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Human Biology is the study of the structure, function, and development of the human body from the molecular level to the whole organism. This course explores topics such as anatomy, physiology, genetics, evolution, and human health, providing a scientific foundation for understanding how the body works and adapts to its environment. Students will examine biological processes that influence growth, reproduction, disease, and aging, while also considering the effects of lifestyle, environment, and technology on human well-being. Through lectures, laboratory work, and case studies, this course encourages critical thinking and application of biological principles to real-world health issues.
Recommended Textbook
Campbell Essential Biology with Physiology 5th Edition by Eric J. Simon
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Q1) If the proportion of brightly colored male lizards increased steadily in future generations,this would ________.
A) reject the original hypothesis
B) be an example of evolution due to natural selection
C) illustrate the relationship between structure and function
D) demonstrate the flow of energy through a system
Answer: B
Q2) Antibiotic resistance evolves in bacteria when ________.
A) the presence of antibiotics favors bacteria that already have genes for resistance
B) farmers do not use enough antibiotics in animal feed
C) the antibiotics create resistance genes in bacteria
D) none of the above
Answer: A
Q3) How does taxonomy assist biologists?
A) by providing easily remembered scientific names for organisms
B) by categorizing diverse items into smaller and smaller numbers of groups
C) by reducing life to its smallest common denominator, the cell
D) all of the above
Answer: B
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Q1) Using the table above,what kind of cancer do you think Xofigo is used to treat?
A) liver cancer
B) bone cancer
C) brain cancer
D) lung cancer
Answer: B
Q2) The hydrogen and oxygen atoms of a water molecule are held together by ________ bonds.
A) ionic
B) hydrogen
C) covalent
D) polar
Answer: C
Q3) Adjacent water molecules are joined by ________ bonds.
A) covalent only
B) ionic
C) polar and covalent
D) hydrogen
Answer: D
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Q1) What name is given to the following reaction? glycerol + 3 fatty acids triglyceride + 3 water molecules
A) glycolysis
B) hydrolysis
C) hydrogenation
D) dehydration
Answer: D
Q2) DNA nucleotides include ________.
A) uracil, guanine, adenine, and cytosine
B) thymine, guanine, adenine, and cytosine
C) thymine, uracil, adenine, and cytosine
D) thymine, guanine, adenine, and uracil
Answer: B
Q3) How does RNA differ from DNA?
A) RNA is double-stranded; DNA is single-stranded.
B) RNA is a polymer of amino acids; DNA is a polymer of nucleotides.
C) RNA contains uracil; DNA contains thymine.
D) In RNA G pairs with T; in DNA G pairs with C.
Answer: C
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Q1) When mixed with water,phospholipids spontaneously form membranes because they ________.
A) have hydrophilic phosphate groups that are attracted to water and hydrophobic fatty acid tails that avoid water
B) have hydrophilic fatty acid tails that are attracted to water and hydrophobic phosphate groups that avoid water
C) have hydrophilic heads that are attracted to their hydrophobic tails
D) are both fluid and mosaic
Q2) Some ribosomes are suspended in the cytosol of a cell,whereas other ribosomes
A) make proteins inside the nucleus
B) are found on the plasma membrane
C) are attached to the smooth endoplasmic reticulum
D) are attached to the outside of the nucleus
Q3) ________ store the information necessary to produce proteins.
A) Lysosomes
B) Genes
C) Ribosomes
D) Carbohydrates
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Q1) What is energy?
A) the capacity to cause movement
B) the capacity to cause change
C) a measure of calories
D) a measure of disorder
Q2) Which of the following processes could result in the net movement of a substance into a cell,if the substance is more concentrated in the cell than in the surroundings?
A) active transport
B) facilitated diffusion
C) diffusion
D) osmosis
Q3) Some protozoans have special organelles called contractile vacuoles that continually eliminate excess water from the cell.The presence of these organelles tells you that the environment ________.
A) is isotonic to the protozoan
B) is hypotonic to the protozoan
C) is hypertonic to the protozoan
D) contains a higher concentration of solutes than the protozoan
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Q1) Which of the following are produced as a result of cellular respiration?
A) ATP and water
B) carbon dioxide and ATP
C) carbon dioxide, water, and ATP
D) oxygen and glucose
Q2) Where in the cell does glycolysis occur?
A) cytoplasm
B) endoplasmic reticulum (ER)
C) within the fluid just inside the inner mitochondrial membrane
D) between the inner and outer mitochondrial membrane
Q3) Electron transport takes place in the ________.
A) mitochondria
B) chloroplasts
C) cytoplasm
D) ribosomes
Q4) The ultimate source of the energy in food is ________.
A) the sun
B) producers
C) ATP
D) consumers
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Q1) In the accompanying figure,the molecule that makes up the bulk of the mass of the plant comes in mostly ________.
A) through the veins, which bring materials from the roots
B) through the transparent covering of the leaf into the photosynthetic cells
C) through the stomata
D) from the roots where they are stored during the night
Q2) What compound is found at the reaction center of a photosystem?
A) chlorophyll b
B) carotenoids
C) phycobilins
D) chlorophyll a
Q3) Which wavelength of light is the LEAST useful to your plant's growth?
A) 750 nm
B) 650 nm
C) 550 nm
D) 500 nm
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Q1) A duplicated chromosome consists of two ________.
A) centromeres
B) centrosomes
C) genomes
D) sister chromatids
Q2) Upon completion of telophase I and cytokinesis,there is(are)________ cell(s).
A) four haploid
B) two diploid
C) two haploid
D) one diploid
Q3) Which of the following occurs during prophase?
A) Chromosomes line up on the midline of the cell.
B) The nuclear envelope forms.
C) Sister chromatids separate.
D) The mitotic spindle begins to form.
Q4) Which of the following will help prevent cancer and increase survival?
A) Eat a low-fiber, low-fat diet.
B) Limit exercise.
C) Seek early detection of tumors.
D) Smoke only cigarettes.
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Q1) ________ genes violate Mendel's principle of independent assortment.
A) Codominant
B) Linked
C) Recessive
D) Pleiotropic
Q2) This pedigree supports the fact that widow's peak is due to a dominant allele,because if it were due to a recessive allele and both parents show the recessive phenotype,then ________.
A) half of the sons would have a widow's peak
B) all of the offspring would have a widow's peak
C) none of the daughters would have a widow's peak
D) all of the daughters and none of the sons would have a widow's peak
Q3) An individual who is homozygous ________.
A) expresses the dominant trait
B) carries two different alleles for a gene
C) carries two copies of the same allele for a gene
D) expresses the recessive trait
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Q1) What name is given to the collection of traits exhibited by an organism?
A) genome
B) genotype
C) phenotype
D) genetic code
Q2) HIV (human immunodeficiency virus)must use its own ________ to reproduce.
A) DNA polymerase
B) reverse transcriptase
C) RNA polymerase
D) tRNA
Q3) How many amino acids are common to all living systems?
A) 10
B) 20
C) 30
D) 100
Q4) The shared genetic code of all life on Earth is evidence that ________.
A) the genetic code arose relatively late in the history of life on Earth
B) DNA replication is error-free
C) all life shares a common ancestry
D) bacterial cells arose earlier than eukaryotic cells
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Q1) What would be the best experiment to do next to determine if complete hexokinase gene expression is temperature dependent?
A) Measure the amount of hexokinase mRNA in cells at different temperatures.
B) Measure the rate of transcription of the hexokinase gene in cells at different temperatures.
C) Measure the amount of mRNA that is broken down in cells at different temperatures.
D) Measure the amount of hexokinase protein in cells at different temperatures.
Q2) Which of these lifestyle choices will increase cancer risk?
A) jogging
B) spending less time in the sun
C) a diet low in plant fiber
D) quitting smoking
Q3) ________ is(are)responsible for more cancers than any other carcinogen.
A) Asbestos
B) UV radiation
C) Tobacco
D) X-rays
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Q1) What evidence led to Kirk Odom's freedom after being wrongly imprisoned for 30 years?
A) an analysis of blood types from the crime scene
B) an analysis of fingerprints from the crime scene
C) accounts from witnesses
D) an analysis of DNA from the crime scene
Q2) STR analysis is a DNA profiling technique that makes use of the fact that different people have ________.
A) different numbers of repeats of short DNA sequences at certain sites in the genome
B) different alleles for many genes in the genome
C) different restriction fragments
D) different CODIS DNA sequences
Q3) Of these steps,which one occurs earliest in the process of producing recombinant DNA?
A) Human DNA fragments are mixed with the cut plasmids.
B) The same restriction enzyme is used to isolate the gene of interest and to cut the plasmid DNA.
C) The recombinant plasmids are mixed with bacteria.
D) Bacteria carrying recombinant plasmids are cloned.
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Q1) Which of the following is most likely to decrease genetic variation?
A) directional selection
B) mutation
C) stabilizing selection
D) diversifying selection
Q2) What does evolutionary fitness measure?
A) physical health
B) longevity
C) relative reproductive success
D) population size
Q3) Gene flow is accomplished by ________.
A) migration
B) sexual recombination
C) mutation
D) natural selection
Q4) Which one of the following statements is TRUE?
A) Natural selection works on variation already present in a population.
B) Natural selection works on nonheritable traits.
C) Individuals evolve through natural selection.
D) Individual organisms evolve structures that they need.
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Q1) The type of reproductive barrier that occurs when two species mate but produce sterile hybrids is referred to as ________.
A) mechanical isolation
B) temporal isolation
C) a postzygotic barrier
D) a prezygotic barrier
Q2) Feathers in birds appear to have first evolved for insulation but later conveyed a new advantage in helping create light aerodynamic surfaces.This switch in function is an example of a(n)________.
A) paedomorphosis
B) an analogy
C) an adaptation
D) exaptation
Q3) The wing of a bald eagle is ________ the wing of a penguin.
A) convergent with
B) homologous to
C) unrelated to
D) analogous to
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Q1) Which of the following would likely be the most difficult to kill if you were you to can your own food?
A) streptococci
B) endospores
C) biofilms
D) staphylococci
Q2) Animal life underwent its greatest diversification during the ________,which began about ________ million years ago.
A) Paleozoic era... 290
B) Paleozoic era... 540
C) Mesozoic era... 363
D) Mesozoic era... 245
Q3) Why is RNA thought to have been the first genetic material?
A) RNA is structurally simpler than DNA.
B) RNA has been found on meteorites.
C) RNA is capable of self-replication
D) Primitive organisms, such as some viruses, have RNA as their genetic material.
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Q1) Why are bryophytes considered incompletely liberated from their ancestral aquatic habitat?
A) They lack lignin.
B) Their sperm are flagellated.
C) The gametophyte generation is dominant.
D) They lack a cuticle.
Q2) The ________ help(s)plants retain water.
A) hypha
B) cuticle
C) mycorrhiza
D) lignin
Q3) Why are ferns considered incompletely adapted to the terrestrial environment,when compared with other plants?
A) They lack vascular tissue.
B) Their sperm are flagellated.
C) The gametophyte generation is dominant.
D) They lack cuticle.
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Q1) Which of the following is one way in which scientists can test hypotheses about events that occurred in the distant past?
A) by dissecting current animal specimens
B) by analyzing fossils recovered from the Earth
C) by visiting local libraries to research the events
D) by interviewing current scientists and researchers
Q2) Which of these exhibits radial symmetry?
A) butterfly
B) spoon
C) snowflake
D) shoe box
Q3) According to this evolutionary tree,approximately how many years ago did humans and orangutans share a common ancestor?
A) 1 million years ago
B) 7 million years ago
C) 12 million years ago
D) 20 million years ago
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Q1) Which of the following is a behavioral response to environmental variability?
A) migrating to a different location
B) acclimation
C) endothermy
D) "flagging" by trees
Q2) What is one important difference between savannas and temperate grasslands?
A) Savannas only rarely experience fires.
B) Temperate grasslands are mostly treeless.
C) Savannas are inhabited by grazing mammals.
D) Temperate grasslands have nutrient-poor soil.
Q3) In this scenario,how would you best describe CO ?
A) It is a baseline comparison for the GWP values of all other GHGs.
B) It is a GHG whose GWP value is dependent upon the GWP values of all other GHGs.
C) It is the GHG that is the most efficient at trapping heat on Earth.
D) It is the GHG that is the least efficient at trapping heat on Earth.
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Q1) ________ is the maximum population size that a particular habitat can support.
A) Population cycle
B) Carrying capacity
C) Life history pattern
D) Survivorship curve
Q2) In an ideal,unlimited environment,what shape does a population's growth curve most closely resemble?
A) S
B) J
C)
D)
Q3) In most developed countries,overall population growth rates ________.
A) are high, so the population size is growing rapidly
B) are high, so the population size is fairly stable
C) are near zero, so the population size is fairly stable
D) are low, so the population size is declining
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Q1) Sustainable development ________. I)will require making difficult decisions regarding the environment and lifestyle II)must be achieved if the human species is to survive III)will require global,multinational cooperation
A) I only
B) II only
C) III only
D) I, II, and III
Q2) Two lakes have the same number of species.Most of the fish in Lake 1 are of a single species,with a few individuals each for the remaining species.Lake 2,on the other hand,has about equal numbers of each species.Which lake has higher species diversity?
A) Lake 1
B) Lake 2
C) They are equally diverse.
D) The number and relative abundance of species are not related to diversity.
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Q1) Which of the following is most likely to be responsible if,when your blood sugar level rose,the level went back down?
A) the use of the sugar for energy by your cells
B) a homeostatic mechanism based on negative feedback
C) type 2 diabetes
D) a homeostatic mechanism based on positive feedback
Q2) Involuntary muscle includes ________.
A) skeletal muscle only
B) smooth muscle only
C) smooth muscle and cardiac muscle
D) smooth muscle, cardiac muscle, and some skeletal muscle
Q3) Which of the following is a source of water loss in humans? I)urination
II)defecation
III)breathing
A) I
B) II
C) III
D) I, II, and III
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Q1) Exocrine pancreatic insufficiency would show symptoms most similar to______.
A) Sjögren's syndrome
B) megaesophagus
C) diverticulitis
D) celiac disease
Q2) A person who is trying to lose weight eats four servings of bread.Which of the following activities would burn more total Calories than is consumed in those four servings?
A) an hour of leisurely biking (<10 mph), 292 Calories
B) an hour of canoeing, 256 Calories
C) an hour of resistance (weight) training, 365 Calories
D) an hour of hiking, 438 Calories
Q3) Anorexia and bulimia ________.
A) occur when the body does not receive enough vitamin C
B) occur when there is a protein-deficient diet
C) occur mainly in affluent countries where thinness is idealized
D) occur when a person does not obtain all the essential amino acids
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Q1) Heart Block is one type of electrical defect in the heart in which the electrical signal from the sinoatrial node to the relay point is delayed.Predict the effect of Heart Block on the cardiac cycle.
A) The atria relax for a shorter period of time.
B) The atria relax for a longer period of time.
C) The ventricles relax for a shorter period of time.
D) The ventricles relax for a longer period of time.
Q2) The scientists investigated carbon dioxide levels in their experiment because high carbon dioxide levels in the ________ signal control centers in the brain to increase rate and depth of inhalations and exhalations.
A) alveoli
B) blood
C) heart muscle
D) pharynx
Q3) To graph their results,the scientists would plot the ________.
A) number of yawns on the x-axis
B) dependent variable on the x-axis
C) level of carbon dioxide on the x-axis
D) age of college students on the x-axis
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Q1) Which of the following types of cells does HIV preferentially infect?
A) cytotoxic T cells
B) natural killer cells
C) helper T cells
D) phagocytic cells
Q2) A primary immune response is the ________.
A) production of primary-type antibodies in the first day of exposure to a microorganism
B) immune response elicited by the second exposure of lymphocytes to a particular antigen
C) immune response elicited by the first exposure of lymphocytes to a particular antigen
D) immune response elicited by the first exposure of memory cells to a particular antigen
Q3) Which group of mice has more functional cytotoxic T cells?
A) The mice that drank water.
B) The mice that drank alcohol.
C) Both groups of mice have similar amounts of functional cytotoxic T cells.
D) There is not enough information to make a conclusion.
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Q1) In general,hormones that bind to plasma membrane receptors ________.
A) are steroid hormones
B) bind to DNA and cause changes in transcription
C) cannot pass through cell membranes
D) are produced in the interstitial fluid
Q2) Which of the following hormones can make a person susceptible to infection when administered for too long as a drug?
A) glucagon
B) growth hormone
C) glucocorticoids
D) antidiuretic hormone
Q3) Eating very spicy food stimulates the release of ________.
A) endorphins
B) insulin
C) glucagon
D) calcitonin
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Q1) Hermaphrodites ________.
A) possess both male and female reproductive systems
B) have the gonads of one sex but the external appearance of the other
C) usually fertilize themselves
D) have abnormal reproductive systems
Q2) Which one of the following statements is TRUE?
A) Natural family planning is one of the most reliable forms of birth control.
B) Morning-after pills are about 25% effective at preventing pregnancy.
C) Tubal ligation prevents ovulation.
D) A vasectomy involves removing a section of each vas deferens.
Q3) Which of the following is associated with sexual reproduction?
A) fission, only
B) fragmentation, only
C) budding, only
D) None of these are associated with sexual reproduction.
Q4) When does the human embryo implant in the wall of the uterus?
A) within a few hours of fertilization
B) about a day after conception
C) about a week after conception
D) just after gastrulation

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Q1) Which one of the following is used to combat osteoporosis?
A) calcium and vitamin therapy
B) anti-inflammatory medicines
C) opiates
D) splints or casts
Q2) Which one of the following statements is TRUE?
A) Cones are more sensitive to light than rods.
B) Rods can distinguish color.
C) There are three different types of cones in the human eye.
D) The human retina is completely covered with photoreceptors.
Q3) Which of the following neurons are part of the peripheral nervous system?
A) sensory neuron and motor neuron
B) interneuron neuron and motor neuron
C) interneuron neuron and sensory neuron
D) only motor neurons
Q4) Which of the following is an example of sensory adaptation of receptors?
A) going into deep sleep
B) distinguishing between different colors
C) ignoring the shoes on your feet
D) detecting sound and light simultaneously
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Q1) Which of the following best characterizes the monocots?
A) embryo with one seed leaf, leaves with parallel veins, stems with vascular bundles scattered, and flower parts in threes
B) embryo with one seed leaf, leaves with parallel veins, stems with a ring of vascular tissue, and flower parts in fives
C) embryo with two seed leaves, leaf veins not parallel, stems with ring of vascular tissue, and flower parts in fives
D) embryo with two seed leaves, leaf veins not parallel, stems with vascular bundles scattered, and flower parts in threes
Q2) Which of the following describes the sites of leaf attachment in a stem?
A) joints
B) nodes
C) internodes
D) cotyledons
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Q1) Boysen-Jensen also used the mica to separate a tip of a grass shoot only partially,by cutting the tip halfway and inserting a wafer of mica into the cut.If this experiment supported the Darwins' hypothesis,what would Boysen-Jensen have observed?
A) The grass shoot would not grow toward a light.
B) The grass shoot would grow toward a light when the mica wafer was on the side of the grass that was facing the light.
C) The grass shoot would grow toward a light when the mica wafer was on the side of the grass that was shaded from the light.
D) The grass shoot would grow toward a light no matter which direction the light was coming from.
Q2) Across the globe,billions of people eat rice.In order to make rice grains (the seed),a rice plant must flower and be pollinated.Rice plants flower only after days become shorter (i.e.,summer to autumn).What is the best classification for rice?
A) long night
B) short night
C) night neutral
D) long day
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