Human Biology
Mock Exam
Course Introduction
Human Biology explores the structure, function, and processes of the human body, integrating fundamental concepts from anatomy, physiology, genetics, and biochemistry. This course examines the major organ systems, their interactions, and the mechanisms that maintain homeostasis. Students will gain an understanding of human development, health, disease, and the impact of lifestyle and environment on biological systems, fostering an appreciation for the complexity and adaptability of the human organism.
Recommended Textbook
Biology A Guide to the Natural World 5th Edition by David Krogh
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Chapter 1: Science As a Way of Learning: a Guide to the Natural World
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Sample Questions
Q1) Because scientists are in the business of investigating nature,scientists function as:
A)society's eyes and ears on the natural world.
B)political advisors.
C)authorities on the natural world.
D)protectors of the natural world.
Answer: A
Q2) Choose the answer that best describes the sequence of the scientific method.
A)experiment, observation, hypothesis, conclusion
B)hypothesis, experiment, observation, conclusion
C)guess, hypothesis, experiment, conclusion
D)observation, hypothesis, experiment, absolute fact
E)observation, hypothesis, experiment, conclusion
Answer: E
Q3) What was the purpose in breaking off the dust trap or tilting the flask in Pasteur's experiment?
Answer: To provide a control to show that microbes need to enter the flask from the outside for there to be growth.
Q4) All of the kinds of living things in a given area are called a ________. Answer: community
Page 3
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Chapter 2: Fundamental Building Blocks: Chemistry, water, and Ph
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Sample Questions
Q1) Chlorine has an atomic number of 17,and argon has an atomic number of 18.From this information alone,you can predict that:
A)argon has more neutrons than chlorine.
B)argon is more chemically reactive than chlorine.
C)argon will more readily ionize than chlorine.
D)chlorine is more chemically reactive than argon.
E)chlorine has more neutrons than argon.
Answer: D
Q2) Sodium chloride (NaCl)crystals (table salt)form as a result of:
A)covalent bonding.
B)hydrogen bonding.
C)being chemically stable.
D)the attraction of oppositely charged particles for each other.
Answer: D
Q3) ________ orbit around the nucleus of an atom.
Answer: Electrons
Q4) It takes more energy to raise the temperature of water than of alcohol because water has a higher ________.
Answer: specific heat
Page 4
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Chapter 3: Lifes Components: Biological Molecules
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Sample Questions
Q1) In many cases,carbohydrates have the following ratio of elements:
A)carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen in a ratio of 1:2:1.
B)carbon and hydrogen in a ratio of 1:2.
C)carbon, hydrogen, and nitrogen in a ratio of 1:2:1.
D)carbon, oxygen, and hydrogen in a ratio of 1:2:1.
E)carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen in a ratio of 2:1:2.
Answer: A
Q2) Most enzymes are proteins,but not all proteins are enzymes.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) All hormones are steroids.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q4) You have a genetic defect that prevents your cells from making the amino acid tryptophan from indole and serine.Your cells might be lacking the proper information in their ________,which would direct the synthesis of the ________ that catalyzes tryptophan synthesis.
Answer: DNA; enzyme
Page 5
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Chapter 4: Lifes Home: the Cell
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cell walls can be found as part of:
A)animal cells, fungi, and protists.
B)plant cells, bacteria, fungi, and protists.
C)protists and animal cells.
D)bacterial cells.
E)plant cells.
Q2) Eukaryotic cilia and flagella:
A)are only found in single-celled organisms.
B)are both involved in sweeping the lungs clean of foreign matter.
C)occur in large numbers on the surface of the cell.
D)both have microtubules forming their underlying structure.
E)may also act as receptors for hormones.
Q3) Which organelles are believed to have originated from free-standing bacteria ingested by ancient eukaryotic cells?
A)mitochondria and Golgi complex
B)lysosomes and ribosomes
C)chloroplasts and ribosomes
D)chloroplasts and lysosomes
E)mitochondria and chloroplasts
Q4) Actin forms cytoskeletal fibers called ________.
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Lifes Border: the Plasma Membrane
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Sample Questions
Q1) Membrane proteins perform all of the following functions except:
A)structural support.
B)cell recognition.
C)communication.
D)transport.
E)maintainance of membrane fluidity.
Q2) To move a molecule into a cell against the concentration gradient requires energy.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What are two major differences between active transport and passive transport? Please give a specific example of each that occurs within a eukaryotic cell.
Q4) The glycocalyx is found just inside the plasma membrane of the cell.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Which statement about diffusion is correct?
A)Diffusion can occur only through a membrane.
B)Diffusion requires a protein channel.
C)Diffusion of water cannot occur.
D)Diffusion causes movement of materials toward equilibrium.
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Chapter 6: Lifes Mainspring: an Introduction to Energy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Where do substrates bind to enzymes?
A)in the active site
B)anywhere
C)in the substrate groove
D)in the effector site
Q2) A reaction that requires the input of energy to move forward is ________.
Q3) Plants provide animals with which of the following?
A)food
B)oxygen
C)carbon dioxide
D)food and oxygen
E)food and carbon dioxide
Q4) Which of the following is true of energy?
A)It can be stored in chemical bonds.
B)It can be released by forming chemical bonds.
C)It can be transferred from one form to another with 100 percent efficiency.
D)It can be created from nothing.
Q5) The regulation of an enzyme's activity by means of a molecule binding to a site on the enzyme other than its active site is called ________.
Page 8
Q6) Explain how vitamins play a role in cellular metabolism.
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Chapter 7: Vital Harvest: Deriving Energy From Food
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Sample Questions
Q1) The three main products of glycolysis are:
A)ATP, NAD , and CO .
B)ATP, pyruvic acid, and CO .
C)ATP, NADH, and CO .
D)ATP. NADH, and pyruvic acid.
E)NAD , pyruvic acid, and CO .
Q2) When NADH donates its electrons to the electron transport chain,which of the following is true?
A)NADH is reduced to NAD .
B)NADH is oxidized to NADH .
C)NADH is reduced to NADH .
D)NADH is oxidized to NAD .
Q3) Which of the following types of foods can be oxidized by aerobic respiration?
A)only glucose
B)only fats
C)only proteins
D)only glucose and fats
E)glucose, fats, and proteins
Q4) During aerobic respiration,the final electron acceptor is ________.
Q5) The electron transport chain occurs in the ________ of the mitochondria.
Page 9
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Chapter 8: The Green Worlds Gift: Photosynthesis
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Q1) The electrons excited by sunlight in photosystem I are replaced by ________,and the electrons excited by sunlight in photosystem II are replaced by ________.
A)electrons from water; electrons from photosystem I
B)electrons from water; electrons from carbon dioxide
C)electrons from water; electrons from water
D)electrons from carbon dioxide; electrons from water
E)electrons from photosystem II; electrons from water
Q2) During photosynthesis,energy is released and used to create ATP when:
A)electrons are passed down the energy hill during the light reactions.
B)electrons jump from a reaction center to a primary electron acceptor.
C)CO is fixed into sugars in the light reactions.
D)water is split, releasing oxygen.
E)electrons are passed from photosystem I to NADPH.
Q3) Most plant leaves appear green because they absorb green light.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The two colors of light that drive most photosynthesis are ________ and ________.
Q5) Describe how cellular respiration and photosynthesis are different.
Q6) The enzyme ________ can bind both carbon dioxide and oxygen.
Page 10
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Chapter 9: The Links in Lifes Chain: Genetics and Cell Division
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Sample Questions
Q1) Bacterial binary fission is essentially the same process as mitosis in animals and plants.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The order of bases in a gene is copied to make a/an:
A)amino acid. B)gene.
C)mRNA. D)ribosome.
Q3) Which statement about binary fission is true?
A)It occurs during S phase of the cell cycle.
B)It is the cell division process of both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells.
C)It is the cell division process of prokaryotic cells.
D)It is part of interphase.
Q4) The ordering of bases in a gene determines the order of:
A)amino acids in a protein.
B)mRNAs on a ribosome. C)genes on a chromosome.
D)genes in a genome.
Q5) In cell division,the separation of duplicated chromosomes is ________.
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Chapter 10: Preparing for Sexual Reproduction: Meiosis
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Sample Questions
Q1) In a human female,what happens to the collection of oocytes in the ovaries once puberty begins?
A)The oocytes all mature into eggs as soon as puberty is reached.
B)Ovulation stimulates all of the oocytes to complete meiosis II.
C)One oocyte per month matures and completes meiosis I.
D)One oocyte per month matures and completes meiosis I and meiosis II.
E)All ooctyes are expelled from the ovaries to complete meiosis II.
Q2) Crossing over occurs during which stage of meiosis?
A)telophase I
B)metaphase II
C)anaphase II
D)prophase II
E)prophase I
Q3) Bacteria (prokaryotes)divide by ________ reproduction,and eukaryotes reproduce by ________ reproduction.
A)sexual; asexual
B)either asexual or sexual; either asexual or sexual
C)sexual; either asexual or sexual
D)asexual; both asexual and sexual
E)asexual; sexual
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Chapter 11: The First Geneticist: Mendel and His Discoveries
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Q1) If all of Mendel's monohybrid crosses had involved traits that function by incomplete dominance,would his results have supported blending inheritance?
A)It cannot be determined with the information given.
B)Yes; a cross between red and white flowers would yield all pink offspring.
C)No; he would still have seen the dominant and recessive traits reappear in the F generation.
D)Yes; there is always a wide range of phenotypes in monohybrid crosses.
Q2) In Mendel's pea plants,yellow seeds are dominant to green seeds.Purple flowers are dominant to white flowers.Use Y and y for the seed color alleles and P and p for the flower color alleles.Flower color and seed color assort independently.A plant of unknown genotype with yellow seeds and purple flowers is crossed to a plant with green seeds and white flowers.The offspring all have yellow seeds,but some have purple flowers,and some have white flowers.What is the genotype of the yellow-seeded,purple-flowered plant?
A)YyPp
B)YYPp
C)YyPP
D)YYPP
E)Yypp
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Chapter 12: Units of Heredity: Chromosomes and Inheritance
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Sample Questions
Q1) A person who has a recessive disorder but does not have the disorder him or herself is said to be a/an:
A)aneuploid.
B)aberration.
C)carrier.
D)hybrid.
Q2) What is nondisjunction?
A)failure of sperm and egg to fuse in fertilization
B)failure of cells to divide by cytokinesis in meiosis
C)failure of chromosomes to duplicate before mitosis or meiosis
D)failure of homologous chromosomes or sister chromatids to separate in meiosis
E)an extra duplication of the chromosomes before mitosis or meiosis
Q3) Explain why a female can be heterozygous for an X-linked gene but a male cannot.
Q4) Nondisjunction in somatic cells can result in aneuploid cells.This may give rise to:
A)Down syndrome.
B)Turner syndrome.
C)Klinefelter syndrome.
D)cancer.
E)cri-du-chat syndrome.
Page 14
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Chapter 13: Passing on Lifes Information: Dna Structure and Replication
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Sample Questions
Q1) It was primarily the X-ray diffraction work on DNA done by ________ that allowed Watson and Crick to deduce the structure of DNA.
A)Louis Pasteur
B)Gregor Mendel
C)Rosalind Franklin
D)T)H. Morgan
Q2) If the sequence TCGTA was used as a template in DNA replication,what would be the sequence of bases on the newly synthesized strand?
A)ATGCT
B)CTACG
C)AGCAT
D)GCATC
E)TCGTA
Q3) What are the products of the replication of one DNA molecule?
A)four identical double-stranded DNA molecules
B)two strands joined into one double-stranded DNA molecule
C)two identical double-stranded DNA molecules
D)a set of four sister chromatids
E)a pair of homologous chromosomes
Page 15
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Chapter 14: How Proteins Are Made: Genetic Transcription, translation,
and Regulation
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Sample Questions
Q1) The process by which genetic information in DNA is copied into RNA is called translation.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Arabidopsis thaliana is a small plant commonly known as the thale cress or mouse-ear cress and has approximately 25,000 genes.The human genome also contains approximately 25,000 genes,yet a human is clearly more complex than this plant.Both species have introns in their genes.Formulate a hypothesis to explain why a human is more complex than Arabidopsis even though the human and the plant have a similar number of genes.
Q3) The set of nucleotides on a tRNA that base-pairs with nucleotides on an mRNA is the: A)anticodon.
B)codon.
C)template.
D)primary transcript.
E)P site.
Q4) During translation,a tRNA with its bound amino acids is in the P site.What processes happen once a new tRNA is in the A site?
Page 16
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Chapter 15: The Future Isnt What It Used to Be: Biotechnology
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Q1) It is not possible for a human gene to work in any other organism.
A)True
B)False
Q2) These days many of our food crops are genetically modified.To some people this "frankenfood" poses many dangers and should not be used.Do you agree? Why or why not?
Q3) Reproductive cloning has been used to clone humans.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What is the function of restriction enzymes in bacteria?
A)They are used to repair DNA mutations.
B)They function in protein production.
C)They cut the bacterial cell's chromosome so that it is more easily transformed.
D)They cut foreign DNA, for example, the DNA of invading viruses.
Q5) What is the most common way of introducing recombinant DNA into bacterial cells?
A)viral vectors
B)PCR
C)transformation
D)gel electrophoresis
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Chapter 16: An Introduction to Evolution: Charles Darwin, evolutionary Thought, and the Evidence for Evolution
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Q1) A well-known example of natural selection in action is the change in the peppered moth population in England in the nineteenth century.The moths blended in with their light-colored natural surroundings,but with increasing industrialization in England,smoke began to pollute the foliage and darken the trees and rocks.Eventually,populations that were once mostly light colored became mostly dark colored.Using natural selection,propose a hypothesis that would explain why the moth population changed over time from mostly light colored to mostly dark colored.
Q2) Which of the following is the most important force in shaping evolution?
A)biological research
B)random events
C)natural selection
D)the fixity of species
Q3) John Endler's experiment with guppies demonstrates which of the following in regard to evolution through natural selection?
A)Male guppies can change color depending on their environment.
B)There is one optimal set of traits for each species.
C)The reproductive success a trait imparts depends on the environmental context.
D)Bigger and brighter is always better.
Q4) The length of time that Darwin's round-the-world voyage took was about ________.
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Chapter 17: The Means of Evolution: Microevolution
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Q1) Which of the following processes is not an agent of microevolution?
A)gene flow
B)natural selection
C)mutation
D)polygenic inheritance
E)genetic drift
Q2) Which of the following males in a given population would be considered the most fit in an evolutionary sense?
A)one that produced 1,000 offspring, of which 100 survived but 99 did not reproduce
B)one that produced 100 offspring, of which 10 survived but 9 did not reproduce
C)one that produced 1,000 offspring, all of which died before reaching reproductive age D)one that produced two offspring, both of which survived and produced offspring of their own
Q3) One solution to the problem of species extinction is captive breeding in zoos and gardens.What are some of the problems associated with this solution?
Q4) List five mechanisms by which gene frequencies in a population can be altered.Describe each briefly.
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19
Chapter 18: The Outcomes of Evolution: Macroevolution
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Q1) Structures present in two different species that both have been inherited from a common ancestor are said to exhibit ________.
Q2) Two different species of pines release their pollen at different times.This is an example of:
A)behavioral isolation.
B)geographic isolation.
C)mechanical isolation.
D)temporal isolation.
Q3) Migration of the salamander Ensatina eschscholtzii separated an original population as they moved either west or east of the Central Valley of California.Eastern and western species then evolved.The Central Valley is an example of a/an:
A)temporal isolating mechanism.
B)mechanical isolating mechanism.
C)extrinsic isolating mechanism.
D)intrinsic isolating mechanism.
Q4) A natural population of organisms that can produce fertile offspring belong to the same ________.
Q5) The wings of a bird and the wings of a butterfly are the result of ________ evolution.
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Chapter 19: A Slow Unfolding: the History of Life on Earth
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Q1) The Cambrian explosion followed extinction of the dinosaurs.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which large animals were wiped out by the Cretaceous extinction?
A)sharks
B)dinosaurs
C)whales
D)mammoths
Q3) Before the development of photosynthesis and as ancient cells became crowded,there was probably a major competition for: A)enzymes.
B)water.
C)organic molecules.
D)oxygen gas.
Q4) Examine and explain the connections between Stanley Miller's experiments and the importance of the evolution of photosynthesis to the current state of life on Earth.
Q5) Photosynthesis was first performed by bacteria about 3.4 billion years ago. A)True
B)False
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Chapter 20: Arriving Late,traveling Far: the Evolution of Human Beings
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Q1) Which of the following characteristics of a fossil suggests that the species does not belong to the hominin group?
A)bipedal walking
B)small canine teeth
C)protruding brow ridges
D)a flat face
Q2) The missing label indicated by a "3" in the figure should be:
A)Australopithecus afarensis.
B)Australopithecus africanus.
C)Homo ergaster.
D)Homo neanderthalensis.
Q3) Several lines of evidence,including fossils and a genetic analysis of different groups of modern humans,suggest that our species originated and spread out from:
A)north Africa.
B)east Africa.
C)central Europe.
D)India.
Q4) To which species does the fossil hominin in the first crate belong? Briefly explain your answer.
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Diversity of Life 1
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Q1) The antibiotic penicillin inhibits the ability of bacteria to: A)make cell walls.
B)synthesize protein.
C)copy DNA.
D)undergo respiration.
Q2) The human immunodeficiency virus targets: A)lymph nodes.
B)all white blood cells.
C)helper T cells.
D)bone marrow cells.
Q3) Some protists have locomotor extensions called ________ and ________.
Q4) Virus-like entities called viroids lack a ________ and are simply strands of infectious RNA.
Q5) The core of some viruses is carbohydrate in nature.
A)True B)False
Q6) Most bacteria present in the human intestines are pathogenic.
A)True
B)False
Q7) Methanogens are in the ________ category of extremophile. Page 23
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Chapter 22: Fungi: the Diversity of Life 2
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Q1) Fungi and plants have a long-term relationship in the history of life on Earth.Appraise the evidence in support of this concept.
Q2) Which of the following is a fungal skin disease?
A)dry rot
B)ringworm
C)Dutch elm disease
D)skin rust
Q3) Nearly all fungi reproduce using mushrooms as their reproductive structure.
A)True
B)False
Q4) When club fungi reproduce sexually,which of the following occurs?
A)Two spores merge into a seed that produces hyphae.
B)Two mushroom caps from different fungi exchange genes.
C)Sperm and egg cells fuse.
D)Nuclei from two different fungi fuse.
Q5) In which group are smuts and rusts found?
A)basidiomycetes
B)ascomycetes
C)zygomycetes
D)chytrids
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Chapter 23: Animals: the Diversity of Life 3
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Q1) A characteristic that is common to cnidarians is:
A)an osculum.
B)a medusa stage in the life cycle.
C)that they create coral reefs.
D)stinging cells.
E)a complete digestive tract.
Q2) Ticks and horseshoe crabs are members of subphylum:
A)Urochordata.
B)Chelicerata.
C)Crustacea.
D)Insecta.
E)Uniramia.
Q3) Discuss why nearly all larger animals have circulatory systems,and describe the differences between the open circulatory system and the closed circulatory system.
Q4) The animal phyla with the most diversity and greatest representation in the animal kingdom have developed tissues,organs,and body cavities.Less successful phyla have not.Evaluate and explain why this is so.
Q5) Animals that do not have a backbone are called ________.
Q6) Sponges acquire food by ________ as water passes through.
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Chapter 24: Plants: the Diversity of Life 4
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Q1) In alternation of generations in all plants,the multicellular haploid (1n)organism is referred to as the:
A)zygote.
B)gamete.
C)sporophyte.
D)gametophyte.
Q2) Ginkgo biloba belongs in the plant group ________.
Q3) A currently accepted hypothesis for gravitropism in plants is that:
A)sedimentation of organelles triggers hormone release.
B)microscopic eyespots trigger upward (skyward)growth.
C)ground contact inhibits stem growth while air stimulates it.
D)bending of leaves in response to gravity triggers growth in the opposite direction.
Q4) A major difference between gymnosperm and angiosperm seeds is that:
A)gymnosperm seeds are haploid.
B)angiosperm seeds are haploid.
C)gymnosperm seeds are larger.
D)angiosperm seeds are larger.
E)gymnosperm seeds are not surrounded by fruit.
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Chapter 25: The Angiosperms: Form and Function in Flowering Plants
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Q1) The source of a fruit produced by an angiosperm is its: A)endosperm.
B)ovary wall.
C)sepal. D)seed.
Q2) Guard cells open stomata when they engorge with water and bow outward.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The missing label indicated by a "2" corresponds to the: A)anther.
B)stigma.
C)style.
D)ovary.
Q4) Woody plants such as oaks and maples are dicots. A)True
B)False
Q5) Although they produce flowers,cacti with needle-like leaves would be classified as gymnosperms rather than angiosperms. A)True
B)False
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Chapter
Integumentary, skeletal, and Muscular Systems
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Q1) The endocrine system sends signals using chemical messengers called ________.
Q2) The protein actin is found in the:
A)nucleus.
B)thick filaments.
C)thin filaments.
D)membrane.
Q3) The dermis is mostly made up of connective tissue.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following is the study of the body's structure?
A)physiology
B)anatomy
C)zoology
D)endocrinology
E)homeostasis
Q5) Subcutaneous fat tissue in humans is located mainly in the dermis.
A)True
B)False
Q6) The two organ systems that are involved in removing wastes from the cells and eliminating them from the body are the ________ system and ________ system. Page 29
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Chapter 27: Communication and Control 1: the Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The Pacinian corpuscle is important to: A)sight.
B)hearing.
C)the sense of touch.
D)information about the position of the joints.
Q2) In which layer of cells in the eye is light converted into an electrical signal?
Q3) Different parts of the tongue are responsive to different tastes.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The portion of the nervous system that most directly controls skeletal muscles is the: A)somatic.
B)autonomic.
C)sympathetic.
D)parasympathetic.
E)afferent.
Q5) Our visual system creates images as well as perceiving them. A)True
B)False
Q6) Which division of the autonomic nervous system stimulates digestion?
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Chapter 28: Communication and Control 2: the Endocrine System
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Q1) Which hormone causes glucose to be produced from the breakdown of protein and fat?
A)insulin
B)glucagon
C)cortisol
D)growth hormone
E)oxytocin
Q2) Through nervous stimulation,the hypothalamus controls the release of which hormone?
A)adrenaline
B)growth hormone
C)thyroid-stimulating hormone
D)glucagon
E)follicle-stimulating hormone
Q3) Alpha cells of the pancreas make insulin.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which hormones stimulate the kidneys to retain sodium and excrete potassium?
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Q5) The hormone that stimulates mammary gland development and milk production is
Chapter 29: Defending the Body: the Immune System
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Sample Questions
Q1) What happened to the young lady?
Q2) What do many of the different kinds of allergies have in common?
A)They cause histamine release.
B)They result in high blood pressure.
C)They contribute to autoimmune disorders.
D)All allergens are living things.
Q3) The skin serves as which type of defense against pathogens?
A)adaptive immunity
B)protective immunity
C)barrier to infection
D)innate response
E)complement
Q4) B cell receptors are specific to only one antigen.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Which part of the immune system does not target specific microbial invaders?
A)antibodies
B)specific defense
C)antigens
D)innate response
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Chapter 30: Transport and Exchange 1: Blood and Breath
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Sample Questions
Q1) The combination of large numbers and small size collectively gives alveoli what characteristic that is essential to their function?
A)low air resistance
B)easy inflatability
C)low surface area
D)high surface area
Q2) Nerve-like muscle cells that function as the heart's pacemaker are found in the:
A)left ventricle.
B)right ventricle.
C)coronary arteries.
D)atrioventricular valves.
E)sinoatrial node.
Q3) Which vein in the body carries oxygenated blood?
A)coronary vein
B)superior vena cava
C)inferior vena cava
D)pulmonary vein
E)Veins never carry oxygenated blood.
Q4) Which drawing,A,B,or C,depicts a formed element involved in gas exchange?
Q5) Discuss the effects of holding one's breath for more than a minute.
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Chapter 31: Transport and Exchange 2: Digestion, nutrition, and Elimination
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Q1) Complex carbohydrates that are digestible are known as ________.
Q2) Roughly how long is the small intestine?
A)6 feet
B)14 feet
C)20 feet
D)30 feet
Q3) Which layer of the digestive tract is actually in contact with the food?
A)muscularis externa
B)submucosa
C)serosa
D)mucosa
Q4) Minerals are always chemical elements,not compounds.
A)True
B)False
Q5) How do fats leave the digestive system and enter the bloodstream?
A)in the veins
B)in the capillaries
C)in the arteries
D)in the lymphatic vessels
Q6) Which nutrient has the highest caloric content? Page 35
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Chapter 32: An Amazingly Detailed Script: Animal Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) During cleavage,the vegetal pole of a frog egg contains larger cells than the animal pole.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The blastula contains an internal structure called the archenteron.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which structure,A,B,C,or D,induces formation of the neural tube?
Q4) Which of the following is true of the animal pole of a zygote?
A)The animal pole is closer to the nucleus than the vegetal pole.
B)The animal pole is hollow.
C)The animal pole becomes the entire embryo.
D)The animal pole produces larger cells than the vegetal pole.
Q5) The morula stage is part of which phase of embryonic development?
Q6) The mesoderm refers to the middle layer produced during gastrulation.
A)True
B)False
Q7) During gastrulation in sea urchins,which forms first,the mouth or the anus?
Q8) A zygote with animal and vegetal poles demonstrates what characteristic of some animal zygotes? Page 37
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Chapter 33: How the Baby Came to Be: Human Reproduction
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Q1) Which statement concerning gamete production is correct?
A)Sperm cells can be produced only at certain points in the reproductive cycle.
B)The number of sperm a man can produce is essentially unlimited, whereas the number of eggs a woman can potentially produce is limited.
C)A man is born with all of the sperm he will need for the rest of his life.
D)Progestins stimulate development of new follicles.
Q2) Which item,A,B,C,D,or E,is a secondary spermatocyte?
Q3) Normally,anywhere from one to four sperm fertilize the egg.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What is the long tube through which mature sperm are transported to the urethra during ejaculation?
Q5) An ectopic pregnancy is:
A)implantation of the embryo in the uterus.
B)another name for fraternal twins.
C)another name for identical twins.
D)attachment of an embryo outside the uterus.
Q6) The developing organism is referred to as a fetus during its first eight weeks.
A)True
B)False Page 39
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Chapter 34: An Interactive Living World 1: Populations in Ecology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Equilibrium species are usually limited by density dependent factors.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What would be logical to conclude about a country with a population pyramid having a disproportionately large number of individuals in the 15-44 year old range?
A)The country is a developed country.
B)The country will exhibit little population growth.
C)The country will exhibit large population growth.
D)The country will exhibit zero population growth.
Q3) The carrying capacity of an environment can cause a population initially growing very quickly to level off,resulting in an S-shaped curve.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Mosquitoes have a short life span and produce a very large number of eggs.This is typical of a/an:
A)K-selected species.
B)equilibrium species.
C)r-selected species.
D)density dependent species.
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Chapter 35: An Interactive Living World 2: Communities in Ecology
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Q1) Keystone species are:
A)always at the top of the food chain.
B)always the most numerous.
C)never at the top of the food chain.
D)might be of any number, anywhere on the food chain.
Q2) The Venus flytrap,a carnivorous plant,might be considered a: A)parasite.
B)predator.
C)mutualistic plant.
D)pioneer.
Q3) A chameleon avoiding predation by being colored similarly to its surroundings demonstrates which strategy?
Q4) Parasites usually kill their hosts.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Which form of biological succession occurs in an area where most life has been destroyed,but fertile soil remains?
Q6) Pioneers are the first invaders of a newly exposed habitat.
A)True
B)False Page 42
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Chapter 36: An Interactive Living World 3: Ecosystems and Biomes
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Sample Questions
Q1) An animal that exclusively eats grasses would be both a primary consumer and an herbivore.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Atmospheric N is useless to plants.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Decomposer fungi are examples of a:
A)producer.
B)primary consumer.
C)secondary consumer.
D)tertiary consumer.
E)detritivore.
Q4) One of the proposed solutions to global warming is to grow a large number of trees.This could be effective because:
A)trees would move carbon from CO in the atmosphere to organic molecules.
B)the gross primary production of trees moves CO into soil.
C)plant carbon is different from atmospheric carbon.
D)when decomposed, plant carbon is impossible to convert back to CO .
E)plants are the base of all ecological food chains.
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