q2) Explain the two types of strabismus.
Q3) The "white" of the eye is the sclera.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The circular fibers of the iris would be more likely to contract in dim light.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Which of the following is not a characteristic of a general sense organ?
A) Receptors are scattered all over the body.
B) Receptors are most concentrated in the skin.
C) Receptors include proprioceptors.
D) All of the above are characteristics of a general sense organ.
Q6) Aqueous humor is found in the anterior chamber of the eye and is constantly replenished by the lacrimal gland.
A)True
B)False
Q7) Describe the structure of the external ear.
Q8) Explain the functioning of the sense of taste and list the four primary tastes.
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Q1) Cushing syndrome and Addison disease have opposite causes.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is true of a steroid hormone?
A) Its receptor is in the nucleus of the target organ cell.
B) It requires a second messenger.
C) It converts ATP into cyclic AMP.
D) All of the above are true of steroid hormones.
Q3) One of the main differences between a hormone and a prostaglandin is the distance traveled to the target cell.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Because follicle-stimulating hormone and luteinizing hormone have target cells in the ovaries,neither is produced in males.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Explain how calcitonin and parathyroid hormone work together to regulate blood calcium levels.What effect would each hormone have on bone density? Explain your answer.
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Q1) Most adult leukemia is acute myeloid leukemia.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Many emergency rooms have a ready supply of type O blood.Explain why this is so.
Q3) the specialized red pigment found in red blood cells
A)hemoglobin
B)buffy coat
C)plasma
D)eosinophil
E)basophil
F)monocyte
G)thrombocyte
H)erythrocyte
I)serum
J)fibrin
Q4) Name and explain the function of the three granulocytes.
Q5) If a person has a thrombus,heparin or tissue plasminogen activator works equally well in getting rid of the clot.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) a rapid heart rhythm
A)incompetent heart valve
B)angina pectoris
C)pericarditis
D)dysrhythmia
E)atherosclerosis
F)myocardial infarction
G)fibrillation
H)stenosed heart valve
I)congestive heart failure
J)cardiac tamponade
K)tachycardia
L)bradycardia
M)cor pulmonale
Q2) The atrioventricular node is sometimes called the pacemaker for the heart.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A heart rate of 110 beats per minute indicates tachycardia.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) type of shock that results from blood loss
A)gangrene
B)aneurysm
C)cardiogenic shock
D)arteriosclerosis
E)anaphylactic shock
F)phlebitis
G)septic shock
H)varicose veins
I)hypovolemic shock
J)neurogenic shock
Q2) Which blood vessel carries blood away from the capillaries?
A) arteries
B) arterioles
C) venules
D) both A and B
Q3) Circulatory shock can be defined as the failure of the circulatory system to deliver an adequate amount of oxygen to the tissues.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) The spleen has a number of functions including being a reservoir for blood and salvaging iron from the hemoglobin or worn-out red blood cells.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The thymus is located in the chest and is important in the development of T cells after birth.
A)True
B)False
Q3) T cells and B cells are activated by the attachment of a specific antigen.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The fetus receives antibodies from the mother that last several weeks after birth.This is an example of _____ immunity.
A) natural passive
B) natural active
C) artificial active
D) artificial passive
Q5) Describe HIV and explain its effect on a cell.
Q6) Explain the ways in which blood capillaries and lymph capillaries are similar.
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Sample Questions
Q1) There are two primary bronchi,one entering each lung.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Infectious rhinitis and allergic rhinitis have the same symptoms.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Describe the conditions of emphysema and asthma.
Q4) The paranasal sinuses drain into the pharynx.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What is pharyngitis?
Q6) Explain how the structure of the alveoli increases the efficiency of gas exchange in the lung.
Q7) One of the functions of the respiratory mucosa is to
A) help trap contaminants found in inspired air
B) act as a thin barrier between the blood capillaries and alveoli
C) help humidify inspired air
D) both A and C

Page 20
Q8) Name and explain four types of breathing explained in the chapter.
Q9) What is the respiratory mucosa?
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which layer of the wall of the digestive tract is responsible for peristalsis?
A) serosa
B) submucosa
C) muscularis
D) mucosa
Q2) inflammation of the peritoneum
A)ulcer
B)cholelithiasis
C)mumps
D)hepatitis
E)caries
F)gastroenteritis
G)leukoplakia
H)Crohn disease
I)gingivitis
J)peritonitis
K)ascites
L)diverticulitis
Q3) List and describe the four types of teeth.
Q4) Describe the typical tooth.
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Q1) Which of the following is not true of the electron transport chain?
A) It occurs in the mitochondria.
B) It takes the high-energy electrons and converts them to energy in ADP.
C) It is the third step in carbohydrate metabolism.
D) All of the above are true of the electron transport chain.
Q2) Minerals are helpful in maintaining good health,but they are not as necessary as vitamins.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The condition that results from a diet that is sufficient in calories but deficient in protein is called
A) anorexia nervosa
B) marasmus
C) kwashiorkor
D) bulimia
Q4) What is obesity? List the conditions for which obesity is a risk factor.
Q5) Explain what is meant by a nonessential amino acid.How can nonessential amino acids be obtained?
Q6) Name and give the function of four vitamins needed by the body.
Q7) Describe anorexia nervosa.Who is most at risk and how is it treated?
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Q1) The urinary system consists of two kidneys,two urethras,one bladder,and one ureter.
A)True
B)False
Q2) the blood vessel in the Bowman capsule
A)calyx
B)urinary bladder
C)Bowman capsule
D)loop of Henle
E)renal cortex
F)collecting tubule
G)proximal convoluted tubule
H)renal medulla
I)ureters
J)renal pyramids
K)juxtaglomerular apparatus
L)glomerulus
M)urethra
N)distal convoluted tubule
O)renal pelvis
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Q1) The volume of which fluid is the most variable?
A) interstitial fluid
B) blood plasma
C) cerebrospinal fluid
D) intracellular fluid
Q2) Table salt (NaCl)is an electrolyte.
A)True
B)False
Q3) If sodium were in high concentration in the blood,the volume of blood would increase.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Having enough table salt in the diet can prevent hyponatremia.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Which type of body tissue contains the least amount of water?
A) adipose tissue
B) bone tissue
C) muscle tissue
D) nerve tissue
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Q1) One unique aspect of kidney regulation of pH is that it
A) is the only site of carbonic anhydrase that can quickly convert carbon dioxide and water to carbonic acid
B) can excrete excess acid
C) can excrete excess base
D) both A and B
Q2) Blood in the pulmonary artery has a lower pH than the blood in the aorta.
A)True B)False
Q3) The pH scale measures the concentration of OH- ions in solution.
A)True B)False
Q4) A condition called respiratory acidosis can be caused by a carbonic acid excess.What can cause a carbonic acid excess?
Q5) If the buffer pair is to function properly,there must be 10 times more NaHCO<sub>3</sub> than there is H2CO<sub>3</sub>.
A)True B)False
Q6) Explain how the buffer system functions to buffer a strong acid.
Page 26
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Q1) Which of the following is not true of seminal fluid?
A) It contains secretions of accessory glands.
B) It contains gametes.
C) It is slightly acidic.
D) All of the above are true of seminal fluid.
Q2) A major concern with benign prostatic hypertrophy is the constriction of urine flow through the urethra.
A)True
B)False
Q3) benign tumors of the uterine fibrous or smooth muscle tissue
A)salpingitis
B)oophoritis
C)amenorrhea
D)ovarian cysts
E)uterine myoma
F)dysfunctional uterine bleeding
G)dysmenorrhea
H)premenstrual syndrome
I)endometriosis
Q4) What are the risk factors of ovarian cancer and how is it treated?
Page 27
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Q1) Placenta previa has the highest risk for mother and baby during the first trimester of pregnancy.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The time from maximal cervical dilation until the baby exits through the vagina is the _____ stage of labor.
A) first B) second
C) third D) fourth
Q3) Fraternal twins can have different biological fathers.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The loss of hair cells in the organ of Corti causes a decline in the hearing ability in older adults.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The morula would be made exclusively of stem cells.
A)True
B)False

Page 28
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Q1) A genetic mutation is a change in the DNA code.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Because mutations occur at the chemical level,they can never be seen under the microscope.
A)True
B)False
Q3) People with Down syndrome and Turner syndrome have at least 47 chromosomes.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Explain the cause and symptoms of Klinefelter syndrome.
Q5) A photograph of chromosomes that have been cut out and pasted onto a chart in pairs according to size is called a pedigree.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Define or describe what is meant by a pseudogene.
Q7) What is a genetic mutation? List three possible genetic mutagens.
Q8) The final step in gene expression is frequently an enzyme.
A)True
B)False
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