Human Biology Laboratory
Pre-Test Questions
Course Introduction
Human Biology Laboratory is a hands-on course designed to complement theoretical knowledge from human biology lectures by engaging students in practical experiments and activities. Students learn fundamental techniques such as microscopy, physiological measurements, analysis of human tissues, and exploration of anatomical structures using models and interactive simulations. Emphasis is placed on scientific inquiry, data collection, and critical analysis, enabling students to develop practical laboratory skills and a deeper understanding of the biological processes underlying human health and disease.
Recommended Textbook
Laboratory Manual for Human Anatomy and Physiology Main Version 4th Edition by Terry R. Martin
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Scientific Method and Measurements
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the metric system, a liter (L)is a unit that measures A)mass.
B)time.
C)length.
D)temperature.
E)volume.
Answer: E
Q2) The difference between an independent variable and a dependent variable is that the dependent variable
A)can be changed.
B)is derived from the experimental results.
C)is determined before the experiment is conducted.
D)is equivalent to the hypothesis.
E)is equivalent to the observations.
Answer: B
Q3) When plotting data on a graph, drawing the line of best fit involves placing all of the data points on the line.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Chapter 2: Body Organization, Membranes, and Terminology
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Sample Questions
Q1) The anatomical term for the shoulder is the ________ region.
A)acromial
B)sternal
C)mental
D)buccal
E)pectoral
Answer: A
Q2) If your classmate asked you to point to your digital region, where would you point?
A)To your arm
B)To your ankle
C)To your fingers or toes
D)To your thigh
E)To your abdomen
Answer: C
Q3) The anterior body cavity consists of the thoracic and abdominopelvic cavities.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Chapter 3: Chemistry of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) In Benedict's test, the greatest amount of sugar is indicated by a ________ color.
A)blue
B)yellow
C)green
D)brown
E)red
Answer: E
Q2) A solution that has a high concentration of hydroxide (OH-)ions
A)has a low pH.
B)has a high concentration of hydrogen (H+)ions too.
C)is a basic (alkaline)solution.
D)is a neutral solution.
E)is an acidic solution.
Answer: C
Q3) Sudan IV dye is a test for proteins.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Chapter 4: Care and Use of the Microscope
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the working distance on a microscope?
A)The distance between your eye and the ocular lens
B)The distance between the condenser and the slide
C)The distance between the specimen and the slide
D)The distance between the objective lens and the slide
E)The distance between the ocular lens and the objective lens
Q2) A parfocal microscope is one that keeps the specimen in focus (or very close to it)when a higher-power objective lens is rotated into position, after focusing with a lower-power objective.
A)True
B)False
Q3) All of the following are true of a stereomicroscope, except
A)it can also be called a dissecting microscope.
B)it is used to view large, opaque specimens.
C)the image of the specimen is reversed and inverted.
D)it can be used to view an object 3-dimensionally.
E)it provides less magnification than a compound light microscope.
Q4) A compound microscope is one that has two ocular lenses.
A)True
B)False
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Cell Structure and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) The plasma membrane of a cell can also be called the cell membrane.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following organelles are sometimes called "suicide sacs," because they are able to destroy the whole cell?
A)Ribosomes
B)Golgi apparatus
C)Lysosomes
D)Mitochondria
E)Centrioles
Q3) All of the following are true of the centrioles, except
A)they are located within the centrosome.
B)they are part of the cytoskeleton.
C)they consist of microtubules.
D)they organize the mitotic spindle during cell division.
E)they are nonmembranous organelles.
Q4) All of the organelles in the cell are membrane-bound.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 6: Movements Through Membranes
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the filtration experiment, which substances passed through the filter paper because of their small molecular size?
A)Water, glucose, starch, and charcoal
B)Water, glucose, and starch
C)Water and glucose
D)Starch and charcoal
E)Water, starch, and charcoal
Q2) In the molasses experiment, after 30 minutes, the molasses level in the stem of the thistle tube had gone up.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In this lab exercise, potassium permanganate was used to illustrate the process of
A)facilitated diffusion
B)active transport
C)pinocytosis
D)diffusion
E)filtration
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8
Chapter 7: Cell Cycle
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following events occurs in both the G and the G phases?
A)Mitosis
B)DNA replication
C)Cytokinesis
D)Spindle apparatus formation
E)Cell growth
Q2) A cell that enters the G phase will die within hours.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A karyotype shows the gender of an individual, as well as many genetic abnormalities.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following is the correct sequence of the phases of interphase?
A)G , G , G
B)G , S, G
C)S, G , G
D)G ,G , G , S
E)G , G , S
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Chapter 8: Epithelial Tissues
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is NOT true of the basement membrane?
A)It is connected to the apical surface of epithelial tissues.
B)The cells closest to the basement membrane are dividing cells.
C)It is acellular.
D)It is composed of collagen and secretions from the cells.
E)It serves to anchor the epithelial tissues to the underlying connective tissue.
Q2) All of the following are characteristics of epithelial tissues, except
A)they are well-supplied with blood vessels.
B)the cells are densely packed, with little space between them.
C)they all contain a basement membrane on their underside.
D)they can be composed of a single layer or multiple layers of cells.
E)their apical surface faces the outside or an internal body surface.
Q3) Which type of epithelial tissue is found in the air sacs of the lungs, the walls of capillaries, and the inner linings of blood vessels?
A)Stratified squamous
B)Simple cuboidal
C)Simple columnar
D)Transitional
E)Simple squamous
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Page 10
Chapter 9: Connective Tissues
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which type of connective tissue insulates the body from heat loss, protects certain organs from injury, and stores energy in the form of fat?
A)Areolar connective tissue
B)Reticular connective tissue
C)Dense regular connective tissue
D)Fibrocartilage
E)Adipose tissue
Q2) In your observations of microscopic slides of cartilage and bone, you can see that chondrocytes and osteocytes are both encased in lacunae.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of connective tissues in general?
A)Connective tissues contain an abundance of extracellular matrix.
B)The cells are packed tightly together, as they are in epithelial tissues.
C)The ground substance can vary from liquid to solid.
D)Most connective tissues are well-supplied with blood vessels.
E)All of these are characteristics of connective tissues in general.
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11
Chapter 10: Muscle and Nervous Tissues
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cardiac muscle is found in the walls of the heart and blood vessels.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Spindle-shaped cells are characteristic of ________ tissue.
A)nervous
B)smooth muscle
C)cardiac muscle
D)striated muscle
E)skeletal muscle
Q3) When observing micrographs of muscle tissue, the most prominent striations can be seen in cardiac muscle tissue.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Branched muscle fibers and intercalated discs are characteristic of ________ muscle tissue.
A)smooth
B)voluntary
C)cardiac
D)multinucleated
E)skeletal
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Chapter 11: Integumentary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is NOT true of the stratum basale?
A)It contains melanocytes.
B)It is the deepest layer of the epidermis.
C)It consists of only one layer of cuboidal or columnar cells.
D)It is the layer of the epidermis in which cell division is occurring.
E)All of these are true of the stratum basale.
Q2) From your observations of skin slides, it can be seen that the epidermis is a much thicker layer than the dermis.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The hypodermis is considered to be a true layer of the skin.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The reticular region of the dermis consists of ________ tissue.
A)areolar connective
B)dense regular connective
C)dense irregular connective
D)adipose
E)stratified squamous epithelial
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Chapter 12: Bone Structure and Classification
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Sample Questions
Q1) A small chamber occupied by an osteocyte is called a(n)________.
A)lacuna
B)osteon
C)lamella
D)canaliculus
E)endosteum
Q2) By the time a person reaches adulthood, all of his/her red bone marrow has been converted to yellow bone marrow.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Each bone consists of either compact or spongy bone, but not both.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Some people develop bones in areas of compression in the hand or foot; these extra bones are classified as ________ bones.
A)long
B)sesamoid
C)irregular
D)short
E)flat
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Chapter 13: Organization of the Skeleton
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is NOT true of ossification?
A)Intramembranous ossification involves bone formation from hyaline cartilage models.
B)Most bones develop by endochondral ossification.
C)In both intramembranous and endochondral ossification, both spongy and compact bone form.
D)Ossification occurs during fetal growth and childhood.
E)All of these are true of ossification.
Q2) A single bone in the neck region, which supports the tongue, is the ________. A)sacrum
B)hyoid
C)clavicle
D)fibula
E)coxal bone
Q3) All of the following are part of the axial skeleton except the A)sternum
B)sacrum
C)hyoid
D)clavicle
E)All of these are part of the axial skeleton.
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Page 15
Chapter 14: Skull
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the name of the structure that supports the teeth on both the maxilla and the mandible?
A)Crista galli
B)Pterygoid process
C)Ramus
D)Alveolar process
E)Coronoid process
Q2) The superior, middle, and inferior nasal conchae are all found on the ethmoid bone.
A)True
B)False
Q3) All of the following bones contain paranasal sinuses except
A)the maxilla.
B)the mandible.
C)the ethmoid bone.
D)the sphenoid bone.
E)All of these bones contain paranasal sinuses.
Q4) The skull consists of 8 cranial bones and 14 facial bones.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 15: Vertebral Column and Thoracic Cage
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is NOT included in the thoracic cage?
A)Ribs
B)Costal cartilages
C)Sternum
D)Thoracic vertebrae
E)All of these are included in the thoracic cage.
Q2) The lateral projections on cervical, thoracic, and lumbar vertebrae are called
A)spinous processes.
B)pedicles.
C)transverse processes.
D)lateral process.
E)transverse foramina.
Q3) Before fusion of the sacrum and coccyx, most children have 33 separate bones in the vertebral column.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The four vertebrae of the coccyx fuse into 1 bone by the age of about 18.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 16: Pectoral Girdle and Upper Limb
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Sample Questions
Q1) Anatomically, the forearm represents the region from the A)elbow to the fingers.
B)shoulder to the elbow.
C)elbow to the wrist.
D)shoulder to the fingers.
E)wrist to the fingers.
Q2) The humerus articulates with all of the following bones except the A)radius.
B)clavicle.
C)scapula.
D)ulna.
E)all of these bones articulate with the humerus.
Q3) Which of the following structures forms the point of the elbow?
A)Trochlea
B)Coronoid process
C)Deltoid tuberosity
D)Coracoid process
E)Olecranon process
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18
Chapter 17: Pelvic Girdle and Lower Limb
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the interosseous membrane of the leg?
A)The tendon in which the patella is embedded
B)The membrane that runs across most of the obturator foramen
C)A ligament that holds the tibia and fibula together along their shafts
D)The inner lining of the tibia and fibula
E)A dense connective tissue covering over the major bones of the lower limb
Q2) There are 7 tarsals in each foot, and 8 carpals in each hand, but the upper limb and the lower limb contain the same number of bones. How can this be explained?
A)The forearm contains 2 bones, but the leg contains only 1 bone.
B)The foot contains 1 more metatarsal than the hand.
C)The foot contains 1 more phalanx than the hand.
D)The upper limb has no counterpart for the patella.
E)The arm contains 1 bone, while the thigh contains 2 bones.
Q3) The distal attachment site for the patellar tendon is the
A)greater trochanter.
B)tibial tuberosity.
C)ischial spine.
D)medial malleolus.
E)medial condyle.
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Page 19
Chapter 18: Fetal Skeleton
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Sample Questions
Q1) The posterior fontanel is surrounded by the parietal and occipital bones.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is NOT true of the fontanels?
A)They are sometimes called "soft spots."
B)They are areas of incomplete ossification in the skull of an infant.
C)They occur between the flat bones of the skull, the vertebrae, and the long bones of the upper and lower limbs.
D)They allow for cranial compression during childbirth, and rapid brain development after birth.
E)All of these are true of the fontanels.
Q3) Which of the following fontanels involve(s)the occipital bone?
A)Posterior only
B)Anterior and sphenoidal
C)Mastoid only
D)Sphenoidal only
E)Mastoid and posterior
Q4) Most bones of the skeleton develop by endochondral ossification.
A)True
B)False
Page 20
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Chapter 19: Joint Structure and Movements
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Q1) What type of synovial joints are metacarpophalangeal joints?
A)Condylar
B)Hinge
C)Pivot
D)Ball-and-socket
E)Saddle
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a structural classification of joints?
A)Cartilaginous joint
B)Diarthrotic joint
C)Synovial joint
D)Fibrous joint
E)All of these are structural classifications of joints.
Q3) All synovial joints contain at least 1 meniscus.
A)True
B)False
Q4) An epiphyseal plate of a long bone is an example of a temporary joint.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 20: Skeletal Muscle Structure and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) A particular muscle causes flexion of the lower limb at the knee. It is located on the posterior side of the thigh. Where would you expect to find its antagonist?
A)On the medial side of the thigh
B)On the anterior side of the thigh
C)On the lateral side of the thigh
D)On the posterior side of the thigh too
E)On any side of the thigh
Q2) A muscle that contracts to assist the main muscle in performing a particular action is called a(n)
A)prime mover.
B)fixator.
C)antagonist.
D)agonist.
E)synergist.
Q3) The synaptic knob of a neuromuscular junction is the portion of the muscle fiber that contains receptor sites for neurotransmitters.
A)True
B)False
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22
Chapter 21: Electromyography: Biopac Exercise
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Sample Questions
Q1) Temporal summation is used in the body to
A)decrease muscle contraction in muscle fibers, to prevent damage to the cells.
B)increase the amount of force generated by skeletal muscle fibers.
C)maintain constant tension in a muscle fiber every time it contracts.
D)activate nearby skeletal muscle fibers, when a muscle fiber is under constant stimulation.
E)accomplish all of these functions.
Q2) In the EMG experiment, the hand dynamometer was used to illustrate A)motor unit recruitment only.
B)smooth muscle contraction.
C)muscle fatigue only.
D)cardiac muscle contraction.
E)motor unit recruitment and muscle fatigue.
Q3) Muscle fatigue can be induced by sustaining maximum clench force on an object for several seconds.
A)True
B)False
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23
Chapter 22: Muscles of the Head and Neck
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Q1) Which of the following facial muscles raise(s)the corners of the mouth for smiling and laughing?
A)Buccinator
B)Mentalis and platysma
C)Depressor anguli oris
D)Orbicularis oris
E)Zygomaticus major and minor
Q2) Which of the following muscles of facial expression is the only one that closes the eye when blinking?
A)Nasalis
B)Orbicularis oris
C)Risorius
D)Mentalis
E)Orbicularis oculi
Q3) The muscles that move the head are found in the neck.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The muscles of mastication are all inserted on the maxilla.
A)True
B)False
24
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Chapter 23: Muscles of the Chest, Shoulder, and Upper
Limb
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT a muscle of respiration?
A)External intercostals
B)Diaphragm
C)Pectoralis major
D)Internal intercostals
E)All of these are major muscles of respiration.
Q2) Which respiratory muscle(s)function(s)only during forced expiration?
A)Diaphragm
B)External intercostals
C)Pectoralis major
D)Pectoralis minor
E)Internal intercostals
Q3) Muscles in the forearm that move the hand have insertions on the A)scapula.
B)humerus.
C)phalanges only.
D)carpals, metacarpals, or phalanges.
E)radius or ulna.
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Chapter
Wall, and Pelvic Floor
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Q1) Which of the pelvic floor muscles inserts only on the coccyx?
A)Ischiocavernosus
B)Coccygeus
C)Levator ani
D)Bulbospongiosus
E)Superficial transverse perineal muscle
Q2) Which of the following muscles is NOT a muscle of the abdominal wall?
A)Rectus abdominis
B)External oblique
C)Transversus abdominis
D)Internal intercostal
E)All of these are muscles of the abdominal wall.
Q3) Which muscles form the outermost layer of the layered abdominal wall muscles?
A)Internal oblique
B)External intercostal
C)Transversus abdominis
D)Rectus abdominis
E)External oblique
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Chapter 25: Muscles of the Hip and Lower Limb
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Q1) What is/are the action(s)of the anterior leg muscles?
A)Plantar flexion of the foot and flexion of the toes
B)Inversion of the foot
C)Dorsiflexion of the foot and extension of the toes
D)Abduction of the leg
E)Eversion of the foot
Q2) Which of the following is NOT true of the hamstring group of muscles?
A)It consists of the biceps femoris, semitendinosus, and semimembranosus.
B)All of the hamstrings insert on both the tibia and the fibula.
C)All of the hamstrings cause flexion of the leg at the knee.
D)All of the hamstrings have origins on the ischial tuberosity, although the biceps femoris has an additional origin.
E)All of these are true of the hamstrings.
Q3) The gluteus maximus, medius, and minimus muscles all have the same action (extension of the thigh at the hip).
A)True
B)False
Q4) Compared to the forearm, the leg has a greater number of muscles.
A)True
B)False
Page 27
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Chapter 26: Surface Anatomy
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT a posterior surface feature?
A)Calcaneal tendon
B)Popliteal fossa
C)External occipital protuberance
D)Head of the fibula
E)All of these are posterior surface features.
Q2) The xiphoid process is a
A)bony feature of the torso.
B)soft tissue feature of the head.
C)bony feature of the upper limb.
D)soft tissue feature of the lower limb.
E)soft tissue feature of the torso.
Q3) In which of the following views would you NOT be able to see the lateral malleolus?
A)Medial view
B)Posterior view
C)Lateral view
D)Anterior view
E)The lateral malleolus would be visible in all of these views.
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28
Chapter 27: Nervous Tissue and Nerves
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Q1) The rarest structural type of neuron is a bipolar neuron.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A peripheral process is a structure found only in ________ neurons.
A)bipolar
B)motor
C)multipolar
D)association
E)unipolar
Q3) Sensory neurons are
A)always multipolar.
B)mostly unipolar, but some are bipolar.
C)always unipolar.
D)mostly multipolar, but some are bipolar.
E)always bipolar.
Q4) All structural types of neurons contain only one axon.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 28: Meninges, Spinal Cord, and Spinal Nerves
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT true of the white matter of the spinal cord?
A)The white matter surrounds the gray matter in the spinal cord.
B)The white matter is located in columns.
C)The ascending tracts of the white matter contain motor neurons.
D)Some of the white matter tracts decussate to the opposite side, either in the spinal cord or in the brainstem.
E)All of these are true of the white matter of the spinal cord.
Q2) Spinal nerves are called mixed nerves because they contain both sensory and motor nerve fibers.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is NOT true of the brachial plexus?
A)Its nerves control the shoulder and upper limb muscles.
B)It gives rise to the musculocutaneous, axillary, radial, median and ulnar nerves.
C)It is mainly derived from spinal nerves C5-C8, and T1.
D)It contains the phrenic nerve and the ansa cervicalis.
E)All of these are true of the brachial plexus.
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Page 30
Chapter 29: Reflex Arc and Somatic Reflexes
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Q1) The stretch receptors of the biceps reflex are located in the biceps brachii muscle and tendon.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is NOT true of the crossed extensor reflex?
A)It occurs in conjunction with a withdrawal reflex.
B)When flexor muscles of the lower limb contract due to stepping on a sharp object, the extensor muscles in the same limb are inhibited.
C)It occurs in reflexes in both the upper and lower limb.
D)When flexor muscles of the lower limb contract due to stepping on a sharp object, the extensor muscles in the opposite limb are stimulated.
E)The crossed extensor reflex helps a person remain upright during the withdrawal reflex.
Q3) Reflexes involving skeletal muscles are called ________ reflexes.
A)autonomic
B)spinal
C)somatic
D)skeletal
E)subconscious
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Chapter 30: Brain and Cranial Nerves
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Q1) A shallow groove on the surface of the brain is called a A)fissure.
B)canal.
C)gyrus.
D)aperture.
E)sulcus.
Q2) The cerebral cortex is the part of the brain used for conscious awareness and decision making.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The spinal cord is the largest and most complex portion of the nervous system.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The sensation of dental pain is derived from the ________ nerve.
A)hypoglossal
B)vagus
C)glossopharyngeal
D)accessory
E)trigeminal
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Chapter 31: Reaction Time: Biopac Exercise
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Q1) The reaction time experiment is an example of a voluntary reaction.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is NOT true of involuntary reflex responses?
A)They require the stimulation of specific receptors.
B)They occur more slowly than voluntary responses.
C)They require the transmission of nerve impulses.
D)They do not require input from the cerebral cortex.
E)They involve fewer neurons than voluntary responses.
Q3) In the statistical calculations in this experiment, the square root of the variance is called the
A)deviation from the mean.
B)mean.
C)standard deviation.
D)median.
E)sum.
Q4) All reflex arcs contain an interneuron.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 32: Electroencephalography I: Biopac Exercise
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Q1) An electroencephalogram (EEG)is a recording of an action potential from a single active neuron.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The most important ions used in action potentials of neurons are Na and K ions.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Many neurons firing in synchrony results in a brain wave with high amplitude.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following factors does NOT contribute to individual differences in the characteristics of brain waves?
A)Personality
B)Gender
C)Age
D)Type of activity the person is engaged in
E)All of these factors contribute to individual differences in the characteristics of brain waves.
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Chapter 33: Dissection of the Sheep Brain
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Q1) When looking at the ventral surface of the sheep brain, which of the following structures is the most anterior?
A)Oculomotor nerves
B)Optic chiasma
C)Mammillary body
D)Facial nerves
E)Olfactory bulbs
Q2) The optic nerves extend posteriorly and medially from the eyes, and merge at the A)optic chiasma.
B)infundibulum.
C)corpus callosum.
D)fornix.
E)cerebral peduncle.
Q3) In a median section of a sheep brain, the thalamus lies ________ the midbrain.
A)superior
B)lateral
C)anterior
D)inferior
E)posterior
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Page 35
Chapter 34: General Senses
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Q1) All sensory neurons have receptive fields of approximately the same size.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The results of the temperature experiment suggest that there is a greater concentration of cold receptors than warm receptors in the skin.
A)True
B)False
Q3) An environmental temperature of 85°F would stimulate a ________, and a temperature of 180°F would stimulate a ________.
A)nociceptor; nociceptor
B)warm receptor; warm receptor
C)thermoreceptor; mechanoreceptor
D)warm receptor; nociceptor
E)mechanoreceptor; thermoreceptor
Q4) Areas of the body that are capable of precise tactile localization contain more abundant touch receptors than areas that are not.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 35: Smell and Taste
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Q1) Alkaloids produce the ________ taste sensation.
A)sour
B)sweet
C)umami
D)salty
E)bitter
Q2) The vagus nerve transmits gustatory nerve impulses from the entire tongue to the brain.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Sensory adaption occurs very quickly in both olfaction and gustation.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Umami taste receptors are sensitive to
A)sodium or potassium salts.
B)sugars.
C)aspartic acid, glutamic acid, and MSG.
D)acids.
E)alkaloids and spoiled foods.
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Chapter 36: Eye Structure
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Q1) The innermost (most anterior)layer of the retina consists of A)rods and cones.
B)bipolar neurons.
C)the pigmented epithelium.
D)nerve fibers of the ganglion cells.
E)amacrine cells.
Q2) The conjunctiva is a mucous membrane that covers the entire anterior surface of the eyeball, including the cornea.
A)True
B)False
Q3) All of the following structures in the eye are black, due to the presence of melanin pigment, except
A)the choroid.
B)the ciliary body.
C)the retina.
D)the pigmented epithelium.
E)All of these eye structures are black, due to the presence of melanin pigment.
Q4) The anterior cavity of the eyeball is much smaller than the posterior cavity.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 37: Visual Tests and Demonstrations
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT true of the photopupillary reflex?
A)The response is controlled by the parasympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system.
B)It occurs when a person suddenly enters an area with brighter lighting conditions.
C)The response is a decrease in the size of the pupil.
D)It involves contraction of the circular muscles of the iris.
E)All of these are true of the photopupillary reflex.
Q2) Which of the following is NOT true of colorblindness?
A)It is a hereditary trait carried on the X chromosome.
B)Protanopia involves a lack of or a decrease in sensitivity to the blue-sensitive cones.
C)Males and females can be colorblind, but the condition is more common in males.
D)Deuteranopia involves a lack of or a decreased sensitivity to green-sensitive cones.
E)All of these are true of colorblindness.
Q3) The near point of accommodation increases with age.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 38: Ear and Hearing
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Q1) Which chamber of the inner ear receives sound waves directly from the oval window?
A)Cochlear duct
B)Scala media
C)Scala tympani
D)Vestibule
E)Scala vestibuli
Q2) What is the function of the pharyngotympanic tube?
A)To transmit sound waves to the tympanic membrane
B)To drain endolymph into the pharynx
C)To equalize the pressure on both sides of the eardrum
D)To drain perilymph into the pharynx
E)To transmit sound waves to the spiral organ
Q3) Which of the following structures is NOT part of the bony labyrinth?
A)Cochlea
B)Tympanic membrane
C)Vestibule
D)Semicircular canals
E)All of these structures are part of the bony labyrinth.
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Chapter 39: Ear and Equilibrium
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Q1) Which of the following is not true of otoliths?
A)They cause the stereocilia to bend, which is the stimulus for sending nerve impulses to the cerebrum.
B)They consist of magnesium chloride.
C)They add weight to the otolithic membrane as the head is tilted, which causes it to sag.
D)They are embedded in the gelatinous portion of the otolithic membrane.
E)All of these are true of otoliths.
Q2) Which of the following is not true of the crista ampullaris?
A)It is an organ of dynamic equilibrium.
B)The cupula is the gelatinous cap over the hair cell cilia.
C)Its sensory information is carried on neurons of the cochlear nerve.
D)It is located within a semicircular duct of the inner ear.
E)All of these are true of the crista ampullaris.
Q3) The crista ampullaris projects into the lumen of the bony labyrinth of the semicircular canal.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 40: Endocrine Structure and Function
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Q1) Which system in the body is similar to the endocrine system, in that it is also a regulatory system, and it also functions through chemical secretions and receptor sites?
A)Muscular system
B)Cardiovascular system
C)Integumentary system
D)Nervous system
E)Urinary system
Q2) The hormones that are released by the posterior lobe of the pituitary gland are synthesized by the
A)thymus gland.
B)anterior lobe of the pituitary gland.
C)pineal gland.
D)posterior lobe of the pituitary gland.
E)hypothalamus.
Q3) The hormones FSH and LH have no functions in the male.
A)True
B)False
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42
Chapter 41: Diabetic Physiology
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Q1) Insulin shock can occur when a person with type 1 diabetes mellitus eats a high-carbohydrate meal, but forgets to take insulin.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The primary source of cellular energy (fuel)is glucose.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What is secreted by the pancreatic acini?
A)Digestive hormones
B)Insulin and glucagon
C)Somatostatin
D)Digestive enzymes
E)Hydrochloric acid
Q4) What is the function of pancreatic polypeptide?
A)To promote somatostatin secretion
B)To increase the blood glucose level
C)To inhibit secretion of insulin and glucagon
D)To decrease the blood glucose level
E)To inhibit somatostatin and digestive enzyme secretion
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Chapter 42: Blood Cells
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Q1) Blood is a type of connective tissue.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Besides bacterial infections, stress can be a cause of elevated neutrophils in the blood.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is not true of red blood cells?
A)The biconcave disc shape makes them look hollow in their centers.
B)They are also called erythrocytes.
C)They transport oxygen through the blood, but not carbon dioxide.
D)They contain hemoglobin for gas transport.
E)All of these are true of red blood cells.
Q4) Which of the following is not true of monocytes?
A)They make up 3-9% of the white blood cells.
B)They are the largest blood cells in the circulating blood.
C)They are phagocytes, which engulf and destroy microorganisms and dead cells.
D)They are classified as granulocytes.
E)All of these are true of monocytes.
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Chapter 43: Blood Testing
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Q1) Which of the following is not true of hemoglobin?
A)It makes up about 1/3 of a red blood cell.
B)Each hemoglobin molecule consists of 4 protein subunits.
C)Oxyhemoglobin is bright red, and deoxyhemoglobin is dark red.
D)Each hemoglobin molecule can bind to up to 20 oxygen molecules at a time.
E)All of these are true of hemoglobin.
Q2) The most important factor influencing the percent saturation of hemoglobin is A)the pH.
B)the temperature.
C)the partial pressure of oxygen.
D)the carbon dioxide level.
E)All of these factors are equally important in determining the percent saturation of hemoglobin.
Q3) All of the following factors could cause decreased hematocrit except A)anemia.
B)smoking or emphysema.
C)kidney disease with a decline in erythropoietin production.
D)a hemorrhage.
E)All of these could cause decreased hematocrit.
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Page 45
Chapter 44: Blood Typing
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Q1) What is the least common blood type in the United States?
A)Type A
B)Type O
C)Type B
D)Type AB
E)All four blood types are found in almost equal percentages in the United States.
Q2) If you mixed a person's red blood cells with anti-B antibodies, and the red blood cells agglutinated, what could you conclude?
A)That the person's red blood cell membranes contain antigen B
B)That the person has type B blood
C)That the person has type AB blood
D)That the person's red blood cell membranes contain antigen A
E)That the person's blood is Rh+
Q3) A harmful reaction may occur in some cases, even when using the universal donor blood type for a transfusion.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 45: Heart Structure
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Q1) The fibrous pericardium surrounds the visceral and parietal layers of the serous pericardium.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The circumflex artery and the anterior interventricular artery are the main branches of the right coronary artery.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Cardiac muscle tissue makes up all of the following portions of the heart except
A)the myocardium of the walls of the heart chambers.
B)the trabeculae carneae.
C)the pectinate muscles.
D)the chordae tendineae.
E)the papillary muscles.
Q4) The great cardiac vein runs through the same sulcus as the anterior interventricular branch of the left coronary artery.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 46: Cardiac Cycle
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Q1) Which of the following events is not observed in the ECG, because it is hidden in the QRS complex?
A)Atrial depolarization
B)Ventricular repolarization
C)Atrial systole
D)Atrial repolarization
E)Ventricular depolarization
Q2) The AV node controls the basic rhythm of the heart, so it is called the pacemaker, but the SA node can modify heart rate when necessary.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Sounds associated with the mitral valve can best be heard by listening with a stethoscope in the
A)second intercostal space, to the right of the sternum.
B)fifth intercostal space, just to the right of the sternum.
C)directly over the middle of the sternum.
D)second intercostal space, to the left of the sternum.
E)fifth intercostal space, to the left of the sternum, along the nipple line.
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Chapter 47: Electrocardiography: Biopac Exercise
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Q1) There is a short period of time in the cardiac cycle, in which all four heart chambers are in diastole.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Typically, the heart rate increases during inspiration, and decreases during expiration.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the components of the cardiac conduction system briefly delays the signal from the pacemaker, so that the atria have time to fill the ventricles with blood, before the ventricles begin to contract?
A)AV bundle
B)SA node
C)Purkinje fibers
D)Left and right bundle branches
E)AV node
Q4) The ECG is a recording of an action potential of a single cardiac muscle cell.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 48: Blood Vessel Structure, Arteries, and Veins
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Q1) All of the following are true of the differences between arteries and veins except
A)veins have one-way valves, but arteries do not.
B)arteries have a thicker tunica media than veins.
C)veins collapse when empty, but arteries remain rounded.
D)veins have a thicker tunica externa than arteries.
E)All of these are true of the differences between arteries and veins.
Q2) Which of the following is not a branch of the celiac trunk?
A)Splenic artery
B)Common hepatic artery
C)Renal artery
D)Left gastric artery
E)All of these are branches of the celiac trunk.
Q3) The first branches of the aorta are the
A)right and left subclavian arteries.
B)right and left pulmonary arteries.
C)common carotid arteries.
D)right and left coronary arteries.
E)brachiocephalic arteries.
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Chapter 49: Pulse Rate and Blood Pressure
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Q1) What is the cardiac output in a person with a heart rate of 65 beats/min and a stroke volume of 72 ml/beat?
A)4,680 mL/beat
B)137 mL/min
C)4,680 mL/min
D)1.1 mL/beat
E)4,680 beats/min
Q2) The thumb should not be used to take the radial pulse, because a person may feel a pulse from an artery in the thumb instead.
A)True
B)False
Q3) After blood flows through the capillaries, the blood pressure derived from the heart is insufficient to return blood to the heart through the veins.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Blood pressure would decrease if either the heart rate or stroke volume decreased.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 50: Lymphatic System
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Q1) Which type of cells is present along with lymphocytes in the lymphatic organs, that helps engulf and destroy pathogens, and helps to activate the immune response?
A)Neutrophils
B)Fibroblasts
C)Macrophages
D)Astrocytes
E)Red blood cells
Q2) After being filtered by lymph nodes, lymph flowing through lymphatic collecting vessels drains directly into
A)afferent lymphatic vessels.
B)lymphatic capillaries.
C)lymphatic trunks.
D)the subclavian veins.
E)collecting ducts.
Q3) The thymus is responsible for the maturation of B-lymphocytes.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 51: Respiratory Organs
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Q1) Blood vessels, nerves and a main bronchus all enter each lung at the hilum.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which type of epithelial tissue contains goblet cells and cilia, and lines the wall of the trachea?
A)Simple squamous epithelium
B)Simple columnar
C)Pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium
D)Stratified squamous
E)Simple cuboidal
Q3) In the bronchial tree, terminal bronchioles branch directly into A)alveolar sacs.
B)respiratory bronchioles.
C)alveoli.
D)large bronchioles.
E)alveolar ducts.
Q4) The paranasal sinuses open into the nasopharynx.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 52: Breathing and Respiratory Volumes
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Q1) Which of the following respiratory volumes or capacities has the highest volume?
A)Inspiratory reserve volume
B)Vital capacity
C)Functional residual capacity
D)Inspiratory capacity
E)Expiratory reserve volume
Q2) Respiratory capacities are the sums or two or more volumes.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is not a muscle of forced expiration?
A)Interosseous portion of the internal intercostals
B)Rectus abdominis
C)Pectoralis minor
D)External oblique
E)All of these are muscles of forced expiration.
Q4) Normal, quiet expiration does not require any muscle contraction; it is entirely a result of muscle relaxation and elastic recoil.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 53: Spirometry: Biopac Exercise
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Q1) Which of the following is not true of the vital capacity (VC)?
A)It can be calculated by adding the inspiratory reserve volume and the expiratory reserve volume.
B)It can be measured on a spirometer by taking a maximal inspiration, and then maximally expiring into the spirometer mouthpiece.
C)Restrictive lung disease, such as pulmonary fibrosis, can cause a decrease in VC.
D)Vital capacity (VC)is a larger volume than functional residual capacity (FRC).
E)All of these are true of the vital capacity.
Q2) A respiratory capacity is the sum of two or more volumes.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The expiatory reserve volume (ERV)is a much larger volume than the inspiratory reserve volume (IRV).
A)True
B)False
Q4) Inspiratory capacity (IC)cannot be measured with a spirometer.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 54: Control of Breathing
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Q1) Which major region of the central nervous system contains the respiratory centers?
A)spinal cord
B)Cerebrum
C)Diencephalon
D)Cerebellum
E)Brainstem
Q2) Which of the following is not true of the respiratory irritant receptors?
A)Stimulation of these receptors can lead to coughing or sneezing.
B)Stimulation of the respiratory irritant receptors results in dilations in the bronchial tree.
C)Sensory impulses from the irritant receptors are transported by the vagus nerve.
D)Sensory impulses from the irritant receptors are transported to the dorsal respiratory group.
E)All of these are true of the respiratory irritant receptors.
Q3) During normal, quiet breathing, the expiratory muscles are only minimally involved in the process of respiration.
A)True
B)False
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56
Chapter 55: Digestive Organs
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Q1) A hepatic triad contains branches of all of the following vessels except
A)the hepatic vein.
B)a bile ductule.
C)the hepatic artery.
D)the hepatic portal vein.
E)a hepatic triad contains branches of all of these vessels.
Q2) Which of the following are the minor lobes of the liver?
A)Right and left lobes
B)Quadrate and caudate lobes
C)Left and caudate lobes
D)Right and quadrate lobes
E)Left and quadrate lobes
Q3) Which of the following is not absorbed by the large intestine?
A)Water
B)Glucose
C)Some vitamins made by colon bacteria
D)Electrolytes
E)All of these are absorbed by the large intestine.
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Chapter 56: Action of a Digestive Enzyme
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Q1) Temperatures much higher than the optimum temperature denature enzymes, but colder temperatures do not.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which digestive organ produces the enzyme maltase?
A)Small intestine
B)Pancreas
C)Salivary glands
D)Stomach
E)Liver
Q3) Salivary amylase is deactivated by ________ in the stomach.
A)pepsinogen
B)bile
C)bicarbonate ions
D)lipase
E)hydrochloric acid
Q4) When an enzyme catalyzes a chemical reaction, it is consumed in the process, so it cannot be used repeatedly.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 57: Metabolism
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Q1) Metabolism is the sum of all of the chemical reactions within cells that release energy.
A)True B)False
Q2) Urea is derived from the breakdown of A)glycerol.
B)amino acids.
C)pyruvate.
D)fatty acids.
E)glucose.
Q3) In general, a person of higher weight consumes more energy (kcal/min)than a person of lower weight, when performing the same type of exercise at the same rate.
A)True B)False
Q4) Anabolic reactions release energy, while catabolic reactions use energy. A)True B)False
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Chapter 58: Urinary Organs
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Q1) Which of the following structures does not enter or exit the kidney at the hilum?
A)The renal column
B)The renal artery
C)The ureter
D)The renal vein
E)All of these structures enter or exit the kidney at the hilum.
Q2) Which of the following is not true of the urinary bladder?
A)The detrusor muscle makes up the muscular coat of the urinary bladder.
B)The trigone contains openings for the ureters and the urethra.
C)The bladder can store about 600 mL of urine, but the urge to void can be felt when it contains about 500 mL.
D)Rugae are folds of the mucosa that allow the urinary bladder to stretch for urine storage.
E)All of these are true of the urinary bladder.
Q3) As blood flows through the kidney, the cortical radiate arteries branch directly into the afferent arterioles.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 59: Urinalysis
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Sample Questions
Q1) An abnormal color of the urine can be caused by eating certain foods, such as beets or carrots; when this occurs, it is nonpathological.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is not true of the sediments found in urine samples?
A)Normal sediments include mucus, particular crystals, and various cells.
B)Sediments are examined under a microscope.
C)Many types are casts are normal sediments found in the urine.
D)The presence of epithelial cells that line the urinary tract in urine sediment indicates a urinary tract infection.
E)All of these are true of the sediments found in urine samples.
Q3) Which of the following would not cause an increase in the protein content of urine?
A)Kidney disease involving glomerular damage
B)Hypotension (low blood pressure)
C)Very strenuous exercise
D)Uncontrolled diabetes mellitus
E)All of these would cause an increase in the protein content of the urine.
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Chapter 60: Male Reproductive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) During the later part of fetal development, the testes descend into the scrotum through the A)epididymis.
B)ejaculatory duct.
C)urethra.
D)inguinal canal.
E)ureters.
Q2) When sperm leave the epididymis, they are transported directly into the A)seminal vesicles.
B)ductus deferens.
C)prostate gland.
D)urethra.
E)ejaculatory duct.
Q3) Which of the following is not true of testosterone?
A)It is a major male sex hormone.
B)It has a significant effect on sex drive.
C)It is produced by the sustentacular cells in the seminiferous tubules.
D)It is responsible for the development of secondary sexual characteristics.
E)All of these are true of testosterone.
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Chapter 61: Female Reproductive System
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Q1) The openings of the urethra and vagina are enclosed in a space called the
A)labia minora.
B)ampulla.
C)vestibule.
D)fundus.
E)fornix.
Q2) Which of the following structures is not entirely within the perineum of the female?
A)The mons pubis
B)The anus
C)The labia minora
D)The labia majora
E)The vestibule
Q3) When a female is standing in anatomical position, which of the following structures of the uterus is the most inferior?
A)The body
B)The fundus
C)The cervical canal
D)The fornix
E)The external os
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Page 63
Chapter 62: Meiosis, Fertilization, and Early Development
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Q1) What is the fate of the trophoblast of the blastocyst?
A)It develops into the morula.
B)It develops into the embryo.
C)It develops into the zygote.
D)It develops into the inner cell mass.
E)It develops into the extraembryonic membranes and part of the placenta.
Q2) All secondary oocytes complete the process of meiosis II.
A)True
B)False
Q3) During cleavage divisions, there is an increase in both the number and size of the cells.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following primary germ layers develops into the linings of the digestive, respiratory, and urinary organs?
A)Periderm
B)Endoderm
C)Mesoderm
D)Exoderm
E)Ectoderm
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Chapter 63: Genetics
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Q1) In coin toss experiments, as well as in traits inherited by children in the same family, each event is independent of all others; in other words, chance does not have a memory of previous events.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The specific combination of alleles that a person inherits for a certain trait is called the A)locus. B)phenotype.
C)genome.
D)homologous chromosome.
E)genotype.
Q3) In sex-linked traits, the cells of all offspring contain two copies of the genes for these traits.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Carriers of a recessive trait are always heterozygous for that trait.
A)True
B)False
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