

Human Biology Laboratory Practice Questions
Course Introduction
The Human Biology Laboratory course offers students practical, hands-on experience in exploring the fundamental concepts of human biology. Through a series of engaging laboratory exercises, students investigate topics such as human anatomy, physiology, genetics, cellular processes, and the function of various organ systems. The course emphasizes the scientific method, critical thinking, and proper laboratory techniques, including safe handling of equipment and accurate data collection. By actively participating in experiments, students gain a deeper understanding of the human body, the interrelationships among its systems, and how biological principles apply to everyday life and health.
Recommended Textbook Laboratory Manual for Human Anatomy and Physiology Main Version 4th Edition by Terry R. Martin
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63 Chapters
1044 Verified Questions
1044 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Scientific Method and Measurements
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15 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The difference between an independent variable and a dependent variable is that the dependent variable
A)can be changed.
B)is derived from the experimental results.
C)is determined before the experiment is conducted.
D)is equivalent to the hypothesis.
E)is equivalent to the observations.
Answer: B
Q2) Which step of the scientific method involves forming a tentative explanation of information?
A)Hypothesis
B)Observations
C)Conclusion
D)Experiment
E)Data analysis
Answer: A
Q3) The final step in the scientific method is data analysis.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Chapter 2: Body Organization, Membranes, and Terminology
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The anterior body cavity consists of the thoracic and abdominopelvic cavities.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) Which of the following regional terms refers to the back of the knee?
A)Popliteal
B)Cubital
C)Perineal
D)Sural
E)Crural
Answer: A
Q3) Which of the following is the function of the endocrine system?
A)To remove wastes and liquids from the body
B)To detect changes in the body, and stimulate glands and muscles
C)To return excess tissue fluid to the blood
D)To secrete hormones
E)To protect internal tissues
Answer: D
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Chapter 3: Chemistry of Life
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15 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following are true about the cabbage water tests, except
A)red cabbage contains a pigment that functions as a colorimetric pH indicator.
B)distilled water is used in this experiment as an example of a neutral substance.
C)vinegar is added to one of the test tubes as an example of an acidic substance.
D)baking soda is used in this experiment as an example of a basic substance.
E)All of the choices are correct.
Answer: E
Q2) All of the following are true of lipids, except
A)amino acids are a type of lipid.
B)some lipids are used for cellular structure.
C)triglycerides are also called fats.
D)lipids provide some cellular energy.
E)phospholipids are a type of lipid.
Answer: A
Q3) Sudan IV dye is a test for proteins.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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5
Chapter 4: Care and Use of the Microscope
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Sample Questions
Q1) If a microscopic lens is not clean, after cleaning it with lens paper or a cotton swab and lens cleaner, it should be cleaned with hydrochloric acid.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What is the working distance on a microscope?
A)The distance between your eye and the ocular lens
B)The distance between the condenser and the slide
C)The distance between the specimen and the slide
D)The distance between the objective lens and the slide
E)The distance between the ocular lens and the objective lens
Q3) When viewing a specimen on a compound light microscope, the image is right-side-up but reversed.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A compound microscope is one that has two ocular lenses.
A)True
B)False
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6

Chapter 5: Cell Structure and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nucleolus is the site of DNA replication.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What is the difference in function between the smooth and rough endoplasmic reticulum (ER)?
A)The rough ER produces ATP, while the smooth ER does not.
B)The rough ER helps with cellular movements, while the smooth ER does not.
C)The rough ER conducts lipid synthesis, while the smooth ER conducts protein synthesis.
D)The rough ER breaks down lipids, while the smooth ER breaks down proteins and debris.
E)The rough ER conducts protein synthesis, while the smooth ER conducts lipid synthesis.
Q3) All of the following are true of the plasma membrane, except
A)it is mainly composed of a phospholipid bilayer.
B)it is selectively permeable to various substances, controlling which substances can cross the membrane.
C)the glycocalyx provides structural integrity to the plasma membrane.
D)transmembrane proteins may function as ion channels, enzymes, or receptors.
E)charged or large molecules can sometimes enter a cell via membrane proteins.
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Chapter 6: Movements Through Membranes
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the molasses experiment, after 30 minutes, the molasses level in the stem of the thistle tube had gone up.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In the filtration experiment, which substances passed through the filter paper because of their small molecular size?
A)Water, glucose, starch, and charcoal
B)Water, glucose, and starch
C)Water and glucose
D)Starch and charcoal
E)Water, starch, and charcoal
Q3) Which of the following is NOT an active process by which substances cross the plasma membrane?
A)Pinocytosis
B)Filtration
C)Active transport
D)Phagocytosis
E)All of these are active processes.
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8

Chapter 7: Cell Cycle
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nucleolus and nuclear envelope, which disperse during ________, are reassembled during ________.
A)prophase; metaphase
B)anaphase; telophase
C)prophase; telophase
D)interphase; anaphase
E)prophase; interphase
Q2) Which of the following is the correct sequence of the phases of interphase?
A)G , G , G
B)G , S, G
C)S, G , G
D)G ,G , G , S
E)G , G , S
Q3) The phase directly after the G phase in the cell cycle is ________.
A)the S phase
B)telophase
C)interphase
D)prophase
E)anaphase
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Page 9

Chapter 8: Epithelial Tissues
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the function of goblet cells, which are sometimes found interspersed throughout pseudostratified and simple columnar epithelium?
A)To produce new epithelial cells to replace worn out cells
B)To produce and secrete mucus
C)To provide oxygen to the nearby epithelial cells
D)To absorb nutrients for the epithelial cells
E)To engulf and destroy invading microorganisms
Q2) Which type of epithelial tissue is found in several structures of the urinary system, such as the urinary bladder and the ureters?
A)Pseudostratified ciliated columnar
B)Simple columnar
C)Transitional
D)Stratified cuboidal
E)Simple squamous
Q3) A tissue sliced on an angle to be made into a histology slide is said to be an oblique section.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 9: Connective Tissues
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following are dense connective tissues except
A)elastic connective tissue.
B)dense irregular connective tissue.
C)reticular connective tissue.
D)dense regular connective tissue.
E)All of these are types of dense connective tissue.
Q2) Which of the following types of connective tissue is avascular (contains no blood vessels)?
A)Bone
B)Reticular connective tissue
C)Adipose tissue
D)Cartilage
E)Areolar connective tissue
Q3) Which type of connective tissue insulates the body from heat loss, protects certain organs from injury, and stores energy in the form of fat?
A)Areolar connective tissue
B)Reticular connective tissue
C)Dense regular connective tissue
D)Fibrocartilage
E)Adipose tissue
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Chapter 10: Muscle and Nervous Tissues
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Sample Questions
Q1) Branched muscle fibers and intercalated discs are characteristic of ________ muscle tissue.
A)smooth
B)voluntary
C)cardiac
D)multinucleated
E)skeletal
Q2) Which type(s)of muscle tissue is/are striated?
A)Skeletal only
B)Smooth only
C)Skeletal and cardiac
D)Skeletal and smooth
E)Cardiac only
Q3) Both neurons and neuroglia are able to generate and conduct nerve impulses.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Nerve cells are also called neuroglia.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 11: Integumentary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which structure of the hair follicle supplies the capillaries that provide the growing hair with oxygen and nutrients?
A)Hair papilla
B)Hair root
C)Hair shaft
D)Hair matrix
E)Hair bulb
Q2) Most of the accessory structures of the skin are found in the dermis.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is NOT true of nail structure?
A)Cell division occurs in the cuticle.
B)The nail plate consists of the nail root, and nail body, and the free edge.
C)The nail bed consists of cells of the stratum basale.
D)The nail plate consists of dead cells of the stratum corneum.
E)All of these are true of nail structure.
Q4) Sweat glands are also called sudoriferous glands.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 12: Bone Structure and Classification
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Sample Questions
Q1) Osteons are only found in compact bone.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is NOT true of the cartilage of the adult skeleton?
A)Intervertebral discs lie between adjacent vertebrae, and provide shock absorption for the vertebrae.
B)Costal cartilages connect the ribs to the sternum.
C)Articular cartilage is found on the ends of bones in joints, and reduces friction between joint-forming surfaces of the bones.
D)Costal cartilage, articular cartilage, and intervertebral discs are all composed of fibrocartilage.
E)All of these are true of the cartilage of the adult skeleton.
Q3) Which of the following contain red bone marrow in the adult skeleton?
A)The proximal epiphyses of the femurs
B)The radius and ulna
C)The tibia and fibula
D)The phalanges of the hands and feet
E)None of these structures contain red bone marrow in the adult skeleton.
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Chapter 13: Organization of the Skeleton
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Sample Questions
Q1) A cavity in a bone, especially in a bone of the skull, is called a ________.
A)fissure
B)tuberosity
C)meatus
D)foramen
E)sinus
Q2) Which of the following is NOT true of ossification?
A)Intramembranous ossification involves bone formation from hyaline cartilage models.
B)Most bones develop by endochondral ossification.
C)In both intramembranous and endochondral ossification, both spongy and compact bone form.
D)Ossification occurs during fetal growth and childhood.
E)All of these are true of ossification.
Q3) Articulations are bone markings that occur where bones fit together in a joint.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The axial skeleton contains more bones than the appendicular skeleton.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 14: Skull
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Sample Questions
Q1) The supraorbital foramen is found on the ________, while the infraorbital foramen is found on the ________.
A)maxilla; frontal bone
B)maxilla; mandible
C)zygomatic bone; lacrimal bone
D)frontal bone; maxilla
E)nasal bone; mandible
Q2) Which of the following is classified as a cranial bone?
A)Ethmoid bone
B)Zygomatic bone
C)Palatine bone
D)Lacrimal bone
E)Inferior nasal concha
Q3) The skull consists of 8 cranial bones and 14 facial bones.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The skull is part of the appendicular skeleton.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 15: Vertebral Column and Thoracic Cage
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Sample Questions
Q1) The vertebral column extends from the first cervical vertebra (C1)to the fifth lumbar vertebra (L5).
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is NOT true of the anatomy of the sacrum?
A)The inferior end of the sacrum articulates with the coccyx.
B)Nothing passes through the sacral foramina; they are membrane-covered openings.
C)The sacral canal is a continuation of the vertebral canal.
D)The median sacral crest consists of the fused spinous processes of the sacral vertebrae.
E)All of these are true of the anatomy of the sacrum.
Q3) Which of the following is NOT true of the curvatures of the vertebral column?
A)The thoracic and sacral curvatures are convex on the anterior side and concave on the posterior side.
B)There are four curvatures of the vertebral column.
C)Primary curvatures are formed by the time of birth.
D)The cervical and lumbar curvatures are secondary curvatures.
E)All of these are true of the curvatures of the vertebral column.
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Chapter 16: Pectoral Girdle and Upper Limb
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which bone of the pectoral girdle or upper limb is S-shaped?
A)Radius
B)Scapula
C)Ulna
D)Humerus
E)Clavicle
Q2) Which of the following is NOT true of the bones of the hand?
A)The hand contains a single metacarpal for each digit.
B)The carpals are arranged in 2 rows of 4 bones each.
C)The metacarpals articulate with the proximal phalanges.
D)All 5 digits of the hand contain 3 phalanges.
E)All of these are true of the bones of the hand.
Q3) Anatomically, the forearm represents the region from the
A)elbow to the fingers.
B)shoulder to the elbow.
C)elbow to the wrist.
D)shoulder to the fingers.
E)wrist to the fingers.
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18

Chapter 17: Pelvic Girdle and Lower Limb
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following structures is the weakest portion of the femur, and is a common site of fracture in a "broken hip"?
A)Head
B)Neck
C)Fovea capitis
D)Greater trochanter
E)Lesser trochanter
Q2) Which of the following is the most anterior portion of the hip bone?
A)Ischium
B)Ilium
C)Acetabulum
D)Pubis
E)Ischial tuberosity
Q3) The patellar surface, which articulates with the patella, is found on the tibia.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The 2 hip bones, sacrum, and coccyx form the pelvic girdle.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 18: Fetal Skeleton
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following fontanels involve(s)the occipital bone?
A)Posterior only
B)Anterior and sphenoidal
C)Mastoid only
D)Sphenoidal only
E)Mastoid and posterior
Q2) All of the fontanels close by the end of the first year after birth.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The facial part of an adult skull makes up about one-half of the skull; the facial part of a fetal skull at the time of birth makes up about ________ of the skull.
A)one-third
B)one-fourth
C)one-half
D)one-twentieth
E)one-eighth
Q4) All of the fontanels of the fetal/infant skull involve the parietal bones.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 19: Joint Structure and Movements
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Sample Questions
Q1) Medial and lateral excursion are special joint movements that involve the mandible.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What type of synovial joints are metacarpophalangeal joints?
A)Condylar
B)Hinge
C)Pivot
D)Ball-and-socket
E)Saddle
Q3) Which of the following joints is/are capable of circumduction?
A)Elbow and knee
B)Shoulder and hip
C)Hip and knee
D)Shoulder, hip, elbow, and knee
E)Shoulder and elbow
Q4) An epiphyseal plate of a long bone is an example of a temporary joint.
A)True
B)False
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21

Chapter 20: Skeletal Muscle Structure and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the role of tropomyosin in a sarcomere?
A)It is the main protein component of thin myofilaments.
B)It blocks the active sites on actin filaments in relaxed muscle fibers.
C)It is the main component of elastic filaments.
D)It is the main protein component in thick myofilaments.
E)It binds to calcium to initiate muscle contraction.
Q2) A muscle that contracts to assist the main muscle in performing a particular action is called a(n)
A)prime mover.
B)fixator.
C)antagonist.
D)agonist.
E)synergist.
Q3) Which region of a sarcomere contains thick filaments overlapping with thin filaments?
A)A band
B)Z line
C)H zone
D)I band
E)M line
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Chapter 21: Electromyography: Biopac Exercise
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Sample Questions
Q1) One of the unique characteristics of skeletal muscle is that it contracts only when stimulated by
A)motor neurons.
B)stretch of the muscle tissue.
C)certain hormones.
D)pH changes.
E)temperature changes.
Q2) Which of the following is NOT true of muscle fatigue?
A)It involves a decrease in the force of muscle contraction, even when the muscle is still under stimulation.
B)It may be caused by conduction failure, due to accumulation of K ions in the transverse tubules of skeletal muscle fibers
C)It usually occurs when a muscle is being stimulated during very light work or exercise.
D)It may be caused by decreased responsiveness of a muscle fiber to low pH, resulting from a build-up of lactic acid
E)All of these are true of muscle fatigue.
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Chapter 22: Muscles of the Head and Neck
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following muscles of facial expression inserts on the orbicularis oris, and compresses the cheeks when blowing air?
A)Buccinator
B)Mentalis
C)Platyma
D)Risorius
E)Zygomaticus major
Q2) Which of the following is the only muscle of mastication that depresses and protracts the mandible?
A)Medial pterygoid
B)Buccinator
C)Lateral pterygoid
D)Masseter
E)Termporalis
Q3) Which of the following nerves innervates the muscles of mastication?
A)Trigeminal nerve
B)Ansa cervicalis
C)Accessory nerve
D)Hypoglossal nerve
E)Facial nerve
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Chapter 23: Muscles of the Chest, Shoulder, and Upper
Limb
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Sample Questions
Q1) Most of the muscles that move the forearm and hand are innervated by the ________ nerve(s).
A)ulnar
B)musculocutaneous C)axillary
D)suprascapular
E)median and radial
Q2) Which of the following is NOT true of the biceps brachii muscle?
A)It is innervated by the musculocutaneous nerve.
B)It flexes the elbow, and also supinates the forearm and hand
C)The name of the muscle implies that it has 2 origins.
D)It inserts on the olecranon process of the ulna.
E)All of these are true of the biceps brachii muscle.
Q3) Which of the following muscles that move(s)the pectoral girdle retract(s)and elevate(s)the scapula?
A)Levator scapulae
B)Trapezius
C)Serratus anterior
D)Rhomboid major and minor
E)Pectoralis minor

Page 25
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Chapter 24: Muscles of the Vertebral Column, Abdominal
Wall, and Pelvic Floor
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Sample Questions
Q1) The anterior portion of the perineum is called the A)anal triangle.
B)genital opening.
C)urogenital triangle.
D)external anal sphincter.
E)pelvic diaphragm.
Q2) Which muscle(s)of the pelvic floor is/are responsible for erection of the penis and clitoris?
A)Bulbospongiosus only
B)Superficial transverse perineal muscle and coccygeus
C)Ischiocavernosus only
D)Bulbospongiosus and ischiocavernosus
E)Coccygeus only
Q3) Which muscles form the outermost layer of the layered abdominal wall muscles?
A)Internal oblique
B)External intercostal
C)Transversus abdominis
D)Rectus abdominis
E)External oblique
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Chapter 25: Muscles of the Hip and Lower Limb
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the major adductors of the thigh have origins on the A)ilium.
B)ischium.
C)pubis.
D)greater trochanter of the femur.
E)linea aspera of the femur.
Q2) The gluteus maximus, medius, and minimus muscles all have the same action (extension of the thigh at the hip).
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is NOT true of the hamstring group of muscles?
A)It consists of the biceps femoris, semitendinosus, and semimembranosus.
B)All of the hamstrings insert on both the tibia and the fibula.
C)All of the hamstrings cause flexion of the leg at the knee.
D)All of the hamstrings have origins on the ischial tuberosity, although the biceps femoris has an additional origin.
E)All of these are true of the hamstrings.
Q4) Some of the muscles of the hip and lower limb cross more than one joint.
A)True
B)False

Page 27
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Chapter 26: Surface Anatomy
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Sample Questions
Q1) The temporomandibular joint can best be palpated on the A)posterior side of the neck.
B)lateral side of the head.
C)lateral side of the neck.
D)posterior side of the head.
E)anterior side of the neck.
Q2) The transverse arch is a A)bony feature of the torso.
B)soft tissue feature of the lower limb.
C)soft tissue feature of the upper limb.
D)soft tissue feature of the torso.
E)bony feature of the lower limb.
Q3) The xiphoid process is a A)bony feature of the torso.
B)soft tissue feature of the head.
C)bony feature of the upper limb.
D)soft tissue feature of the lower limb.
E)soft tissue feature of the torso.
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Chapter 27: Nervous Tissue and Nerves
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is found in the posterior root ganglion of a spinal nerve?
A)A cluster of sensory neuron cell bodies
B)A mass of axons of motor neurons
C)A cluster of cell bodies of interneurons
D)A cluster of motor neuron cell bodies
E)A mass of axons of interneurons
Q2) Pertaining to the nervous system, what is an effector?
A)A cell or nerve ending that transmits sensory information to a sensory neuron
B)An interneuron
C)A motor neuron
D)A type of neuroglia that physically supports neurons in the CNS
E)A muscle or gland that receives a nerve impulse from a motor neuron
Q3) Which of the following is NOT true of the myelin sheath?
A)The myelin sheath increases the speed of nerve impulse conduction.
B)The myelin sheath is an electric insulator.
C)The myelin sheath forms a wrapped coating around both axons and dendrites.
D)The myelin sheath is part of a living cell.
E)All of these are true of the myelin sheath.
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29

Chapter 28: Meninges, Spinal Cord, and Spinal Nerves
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Sample Questions
Q1) The anterior roots of the spinal nerves contain motor neurons.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is NOT true of the epidural space?
A)It lies between the vertebrae and the dura mater.
B)It contains connective tissue and blood vessels.
C)It contains cerebrospinal fluid.
D)It is the site for epidural injections of anesthetics.
E)All of these are true of the epidural space.
Q3) The obturator and genitofemoral nerves are part of the ________ plexus.
A)lumbar
B)thoracic
C)cervical
D)brachial
E)sacral
Q4) Spinal nerves are called mixed nerves because they contain both sensory and motor nerve fibers.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 29: Reflex Arc and Somatic Reflexes
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Q1) A reflex arc is the simplest kind of neural pathway in the nervous system.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What is the role of an inhibitory interneuron in a stretch reflex?
A)It is used to inhibit the antagonistic muscles from contracting at the same time as the effectors of the reflex.
B)It is used to ensure that the effectors do not contract excessively.
C)It sends inhibitory commands to the opposite limb, so it will not respond.
D)It ensures that the reflex does not damage the effectors.
E)Inhibitory interneurons are not involved in stretch reflexes.
Q3) Which of the following represents the correct order of components in a reflex arc?
A)Effector, sensory neuron, integration center, motor neuron, receptor
B)Receptor, sensory neuron, integration center, motor neuron, effector
C)Sensory neuron, receptor, integration center, motor neuron, effector
D)Receptor, motor neuron, integration center, sensory receptor, effector
E)Integration center, receptor, sensory neuron, effector, motor neuron
Q4) Stretch reflexes and withdrawal reflexes are types of autonomic reflexes.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 30: Brain and Cranial Nerves
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Q1) Which portion of the cerebellum is the deep branching pattern of white matter?
A)Thalamus
B)Arbor vitae
C)Falx cerebelli
D)Cerebellar cortex
E)Vermis
Q2) Which of the following is the main area of the brain that receives information from skin receptors and proprioceptors?
A)Wernicke's area
B)Motor association area
C)Primary somatosensory cortex
D)Insula
E)Somatosensory association cortex
Q3) Which of the following is NOT true of the ventricles of the brain?
A)They are blood-filled chambers.
B)They are all interconnected.
C)There are 2 lateral ventricles.
D)The fourth ventricle lies between the pons and the cerebellum.
E)All of these are true of the ventricles of the brain.
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Page 32

Chapter 31: Reaction Time: Biopac Exercise
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Q1) The response to laying one's hand on a hot stove is an example of a A)stretch
B)cranial
C)voluntary
D)monosynaptic
E)withdrawal
Q2) Which of the following is NOT true of involuntary reflex responses?
A)They require the stimulation of specific receptors.
B)They occur more slowly than voluntary responses.
C)They require the transmission of nerve impulses.
D)They do not require input from the cerebral cortex.
E)They involve fewer neurons than voluntary responses.
Q3) In the statistical calculations in this experiment, the average reaction time for all subjects in each condition is called the group
A)variance.
B)median.
C)standard deviation.
D)mean.
E)mode.
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Page 33

Chapter 32: Electroencephalography I: Biopac Exercise
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Q1) Many neurons firing in synchrony results in a brain wave with high amplitude.
A)True
B)False
Q2) How is desynchronization of the alpha waves observed in the EEG, when a person with eyes closed suddenly opens them?
A)The amplitude of the alpha wave increases.
B)The frequency of the alpha wave increases.
C)The amplitude of the alpha wave decreases.
D)The frequency of the alpha wave decreases.
E)The alpha waves stop, as shown by an amplitude and a frequency of 0.
Q3) A high degree of alertness is indicated in the EEG by
A)brain waves with a low frequency.
B)brain waves with a high amplitude.
C)brain waves with a medium amplitude and a medium frequency.
D)brain waves with a high frequency.
E)brain waves with a low amplitude.
Q4) All 4 types of brain waves can usually be observed in the EEG of a normal adult.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 33: Dissection of the Sheep Brain
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Q1) Which layer of the meninges is thick and opaque?
A)Arachnoid mater
B)Infundibulum
C)Dura mater
D)Mammillary body
E)Pia mater
Q2) In a median section of a sheep brain, the thalamus lies ________ the midbrain.
A)superior
B)lateral
C)anterior
D)inferior
E)posterior
Q3) When comparing relative sizes, human olfactory bulbs are larger than those of sheep.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The brains of mammals have many common structural features.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 34: General Senses
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Q1) Which of the following receptors do not consist of free nerve endings?
A)Warm receptors
B)Meissner's corpuscles
C)Cold receptors
D)Nociceptors
E)All of these receptors consist of free nerve endings.
Q2) Areas of the body that are capable of precise tactile localization contain more abundant touch receptors than areas that are not.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is NOT true of Meissner's corpuscles?
A)They are also called tactile corpuscles.
B)They are numerous in the hands, feet, joints, and external genital organs.
C)They are most abundant in the hypodermis.
D)They are stimulated by light touch.
E)All of these are true of Meissner's corpuscles.
Q4) All sensory neurons have receptive fields of approximately the same size.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 35: Smell and Taste
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Q1) Umami taste receptors are sensitive to A)sodium or potassium salts.
B)sugars.
C)aspartic acid, glutamic acid, and MSG.
D)acids.
E)alkaloids and spoiled foods.
Q2) The vagus nerve transmits gustatory nerve impulses from the entire tongue to the brain.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In the absence of olfaction, the sense of gustation is diminished.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The smell and taste of foods are influenced by all of the following except
A)the appearance of the food.
B)the texture of the food.
C)the temperature of the food.
D)a person's mood.
E)all of these influence the smell and taste of foods.
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Chapter 36: Eye Structure
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Q1) Vision is one of the special senses, because its receptors are found within complex sensory organs in the head.
A)True
B)False
Q2) All of the following structures in the eye are black, due to the presence of melanin pigment, except
A)the choroid.
B)the ciliary body.
C)the retina.
D)the pigmented epithelium.
E)All of these eye structures are black, due to the presence of melanin pigment.
Q3) Which structure of the cow (or sheep)eye is not present in humans, and helps to reflect light back through the retina, to provide good night vision?
A)Tarsal gland
B)Trochlea
C)Blind spot
D)Tapetum fibrosum
E)Ora serrata
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Chapter 37: Visual Tests and Demonstrations
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT true of accommodation?
A)It refers to a change in the shape of the lens, as a person focuses on a near object.
B)When a person focuses on a close object, the lens becomes more spherical.
C)When accommodation occurs, tension is released on the suspensory ligaments holding the lens.
D)It is accomplished by a reflex in the iris.
E)All of these are true of accommodation.
Q2) A defect in the curvature of the cornea or lens results in a condition called A)emmetropia.
B)hyperopia.
C)myopia.
D)astigmatism.
E)presbyopia.
Q3) The near point of accommodation increases with age.
A)True
B)False
Q4) About 7% of females are colorblind.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 38: Ear and Hearing
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT true of sound wave frequency?
A)Different sound wave frequencies are perceived as different degrees of loudness.
B)The units for sound wave frequency are hertz (Hz).
C)Different sound wave frequencies stimulate specific hair cells in certain portions of the spiral organ.
D)Sound wave frequency can be reported in waves per second.
E)All of these are true of sound wave frequency.
Q2) The inner ear contains the organs for both hearing and equilibrium.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a chamber found in the cochlea?
A)Scala tympani
B)Vestibule
C)Cochlear duct
D)Scala vestibuli
E)All of these are chambers found in the cochlea.
Q4) The tympanic cavity is a fluid-filled chamber in the middle ear.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 39: Ear and Equilibrium
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Q1) The organs of static and dynamic equilibrium both contain hair cells, with stereocilia embedded in a gelatinous mass.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is not true of the sense of static equilibrium?
A)It helps to keep the head in balance when a person is not moving.
B)It is also called gravitational equilibrium.
C)The sense organs are found within the vestibule.
D)It helps a person maintain balance during angular acceleration.
E)All of these are true of the sense of static equilibrium.
Q3) Vestibular input to the cerebellum provides A)motor coordination.
B)awareness of spatial orientation.
C)compensatory eye movements.
D)awareness of movement.
E)all of these functions.
Q4) The crista ampullaris projects into the lumen of the bony labyrinth of the semicircular canal.
A)True
B)False

Page 41
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Chapter 40: Endocrine Structure and Function
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Q1) In the regulation of body processes, the effects or hormones last longer than those of neurotransmitters.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is not true of true hormones?
A)Each hormone can only influence target cells that contain receptors for it.
B)They are secreted by both endocrine or exocrine glands.
C)Some hormones influence the rates of chemical reactions in their target cells.
D)Some hormones regulate water and electrolyte balance.
E)All of these are true of true hormones.
Q3) A major difference between endocrine and exocrine glands is that endocrine glands are ductless.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The theca folliculi, which surrounds mature follicles in the ovary, produces androgens (male sex hormones).
A)True
B)False
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42

Chapter 41: Diabetic Physiology
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Q1) While a person is sleeping or between meals, blood glucose decreases and insulin level increases.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The primary source of cellular energy (fuel)is glucose.
A)True
B)False
Q3) All of the following are possible symptoms of insulin shock except A)rapid heart rate.
B)hyperglycemia.
C)mental disorientation and/or anxiety.
D)impaired vision.
E)sweating.
Q4) Which of the following is not true of type 1 diabetes mellitus?
A)It is an autoimmune disease.
B)It accounts for 85-90% of all cases of diabetes mellitus.
C)Treatment for this disease requires insulin administration.
D)It normally begins early in life.
E)All of these are true of type 1 diabetes mellitus.
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Chapter 42: Blood Cells
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Q1) If your differential white blood cell count contained 60% neutrophils, what could you conclude?
A)That you have an excess of neutrophils
B)That you might have a fungal infection
C)That you have a deficiency of neutrophils
D)That you might have an autoimmune disease
E)That you have a normal percentage of neutrophils
Q2) Which of the following is not true of red blood cells?
A)The biconcave disc shape makes them look hollow in their centers.
B)They are also called erythrocytes.
C)They transport oxygen through the blood, but not carbon dioxide.
D)They contain hemoglobin for gas transport.
E)All of these are true of red blood cells.
Q3) Which of the following is not true of eosinophils?
A)They destroy parasites.
B)They are classified as granulocytes.
C)They produce antibodies.
D)They make up 1-3% of the white blood cells.
E)All of these are true of eosinophils.
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Page 44
Chapter 43: Blood Testing
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Q1) During hemostasis, the final stage of blood coagulation involves
A)the conversion of prothrombin to thrombin.
B)the formation of a platelet plug.
C)the conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin.
D)blood vessel spasm.
E)the secretion of serotonin.
Q2) When a blood sample is spun down in a centrifuge tube, the blood plasma settles to the bottom, due it is high viscosity.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A normal average hematocrit in a male is about
A)15%.
B)45%.
C)25%.
D)<1%.
E)55%.
Q4) The binding site for oxygen molecules in red blood cells is the globin portion of the hemoglobin molecules.
A)True
B)False

Page 45
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Chapter 44: Blood Typing
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Q1) Anti-A and anti-B antibodies are also called agglutinogens.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A harmful reaction may occur in some cases, even when using the universal donor blood type for a transfusion.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Anti-D serum can be mixed with a person's blood to check for the presence of A)anti-A antibodies.
B)Rh antigens.
C)anti-B antibodies.
D)B antigens.
E)anti-Rh antibodies.
Q4) If you mixed a person's red blood cells with anti-B antibodies, and the red blood cells agglutinated, what could you conclude?
A)That the person's red blood cell membranes contain antigen B
B)That the person has type B blood
C)That the person has type AB blood
D)That the person's red blood cell membranes contain antigen A
E)That the person's blood is Rh+

Page 46
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Chapter 45: Heart Structure
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Q1) Several large blood vessels attach to the inferior end of the heart.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Ridges of heart muscle located within the right atrium and the auricles are called the
A)pectinate muscles.
B)interatrial sulci.
C)atrioventricular orifices.
D)trabeculae carneae.
E)papillary muscles.
Q3) Which of the heart valves contain chordae tendineae?
A)The aortic and pulmonary semilunar valves
B)The tricuspid and mitral valves
C)The aortic and mitral valves
D)The pulmonary and tricuspid valves
E)All of the heart valves
Q4) The large arteries associated with the heart all transport oxygen-rich blood.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 46: Cardiac Cycle
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Q1) Which of the following shows the components of the cardiac conduction system in the correct sequence?
A)AV bundle, left and right bundle branches, SA node, AV node, Purkinje fibers
B)AV node, SA node, Purkinje fibers, AV bundle, left and right bundle branches
C)SA node, AV node, AV bundle, left and right bundle branches, Purkinje fibers
D)Purkinje fibers, left and right bundle branches, AV bundle, SA node, AV node
E)SA node, Purkinje fibers, AV node, AV bundle, left and right bundle branches
Q2) In the standard leads I, II, and III used in this lab exercise, which location is used as the ground?
A)The left ankle
B)The right wrist
C)The right ankle
D)The left wrist
E)Either wrist or either ankle can be used as the ground.
Q3) The first and second heart sounds are derived from the opening of the heart valves.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 47: Electrocardiography: Biopac Exercise
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Q1) There is a short period of time in the cardiac cycle, in which all four heart chambers are in diastole.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Functionally, how is cardiac muscle tissue controlled, compared to that of skeletal muscle tissue?
A)Both cardiac and skeletal muscle tissue are controlled by somatic motor neurons.
B)Cardiac muscle tissue is controlled by pacemaker cells within the heart, while skeletal muscle tissue is regulated by somatic motor neurons.
C)Cardiac and skeletal muscle tissue are controlled by both somatic motor neurons and by pacemaker cells within the respective tissues.
D)Both cardiac and skeletal muscle tissue are controlled by pacemaker cells within the respective tissues.
E)Cardiac muscle tissue is controlled by somatic motor neurons, while skeletal muscle tissue is controlled by pacemaker cells within the tissue.
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Chapter 48: Blood Vessel Structure, Arteries, and Veins
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Q1) Which of the following arteries connects the popliteal artery to the dorsalis pedis artery?
A)Femoral artery
B)Posterior tibial artery
C)Patellar artery
D)Crural artery
E)Anterior tibial artery
Q2) In the pulmonary circuit, there is/are ________ pulmonary trunk(s), ________ pulmonary artery(-ies), and ________ pulmonary vein(s).
A)1; 2; 4
B)1; 2; 2
C)2; 2; 2
D)1; 1; 2
E)4; 2; 1
Q3) The pulmonary trunk emerges from the ________ of the heart.
A)left ventricle
B)right atrium
C)apex
D)left atrium
E)right ventricle
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Chapter 49: Pulse Rate and Blood Pressure
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Q1) When a person who is lying down suddenly stands up, the pulse rate decreases, due to the effects of gravity.
A)True
B)False
Q2) After blood flows through the capillaries, the blood pressure derived from the heart is insufficient to return blood to the heart through the veins.
A)True
B)False
Q3) When a person suddenly moves from a supine position to a standing position, the blood pressure increases.
A)True
B)False
Q4) When the left ventricle is at the end of its filling cycle, the ________ pressure is reached.
A)pulse
B)diastolic
C)cardiac
D)systolic
E)mean arterial
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Chapter 50: Lymphatic System
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Q1) The largest vessels of the lymphatic system are the
A)lymphatic collecting vessels.
B)lymph nodes.
C)collecting ducts.
D)lymphatic capillaries.
E)lymphatic trunks.
Q2) The thymus is responsible for the maturation of B-lymphocytes.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In the spleen, the white pulp contains ________ and the red pulp contains
A)red blood cells; neutrophils, basophils, and eosinophils
B)neutrophils; monocytes
C)mostly macrophages; mainly lymphocytes
D)mostly red blood cells with some lymphocytes and macrophages; mainly lymphocytes
E)mainly lymphocytes; mostly red blood cells with some lymphocytes and macrophages
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Chapter 51: Respiratory Organs
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Q1) Blood vessels, nerves and a main bronchus all enter each lung at the hilum.
A)True
B)False
Q2) External respiration is the same as pulmonary ventilation.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The narrow air passages through the nasal cavity are called
A)nasal meatuses.
B)external nares.
C)nasal conchae.
D)paranasal sinuses.
E)nasal septa.
Q4) Which of the following is not true of the larynx?
A)The glottis consists of the vocal folds and the opening between them.
B)All of the air that enters the lungs must go through the larynx first.
C)The thyrohyoid ligament connects the hyoid bone to the larynx.
D)The vestibular folds are the only vocal cords that produce sound.
E)All of these are true of the larynx.
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Chapter 52: Breathing and Respiratory Volumes
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Q1) Boyle's law states that
A)the thinner the respiratory membrane, the faster diffusion will occur.
B)the pressure of a gas is proportional to its volume.
C)the higher the temperature of a gas, the greater its volume will be.
D)the higher the temperature of a gas, the higher its pressure will be.
E)the pressure of a gas is inversely proportional to its volume.
Q2) Which of the following respiratory volumes or capacities has the highest volume?
A)Inspiratory reserve volume
B)Vital capacity
C)Functional residual capacity
D)Inspiratory capacity
E)Expiratory reserve volume
Q3) The ________ can be calculated by multiplying breathing rate by tidal volume.
A)alveolar ventilation rate
B)anatomic dead space
C)inspiratory reserve volume
D)minute respiratory volume
E)inspiratory capacity
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Chapter 53: Spirometry: Biopac Exercise
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Q1) Inspiratory capacity (IC)cannot be measured with a spirometer.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A respiratory capacity is the sum of two or more volumes.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The expiatory reserve volume (ERV)is a much larger volume than the inspiratory reserve volume (IRV).
A)True
B)False
Q4) Obstructive lung diseases, such as chronic bronchitis, often cause an elevation in the functional residual capacity (FRC)and the residual volume (RV).
A)True
B)False
Q5) Total lung capacity (TLC)cannot be measured with a spirometer. A)True
B)False
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Chapter 54: Control of Breathing
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Sample Questions
Q1) During normal, quiet breathing, the expiratory muscles are only minimally involved in the process of respiration.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Muscles of inspiration include all of the following except the A)external obliques.
B)pectoralis minor.
C)scalenes.
D)external intercostals.
E)All of these are muscles of inspiration.
Q3) The most significant factor in determining changes in the rate and depth of breathing is the blood concentration of oxygen.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The ventral respiratory group sends impulses through an integrating center in the spinal cord, and then to the intercostal nerves, which stimulate contraction of the diaphragm.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 55: Digestive Organs
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Q1) The stomach absorbs a significant amount of digested food.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Most of the digestion and absorption in the small intestine is accomplished by the ________; the longest portion of the small intestine is the ________.
A)ileum; jejunum
B)duodenum; jejunum
C)jejunum; ileum
D)jejunum; duodenum
E)duodenum; ileum
Q3) A hepatic triad contains branches of all of the following vessels except
A)the hepatic vein.
B)a bile ductule.
C)the hepatic artery.
D)the hepatic portal vein.
E)a hepatic triad contains branches of all of these vessels.
Q4) Dentin forms most of a tooth, and it is the hardest substance in the body.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 56: Action of a Digestive Enzyme
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Q1) All digestive enzymes have the same optimum pH ranges.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In the amylase activity experiment, Benedict's solution tests for the presence of A)triglycerides.
B)amino acids.
C)protein.
D)maltose.
E)starch.
Q3) Denaturation does not alter the primary structure of an enzyme.
A)True
B)False
Q4) In the amylase activity experiment, the development of a blue-black color upon the addition of iodine-potassium-iodide to the test tube indicates that
A)the starch has been broken down.
B)the starch has been denatured.
C)amylase is functioning at its optimum temperature.
D)the starch has not been broken down.
E)glucose is present in the test tube.
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Chapter 57: Metabolism
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Q1) Metabolism is the sum of all of the chemical reactions within cells that release energy.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In the catabolic pathways of dietary nutrients, which step(s)produce(s)no ATP?
A)Krebs cycle
B)Oxidative phosphorylation
C)Glycolysis and the Krebs cycle
D)Glycolysis
E)ATP is produced in all of the steps in the catabolic pathways of dietary nutrients.
Q3) Which of the following is not a product of aerobic food catabolism?
A)Carbon dioxide
B)ATP
C)Water
D)Heat
E)All of these are products of aerobic food catabolism.
Q4) Oxygen consumption is normally directly proportional to metabolic rate.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 58: Urinary Organs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not true of the urethra?
A)It is about the same length in males and females.
B)It contains two sphincters, one composed of smooth muscle, and the other composed of skeletal muscle.
C)The type of epithelium found in the mucous coat changes between the base of the urinary bladder and the external urethral orifice.
D)It contains urethral glands, which secrete protective mucus into the lumen of the urethra.
E)All of these are true of the urethra.
Q2) As blood flows through the kidney, blood from the efferent arteriole flows directly into the
A)peritubular capillaries.
B)glomerulus.
C)renal vein.
D)afferent arteriole.
E)cortical radiate vein.
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Chapter 59: Urinalysis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following substances is a normal component of urine?
A)Urobilinogen
B)Leukocytes
C)Hemoglobin
D)Nitrites
E)Glucose
Q2) A high protein diet may make the pH of a person's urine more basic (alkaline).
A)True
B)False
Q3) A urinary tract infection would likely be indicated in a urinalysis by ________ in the urine.
A)the presence of glucose
B)an absence of sediment
C)the presence of nitrites or white blood cells
D)an abnormally low specific gravity
E)the presence of ketones
Q4) An abnormal color of the urine can be caused by eating certain foods, such as beets or carrots; when this occurs, it is nonpathological.
A)True
B)False

Page 61
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Chapter 60: Male Reproductive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The cilia of the pseudostratified columnar epithelium in the epididymis beat back and forth to transport mature sperm out of the epididymis.
A)True B)False
Q2) As spermatogenic cells mature, they migrate from the outer edge of the seminiferous tubule toward the lumen.
A)True B)False
Q3) When sperm leave the epididymis, they are transported directly into the A)seminal vesicles.
B)ductus deferens.
C)prostate gland.
D)urethra.
E)ejaculatory duct.
Q4) Spermatogenesis occurs through the process of meiosis. A)True B)False
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Chapter 61: Female Reproductive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Areolar glands of the breast produce milk.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The openings of the urethra and vagina are enclosed in a space called the A)labia minora.
B)ampulla.
C)vestibule.
D)fundus.
E)fornix.
Q3) The fornices are thin folds of mucosa that partly close the vaginal orifice.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following structures is not entirely within the perineum of the female?
A)The mons pubis
B)The anus
C)The labia minora
D)The labia majora
E)The vestibule
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Chapter 62: Meiosis, Fertilization, and Early Development
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Q1) Which of the following is not true of the process of meiosis?
A)It can also be called oogenesis in the female and spermatogenesis in the male.
B)Meiosis begins with a diploid parent cell that contains 46 chromosomes.
C)Meiosis ends with the production of diploid gametes that contain 23 chromosomes.
D)Meiosis consists of a double division.
E)All of these are true of meiosis.
Q2) Which of the following is not true of the polar bodies in the female?
A)There are typically two polar bodies for each oocyte that is fertilized, but sometimes there are three.
B)The polar bodies are approximately the same size as the oocyte.
C)The polar bodies eventually degenerate.
D)The function of expelling polar bodies is to rid the oocyte of unnecessary/excess genetic material.
E)All of these are true of the polar bodies in the female.
Q3) Crossing over occurs during both mitosis and meiosis.
A)True
B)False
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Page 64

Chapter 63: Genetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) The specific combination of alleles that a person inherits for a certain trait is called the
A)locus.
B)phenotype.
C)genome.
D)homologous chromosome.
E)genotype.
Q2) If a person has two different alleles for a particular trait, then the person is ________ for that trait.
A)recessive
B)homozygous
C)codominant
D)dominant
E)heterozygous
Q3) Carriers of a recessive trait are always heterozygous for that trait.
A)True
B)False
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