Human Biology for Nursing
Test Questions
Course Introduction
Human Biology for Nursing is an essential course that explores the fundamental principles of human anatomy and physiology with a special emphasis on systems and processes relevant to nursing practice. Students will examine the structure and function of major body systems including the circulatory, respiratory, digestive, nervous, and musculoskeletal systems while gaining insight into how these systems interact to maintain health and homeostasis. The course also covers cellular biology, genetics, and foundational concepts in microbiology and immunology. By integrating theoretical knowledge with clinical applications, students develop a comprehensive understanding of the biological basis of health and disease, enabling them to provide informed and effective care across diverse healthcare settings.
Recommended Textbook
The Human Body in Health and Illness 6th Edition by Barbara Herlihy
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Introduction to the Human Body
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Sample Questions
Q1) The kneecap is located distal to the A)leg.
B)thigh.
C)foot.
D)toes.
Answer: B
Q2) The medial canthus (corner) of the eye is
A)located near the nose.
B)located near the ear.
C)superior to the eyebrow.
D)inferior to the eyelid.
Answer: A
Q3) Which organ is located in the ventral cavity and thoracic cavity but not in the mediastinum?
A)Lung
B)Liver
C)Stomach
D)Heart
Answer: A
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Basic Chemistry
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with a blood pH of 7.28
A)has an excess of H<sup>+</sup>.
B)has a blood pH that is within normal limits.
C)is alkalotic.
D)has a blood pH that indicates a deficiency of acid.
Answer: A
Q2) An atom of oxygen shares its outer shell electrons with two hydrogen atoms thereby
A)forming an acid.
B)ionizing.
C)forming a molecule of water.
D)forming an anion and cation.
Answer: C
Q3) Which compound is a waste product of cellular metabolism?
A)Oxygen
B)Carbon dioxide
C)Catalyst
D)ATP
Answer: B
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Chapter 3: Cells
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Sample Questions
Q1) What are the hairlike structures located on the outer surface of the cell membrane?
A)Mitochondria
B)Ribosomes
C)Cilia
D)Centrioles
Answer: C
Q2) Which of the following is least true of mitochondria?
A)Found only within liver cells
B)Make most of the body's ATP
C)Contain enzymes that function aerobically
D)Located within the cytoplasm
Answer: A
Q3) This cytoplasmic organelle contains the enzymes of the Krebs cycle and electron transport chain and is primarily concerned with the formation of ATP:
A)Rough endoplasmic reticulum
B)Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
C)Mitochondrium
D)Centriole
Answer: C
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Cell Metabolism
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Sample Questions
Q1) Gluconeogenesis is a process that makes
A)glucose from glycogen.
B)glucose from protein.
C)protein from glucose.
D)protein from fat.
Q2) Which of the following delivers cholesterol to non-hepatic tissue?
A)HDL
B)LDL
C)VLDL
D)Fatty acids
Q3) Which of the following describes the breakdown of glucose to lactic acid?
A)Aerobic
B)Krebs cycle
C)Glycolysis
D)Gluconeogenesis
Q4) With which process are both DNA and mRNA involved?
A)Transcription
B)Translation
C)Glycolysis
D)ATP production
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Chapter 5: Microbiology Basics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which group is correct?
A)Ringworm,mycotic infection,treatment by anthelmintic drug
B)Syphilis,lues,Treponema pallidum
C)Gonorrhea,Neisseria,virus
D)Trichinae,filariasis,helminthes,penicillin
Q2) Amebic dysentery and giardiasis are
A)mycotic infections.
B)caused by Salmonella.
C)worm infestations.
D)caused by protozoan parasites.
Q3) Which of the following is least descriptive of Candida albicans?
A)Causative organism of impetigo
B)Fungal infection
C)Yeast infection
D)Antibiotic-induced superinfection
Q4) Which of the following is least descriptive of Treponema pallidum?
A)Causes syphilis
B)Classified as a bacterium
C)Is most often spread by the fecal-oral route
D)Is a spirochete
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Chapter 6: Tissues and Membranes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following best describes glia?
A)Basement membrane
B)Dense fibrous connective tissue
C)Nervous tissue
D)Matrix
Q2) The pleura,pericardium,and peritoneum are
A)confined to the thoracic cavity.
B)confined to the abdominopelvic cavity.
C)serous membranes.
D)mucous membranes.
Q3) Which of the following membranes secretes serous fluid?
A)Membrane that lines the respiratory tract
B)Membrane that lines the digestive tract
C)Membrane that lines the inner wall of the pleural cavity
D)Membrane that lines the urinary tract
Q4) Which tissue type is the most abundant?
A)Epithelial
B)Muscular
C)Connective
D)Nervous
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Chapter 7: Integumentary System and Body Temperature
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Sample Questions
Q1) Eccrine glands
A)are sweat glands.
B)secrete sebum.
C)are active only after puberty.
D)arise within the hypodermis.
Q2) The stratum germinativum is
A)dead.
B)mitotically active.
C)found in the derma layer.
D)located in the subcutaneous layer.
Q3) Hives are called
A)impetigo.
B)urticaria.
C)psoriasis.
D)vitiligo.
Q4) Which of the following substances makes the skin water resistant?
A)Melanin
B)Iron pigments
C)Keratin
D)Carotene
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Chapter 8: Skeletal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The greater and lesser trochanters are located on which bone?
A)Tibia
B)Fibula
C)Coccyx
D)Femur
Q2) The vertebrae prominens
A)is the space between L3 and L4 where a lumbar puncture is normally performed.
B)refers to C1 and C2,the atlas,and axis.
C)is a fontanel.
D)is C7.
Q3) The symphysis pubis is a slightly movable joint associated with the A)coxal bones.
B)femur.
C)sacrum.
D)ischial tuberosity.
Q4) The olecranon process is most associated with which joint?
A)Hip
B)Elbow
C)Wrist
D)Ball-and-socket joint
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Chapter 9: Muscular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The rectus femoris,vastus lateralis,vastus medialis,and vastus intermedius
A)insert on the calcaneus.
B)flex the leg at the knee.
C)are antagonistic to the quadriceps femoris.
D)are the muscles of the quadriceps femoris.
Q2) The somatic motor nerve that supplies the muscles of the thigh has been severed; therefore,the person
A)will be able to walk only if he or she receives IV calcium.
B)cannot walk.
C)can walk but has no feeling in the lower extremities.
D)can stand but cannot walk.
Q3) Creatine phosphate provides the skeletal muscle with A)energy used to synthesize ATP.
B)lactic acid.
C)oxygen.
D)myoglobin.
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11
Chapter 10: Nervous System: Nervous Tissue and Brain
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Sample Questions
Q1) In which cerebral lobe is Broca's area located?
A)Parietal
B)Occipital
C)Frontal
D)Temporal
Q2) Which of the following is the middle layer of the meninges and looks like a spiderweb?
A)Dura mater
B)Arachnoid mater
C)Pia mater
D)Reticular formation
Q3) The occipital lobe
A)is a brain stem structure.
B)performs the "executive" functions.
C)is called the vital center.
D)contains the primary visual cortex.
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Chapter 11: Nervous System: Spinal Cord and Peripheral Nerves
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Sample Questions
Q1) Identify the disorder: clusters of vesicles develop along cranial or spinal dermatomes; herpes zoster; postherpetic neuralgia.
A)Multiple sclerosis
B)Shingles
C)Myasthenia gravis
D)Trigeminal neuralgia
Q2) Which of the following is least related to the olfactory nerve?
A)CN I
B)Impairment: anosmia
C)Motor,causing flaring of the nares
D)Smell
Q3) The fifth cranial nerve,called the _____ nerve,is a mixed nerve that detects sensations from the scalp,face,and teeth.
A)olfactory
B)facial
C)vestibulocochlear
D)trigeminal
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Page 13
Chapter 12: Autonomic Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is most related to the postganglionic sympathetics?
A)Muscarinic receptors
B)ACh
C)Alpha and beta receptor activation
D)Craniosacral outflow
Q2) Vasomotor tone is
A)a vasoconstrictor effect caused by background firing of the sympathetic nerves.
B)a vagally induced peripheral vasodilation.
C)caused by parasympathomimetic drugs.
D)caused by sympatholytic drugs.
Q3) An adrenergic fiber is one that
A)innervates the adrenal medulla.
B)is a preganglionic fiber.
C)originates in the midbrain.
D)secretes norepinephrine as its transmitter.
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Chapter 13: Sensory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The occipital lobe
A)receives information from cranial nerve III.
B)sends motor information to the iris,thereby controlling pupillary size.
C)receives sensory information from cranial nerve II.
D)contains the primary auditory cortex.
Q2) Rhodopsin
A)requires vitamin a.
B)is a requirement for color vision only.
C)is synthesized within the occipital lobe.
D)is necessary for the refraction of light by the lens.
Q3) Which of the following is located in the posterior cavity of the eyeball?
A)Vitreous humor
B)Cornea
C)Lens
D)Ciliary muscle
Q4) Which of the following vibrates in direct response to the tympanic membrane?
A)Hammer
B)Endolymph
C)Organ of Corti
D)Semicircular canals
15
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Chapter 14: Endocrine System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Insulin and glucagon
A)are secreted by the beta cells of the islets of Langerhans.
B)elevate blood glucose levels.
C)are secreted in response to declining plasma levels of glucose.
D)are secreted by the pancreas to regulate blood glucose.
Q2) Epinephrine (adrenaline) increases blood glucose by
A)increasing transport of glucose into the cell.
B)stimulating gluconeogenesis.
C)stimulating the hepatic conversion of glycogen into glucose.
D)converting fatty acids into glucose.
Q3) Excess secretion of epinephrine
A)relieves anxiety.
B)stimulates the synthesis of glycogen.
C)elevates blood glucose levels.
D)slows heart rate and lowers blood pressure.
Q4) Cretinism,myxedema,and Graves' disease are all
A)thyroid hormone deficiency diseases.
B)thyroid hormone disorders caused by oversecretion of thyroxine.
C)calcium imbalances due primarily to the lack of calcitonin.
D)disorders of thyroid gland function.
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Blood
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is most descriptive of a reticulocyte?
A)Thrombocyte
B)Granulocyte
C)Platelet
D)Immature erythrocyte
Q2) Which of the following is most related to biconcave disc,hemoglobin,and erythropoietin?
A)Granulocyte
B)Thrombocyte
C)"Poly"
D)Red blood cell
Q3) Stickiness,plug,and hemostasis are terms that are most related to A)neutrophils.
B)phagocytes.
C)platelets.
D)albumin.
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Chapter 16: Anatomy of the Heart
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which group is incorrect?
A)Semilunar valves: pulmonic,aortic
B)Structures that carry oxygenated blood: pulmonary veins,left ventricle,aorta
C)Layers of the heart: epicardium,myocardium,endocardium
D)Abnormal heart rates: tachycardia,bradycardia,normal sinus rhythm
Q2) An accumulation of excess fluid in the pericardial space
A)causes external compression of the heart.
B)depresses the SA node,thereby eliminating pacemaker activity.
C)causes valvular stenosis.
D)causes a left-to-right shunt.
Q3) The correct sequence is: Blood flows from the right atrium to the right ventricle to the pulmonary artery to the
A)pulmonary veins.
B)coronary arteries.
C)pulmonary capillaries.
D)vena cava.
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Chapter 17: Function of the Heart
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is descriptive of a drug that causes a (+) inotropic effect,a (+) dromotropic effect,and a (+) chronotropic effect?
A)Vagomimetic
B)Sympathomimetic
C)Antimuscarinic
D)Vagolytic
Q2) What term refers to the amount of blood pumped by the ventricle in one beat?
A)Cardiac output
B)Blood volume
C)Hematocrit
D)Stroke volume
Q3) Vagal stimulation on the heart
A)increases the force of myocardial contraction.
B)increases the amount of blood that flows into the heart from the vena cava.
C)causes tachycardia.
D)slows the heart rate.
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Chapter 18: Anatomy of the Blood Vessels and Special
Circulations
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which blood vessels have very thin walls and are called the exchange vessels?
A)Arterioles
B)Veins
C)Capillaries
D)Arteries
Q2) In which fetal blood vessel is oxygen concentration greatest?
A)Aorta
B)Umbilical vein
C)Umbilical arteries
D)Left ventricle
Q3) Which of the following is true of the renal arteries?
A)They drain urine from the kidneys.
B)They emerge from the abdominal aorta.
C)They drain into the superior vena cava.
D)They branch directly off the common iliac arteries.
Q4) The tibial,peroneal,and popliteal veins
A)are part of the hepatic portal circulation.
B)form the circle of Willis.
C)are found in the lower extremities.
D)empty venous blood into the superior vena cava.
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Chapter 19: Functions of the Blood Vessels
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Sample Questions
Q1) An intense vagal discharge is most apt to cause
A)tachycardia.
B)decreased heart rate.
C)deep vein thrombosis.
D)white coat hypertension.
Q2) What is the term that refers to the difference between the systolic and diastolic blood pressure readings?
A)Pulse deficit
B)Cardiac output
C)Stroke volume
D)Pulse pressure
Q3) An agent that is described as a vasopressor
A)causes peripheral vasodilation.
B)elevates blood pressure.
C)decreases systemic vascular resistance.
D)decreases cardiac output.
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21
Chapter 20: Lymphatic System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Where does lymph originally come from?
A)Spleen
B)Thoracic duct
C)Interstitium
D)Lymph nodes
Q2) Which of the following is true about lymph? It is
A)absorbed by lymphatic capillaries from the interstitium.
B)filtered by the lymphatic capillaries into the interstitium.
C)secreted by the subclavian veins into the large lymphatic ducts.
D)synthesized and stored within the lymph nodes.
Q3) Lymphatic capillaries
A)absorb tissue fluid and transport it toward the heart.
B)are close to and parallel the distribution of arterioles.
C)are composed of smooth muscle and determine SVR (systemic vascular resistance).
D)transport protein-free interstitial fluid.
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Chapter 21: Immune System
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Sample Questions
Q1) HIV (human immunodeficiency virus) produces severe impairment of the immune system by attacking which cells?
A)Plasma cells
B)Suppressor T cells
C)Helper T cells
D)Platelets
Q2) Which of the following is true of activation of mast cells?
A)Causes the release of epinephrine
B)Is necessary for T-cell activation
C)Prevents the development of anaphylaxis
D)Causes the release of histamine
Q3) Inflammation is
A)a reaction that is classified as a specific immune response.
B)characterized by redness,heat,swelling,and pain.
C)known as cell-mediated immunity.
D)initiated only by a pathogen.
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23
Chapter 22: Respiratory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Identify the names of the following: voicebox,throat,and windpipe.
A)Larynx,vocal cords,trachea
B)Larynx,laryngopharynx,bronchi
C)Larynx,pharynx,trachea
D)Laryngopharynx,pharynx,alveoli
Q2) The Hering-Breuer reflex
A)prevents overinflation of the lungs.
B)is a chemical reflex; no nerves are involved.
C)is important only in disease states.
D)is concerned only with sneezing and coughing.
Q3) Respirations are primarily controlled by the A)medulla oblongata.
B)cerebellum.
C)spinal cord.
D)frontal lobe.
Q4) "Clubbing" of the fingers is a response to A)chronic hypoxemia.
B)CO retention and acidosis.
C)acute hyperventilation in response to metabolic acidosis.
D)chronic dry hacking cough.
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Chapter 23: Digestive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement is true?
A)Cholecystokinin is an amylase.
B)Secretin is stored in the gallbladder.
C)Trypsin is secreted by the liver.
D)Trypsin is an enzyme that digests protein.
Q2) Which structure contains the villi,microvilli,and brush border cells?
A)Stomach
B)Esophagus
C)Cecum
D)Duodenum
Q3) Fat digestion is accomplished by A)chyme and trypsin.
B)bile and lipase.
C)chyle and bile.
D)amylase and ptyalin.
Q4) Deglutition refers to A)chewing.
B)peristalsis.
C)swallowing.
D)burping.
Page 25
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Chapter 24: Urinary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Most tubular reabsorption takes place
A)across the glomerular membrane.
B)in response to aldosterone.
C)in response to ADH.
D)across the proximal tubule.
Q2) Aldosterone
A)is secreted by the posterior pituitary gland.
B)acts on the collecting duct blocking the reabsorption of water.
C)stimulates the reabsorption of water but has no effect on potassium.
D)is a mineralocorticoid that stimulates the reabsorption of sodium.
Q3) Which of the following urine-making processes occurs first?
A)Urine concentration by the collecting ducts
B)Glomerular filtration
C)Reabsorption of Na+
D)Secretion of K+
Q4) The renal capsule
A)lines the tubules.
B)lines the urinary bladder.
C)surrounds the kidneys.
D)outlines the trigone.
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Chapter 25: Water, Electrolyte, and Acidbase Balance
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Q1) Which of the following is most likely to cause acidosis?
A)Persistent vomiting
B)Accumulation of plasma H+
C)Renal loss of albumin
D)Diuresis
Q2) Which of the following is true about interstitial fluid,plasma,lymph,and transcellular fluid?
A)Contain no electrolytes
B)Protein-free fluids
C)Classified as extracellular
D)pH less than 6 (highly acidic)
Q3) A drug that blocks the renal reabsorption of sodium
A)decreases the renal excretion of Na+.
B)increases the amount of urine.
C)decreases the excretion of bicarbonate.
D)always increases the reabsorption of K+.
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Chapter 26: Reproductive Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which hormone stimulates the secretion of testosterone?
A)FSH
B)LH or ICSH
C)Estrogen
D)Human chorionic gonadotropin
Q2) Which term refers to the movement of sperm and glandular secretions from the testes and genital ducts into the urethra?
A)Ejaculation
B)Emission
C)Orgasm
D)Erection
Q3) Enlargement of the prostate may impede urination because
A)the bladder becomes compressed.
B)the prostate surrounds and compresses the urethra.
C)the ureters are blocked.
D)the ejaculatory duct is constricted.
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Chapter 27: Human Development and Heredity
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Q1) Which of the following is most related to human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)?
A)Milk production
B)Breasts
C)Corpus luteum
D)Anterior pituitary gland
Q2) The milk let-down reflex is most associated with A)estrogen.
B)oxytocin.
C)prolactin.
D)hCG.
Q3) Which of the following is true of parturition?
A)The fetus becomes a neonate
B)Refers to the birth process
C)Can only occur after 36 weeks of pregnancy
D)Both A and B are true.
Q4) Fertilization is most apt to occur when sexual intercourse takes place close to A)ovulation.
B)early adenohypophyseal secretion of gonadotropins.
C)the last day of a 28-day cycle.
D)the first day of a 28-day cycle.
Page 29
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