Human Biology for Health Professions
Midterm Exam
Course Introduction
Human Biology for Health Professions provides a comprehensive overview of the fundamental principles of human anatomy, physiology, genetics, and biochemistry as they relate to healthcare practice. Emphasizing the interconnectedness of biological systems, this course explores the structure and function of the human body, mechanisms of homeostasis, and the biological basis of diseases. Students will gain an understanding of the normal processes that support life in humans, as well as how imbalances and disruptions can lead to health disorders. The course is designed to establish a solid scientific foundation for students pursuing careers in medicine, nursing, allied health, and related fields.
Recommended Textbook
The Human Body in Health and Illness 6th Edition by Barbara Herlihy
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27 Chapters
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2281 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Introduction to the Human Body
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is descriptive of the mediastinum?
A)Thoracic cavity
B)Dorsal cavity
C)Abdominopelvic cavity
D)RUQ
Answer: A
Q2) The sagittal plane
A)is also called the coronal plane.
B)splits the body into a top and bottom.
C)splits the body into front and back.
D)splits the body into right and left.
Answer: D
Q3) The heart is located in all the following except the A)mediastinum.
B)ventral cavity.
C)cranial cavity.
D)thoracic cavity.
Answer: C
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3
Chapter 2: Basic Chemistry
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which process refers to the dissociation of NaCl into Na and Cl-?
A)Radioactivity
B)Ionization
C)Covalent bonding
D)Hydrogen bonding
Answer: B
Q2) Which of the following is correct about the following reaction: NaCl Na + Cl<sup>-</sup>?
A)Neutralization
B)Ionization
C)Anabolic
D)Irreversible
Answer: B
Q3) Which of the following is an anion?
A)NaCl
B)KCl
C)H SO
D)HCO -
Answer: D
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Cells
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Sample Questions
Q1) Lysosomes are filled with A)powerful enzymes that destroy cellular debris and pathogens. B)cilia.
C)DNA.
D)blood.
Answer: A
Q2) The skunk makes his presence known by A)filtration.
B)osmosis.
C)active transport.
D)diffusion.
Answer: D
Q3) Which of the following describes the response of a red blood cell (RBC) to immersion in an isotonic solution?
A)The RBC swells and bursts.
B)The RBC undergoes hemolysis.
C)The RBC undergoes crenation; it shrinks.
D)There is no net movement of water between the RBC and solution.
Answer: D
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Cell Metabolism
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is descriptive of cholesterol?
A)Protein
B)Functions as an enzyme
C)Can be synthesized by the liver
D)Primary sequence and peptide bonds
Q2) Hepatic encephalopathy can be caused by increasing blood levels of
A)ammonia.
B)urea.
C)nitrogen.
D)lactic acid.
Q3) Which of the following is characteristic of glycolysis?
A)Occurs within the cytoplasm
B)Functions aerobically
C)Converts protein to glucose
D)Completely metabolizes glucose to CO ,H O,and ATP
Q4) Which of the following is least related to the aerobic metabolism of glucose?
A)Intramitochondrial
B)Ketones
C)CO + H O + ATP
D)Oxygen
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Chapter 5: Microbiology Basics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Rickettsiae are
A)classified as fungi.
B)viruses.
C)often carried by fleas,ticks,and body lice.
D)arthropod vectors.
Q2) A helminth is a(n)
A)parasite.
B)arthropod.
C)worm.
D)bacterium.
Q3) Which group is correct?
A)Ringworm,mycotic infection,treatment by anthelmintic drug
B)Syphilis,lues,Treponema pallidum
C)Gonorrhea,Neisseria,virus
D)Trichinae,filariasis,helminthes,penicillin
Q4) Typhoid Mary harbored the Salmonella pathogen in her A)urine (kidneys).
B)respiratory secretions (lungs).
C)nasal secretions (nose).
D)bile (gallbladder).
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Chapter 6: Tissues and Membranes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Endocrine is least often described as A)hormone secreting.
B)ductless.
C)glandular epithelium.
D)contractile.
Q2) Which of the following is most related to mucous membrane?
A)Forms the dermis
B)Lines all the body cavities that open to the exterior of the body
C)Is also called the skin
D)Is the same as the epidermis
Q3) Damaged skeletal muscle,cardiac muscle,and nervous tissue are replaced by A)the same tissue type.
B)scar tissue.
C)epithelial tissue.
D)adhesions.
Q4) Which of the following is true of an exocrine gland?
A)Made of connective tissue
B)Secretes hormones
C)Secretes its products to the outside or onto a surface
D)Secretes only sweat
8
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Chapter 7: Integumentary System and Body Temperature
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Sample Questions
Q1) Who or what is covered with vernix caseosa?
A)A pregnant woman
B)A toddler
C)A fetus
D)The pregnant uterus
Q2) Which of the following is associated with the conservation of heat?
A)The person appears flushed.
B)The person sweats.
C)Melanin is secreted.
D)Blood vessels constrict.
Q3) Which of the following is least true of a fever?
A)Involves the upward resetting of the hypothalamus
B)Often responds to the antipyretic effect of aspirin
C)Is generally caused by an inability of the body to get rid of excess heat,as in heat stroke
D)Is "broken" in response to vasodilation and sweating
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9
Chapter 8: Skeletal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The occipital bone
A)is a facial bone.
B)contains the foramen magnum.
C)is the cheekbone.
D)articulates with the frontal bone at the coronal suture.
Q2) The palatine process of this facial bone forms which anterior part of the hard palate?
A)Mandible
B)Zygomatic
C)Maxilla
D)Sphenoid
Q3) C1 to C7 refer to A)vertebrae.
B)true ribs.
C)false ribs.
D)intervertebral discs.
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Chapter 9: Muscular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which muscle lies along the anterior surface of the humerus and acts synergistically with the brachialis and brachioradialis to flex the forearm at the elbow?
A)Deltoid
B)Triceps brachii
C)Biceps brachii
D)Latissimus dorsi
Q2) Which of the following forms cross-bridges with actin?
A)Sarcoplasmic reticulum
B)T tubules
C)Myosin
D)Sarcolemma
Q3) Which of the following is not a facial muscle?
A)Orbicularis oculi
B)Zygomaticus
C)Sternocleidomastoid
D)Frontalis
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11
Chapter 10: Nervous System: Nervous Tissue and Brain
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Sample Questions
Q1) Frontal eye fields
A)perform a motor role regarding the eyes.
B)receive sensory information from the optic nerve.
C)allow a person to interpret visual information.
D)determine the color of the eyes.
Q2) Which of the following best describes the tentorium?
A)Extension of the dura mater
B)Lining of the cerebral ventricles and central canal
C)Another name for the arachnoid mater
D)Another name for the corpus callosum
Q3) The postcentral gyrus
A)is located in the frontal lobe.
B)controls voluntary motor activity.
C)sends all its information to the occipital lobe.
D)contains the somatosensory area.
Q4) The depression between the convolutions of the cerebrum is called a A)pons.
B)gyrus.
C)sulcus.
D)corpus callosum.
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Nervous System: Spinal Cord and Peripheral Nerves
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Sample Questions
Q1) Damage to which nerve prevents extension of the hip and flexion of the knee?
A)Axillary
B)Phrenic
C)Sciatic
D)Median cubital
Q2) Which of the following occurs last (patellar tendon reflex)?
A)The effector organ contracts.
B)The action potential travels along the efferent neuron to the quadriceps femoris.
C)The action potential travels along the sensory neuron to the spinal cord.
D)The muscle receptors of the quadriceps femoris are stimulated when the patellar ligament is stretched.
Q3) Which of the following is true of CNs III,IV,and VI? All
A)are sensory and send information to the primary visual cortex.
B)stimulate the levator palpebrae superioris to raise the eyelid.
C)send information to the occipital lobe.
D)move the eyeballs.
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Chapter 12: Autonomic Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) A preoperative patient received an antimuscarinic drug (atropine).Which drug-related postoperative consequence is this patient likely to experience?
A)Decreased heart rate
B)Difficult urination
C)Elevated blood pressure
D)Excess salivation
Q2) The effects of adrenal medullary secretion most resemble
A)craniosacral outflow.
B)firing of the somatic motor neurons.
C)sympathetic nerve discharge.
D)vagal discharge.
Q3) Vasomotor tone is
A)a vasoconstrictor effect caused by background firing of the sympathetic nerves.
B)a vagally induced peripheral vasodilation.
C)caused by parasympathomimetic drugs.
D)caused by sympatholytic drugs.
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14
Chapter 13: Sensory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Bone conduction occurs in the
A)outer ear.
B)middle ear.
C)inner ear.
D)semicircular canals.
Q2) Movement of the oval window
A)moves the endolymph in the inner ear,thereby bending the mechanoreceptors of the organ of Corti.
B)vibrates the middle ear ossicles and eardrum.
C)pushes endolymph from the cochlea into the semicircular canals.
D)pushes perilymph from the semicircular canals into the cochlea.
Q3) Which of the following is concerned with the sense of smell?
A)Vestibulocochlear nerve
B)Eighth cranial nerve
C)Organ of Corti
D)Olfaction
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15
Chapter 14: Endocrine System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is descriptive of the adrenal cortex?
A)It is the target gland of ACTH.
B)It secretes catecholamines.
C)It secretes hormones that lower blood glucose.
D)It secretes iodine-containing hormones.
Q2) The person with _____ is most likely to receive insulin therapy.
A)myxedema
B)Graves' disease
C)diabetes insipidus
D)hyperglycemia
Q3) Which of the following is least associated with the adrenal medulla?
A)Catecholamines
B)Epinephrine and norepinephrine
C)Fight-or-flight response
D)Sugar,salt,and sex
Q4) The adenohypophysis
A)secretes ADH and oxytocin.
B)refers to the anterior pituitary gland.
C)secretes releasing hormones.
D)secretes glucocorticoids,mineralocorticoids,and androgens.
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Blood
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is the stimulus for the release of erythropoietin?
A)Hypoxemia
B)Low blood volume
C)Low plasma pH (acidosis)
D)Infection
Q2) Which of the following is caused by agglutination of the RBCs?
A)Hemolysis
B)Coagulation
C)Crenation
D)Hemostasis
Q3) Erythropoietin
A)is secreted by the kidneys.
B)stimulates the bone marrow to produce RBCs.
C)is released in response to hypoxemia.
D)All of the above are true.
Q4) Which of the following best describes albumin?
A)RBC,O transport
B)Water balance,plasma protein
C)Plasma protein,phagocytosis
D)CO transport,immune response
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Chapter 16: Anatomy of the Heart
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a correct valvular position when the atria are contracting?
A)The tricuspid valve is closed.
B)The pulmonic valve is open.
C)Both semilunar valves are open.
D)Both AV valves are open.
Q2) Referring to the ECG,the P wave represents
A)atrial contraction.
B)ventricular relaxation.
C)atrial depolarization.
D)atrial repolarization.
Q3) Which structure connects the cusps of the AV valves to the ventricles?
A)Purkinje fibers
B)AV node
C)Bundle of His
D)Chordae tendineae
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18
Chapter 17: Function of the Heart
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is an example of forward failure?
A)Blood accumulates in the pulmonary capillaries,elevating pressure and causing pulmonary edema.
B)Diminished renal blood flow stimulates the kidney to decrease urinary output and retain Na+ and water.
C)Blood distends the jugular vein.
D)Blood distends the liver,causing hepatomegaly and digestive symptoms.
Q2) Activation of the muscarinic receptors by acetylcholine
A)increases myocardial contractile force.
B)causes a (+) chronotropic effect.
C)increases cardiac output.
D)slows heart rate.
Q3) Jugular vein distention is most associated with
A)right-sided heart failure.
B)aortic valve stenosis.
C)left wall infarct and left ventricular failure.
D)low volume shock right-sided heart failure.
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Chapter 18: Anatomy of the Blood Vessels and Special
Circulations
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is true of both the aortic arch and the right brachiocephalic arteries? Both
A)arise from the coronary arteries.
B)deliver their contents to the jugulars.
C)receive oxygenated blood from the circle of Willis.
D)give rise to the left and right common carotid arteries.
Q2) The tibial,peroneal,and popliteal veins
A)are part of the hepatic portal circulation.
B)form the circle of Willis.
C)are found in the lower extremities.
D)empty venous blood into the superior vena cava.
Q3) Which of the following is true about the anterior and posterior tibial arteries? They
A)merge to form the common iliac arteries.
B)give rise to arteries that supply the foot.
C)drain directly into the inferior vena cava.
D)More than one of the above are true.
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Functions of the Blood Vessels
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Sample Questions
Q1) Blood flow is slowest in the A)aorta.
B)capillaries.
C)venules.
D)arterioles.
Q2) If the left ventricle of the heart fails,blood backs up in the pulmonary capillary,
A)decreasing plasma oncotic pressure and drying out the lungs.
B)blocking the flow of lymph and drying out the lungs.
C)increasing capillary pressure and forcing fluid into the lungs.
D)increasing plasma oncotic pressure,causing pulmonary edema.
Q3) Which statement is the best explanation of the following: Sympathetic nerve stimulation increases systemic vascular resistance.
A)Sympathetic nerve stimulation causes many of the arterioles in the peripheral circulation to constrict.
B)Sympathetic nerve stimulation causes peripheral venodilation and a decrease in preload.
C)Sympathetic nerve stimulation reduces afterload in the systemic circulation.
D)Sympathetic nerve stimulation causes a vasodepressor effect.
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21
Chapter 20: Lymphatic System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The spleen
A)removes worn-out blood cells from circulation.
B)is avascular.
C)is located in the RUQ.
D)secretes splenic hormones that control the entire lymphoid system.
Q2) Lymph from the right arm and the right side of the head and thorax drains into the
A)thoracic duct.
B)vena cava.
C)right atrium.
D)right lymphatic duct.
Q3) Where does lymph originally come from?
A)Spleen
B)Thoracic duct
C)Interstitium
D)Lymph nodes
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22
Chapter 21: Immune System
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Sample Questions
Q1) This is a group of proteins secreted by virally infected cells; the proteins prevent viral replication.
A)Pyrogens
B)Antigens
C)Complement protein
D)Interferons
Q2) Which of the following is true of activation of mast cells?
A)Causes the release of epinephrine
B)Is necessary for T-cell activation
C)Prevents the development of anaphylaxis
D)Causes the release of histamine
Q3) The purpose of vaccination is to provide an initial exposure to an antigen to stimulate the formation of
A)killer T cells.
B)complement.
C)anaphylaxis.
D)memory cells.
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Chapter 22: Respiratory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Surfactants
A)prevent collapse of the alveoli.
B)induce anaphylaxis.
C)cause upper respiratory obstruction.
D)decrease thoracic volume.
Q2) Pleural membranes
A)line the inside of the lungs.
B)secrete surfactants.
C)secrete mucus and other viscous secretions to minimize friction between the pleural membranes.
D)are serous membranes.
Q3) In which structure is the PO 104 mm Hg?
A)Pulmonary artery
B)Alveolus
C)Right ventricle
D)Vena cava
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Page 24
Chapter 23: Digestive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following produces the disaccharides as its end-products of digestion?
A)Lipase
B)Amylase
C)Hydrochloric acid
D)Gastrin
Q2) Enamel,dentin,and cementum are related to which structure?
A)Tooth
B)Liver
C)Colon
D)Villi
Q3) Which surgical procedure is most likely to cause dumping syndrome?
A)Appendectomy
B)Colostomy
C)Gastrectomy
D)Cholecystectomy
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25
Chapter 24: Urinary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which condition is characterized by hematuria and pyuria?
A)Renal failure
B)Diuresis
C)Urinary retention
D)Cystitis
Q2) Which of the following is true of urea?
A)Is an excretable form of nitrogen
B)Is synthesized by the kidneys
C)Is converted to ammonia by converting enzyme in the lungs
D)Is a pancreatic proteolytic enzyme
Q3) What happens at the glomerular membrane?
A)Water and dissolved solute are filtered into Bowman's capsule.
B)The JGA cells release ADH.
C)The JGA cells release aldosterone.
D)Na+ is reabsorbed.
Q4) The urinary meatus is a part of the A)ureter.
B)urinary bladder.
C)urethra.
D)collecting duct.
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Chapter 25: Water, Electrolyte, and Acidbase Balance
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which hormone causes the kidneys to retain sodium and to excrete potassium?
A)ADH
B)Erythropoietin
C)Aldosterone
D)PTH
Q2) A drug that blocks the renal reabsorption of sodium
A)decreases the renal excretion of Na+.
B)increases the amount of urine.
C)decreases the excretion of bicarbonate.
D)always increases the reabsorption of K+.
Q3) A change of pH from 7.40 to 7.25
A)is indicative of expanded blood volume.
B)is indicative of alkalosis.
C)reflects an increase in the amount of H+ in the blood.
D)is within normal limits.
Q4) Plasma oncotic pressure
A)is caused primarily by salt (sodium chloride).
B)"pulls" water into the capillaries from the interstitium.
C)pushes water out of the capillaries into the interstitium.
D)increases the flow of lymph.
Page 27
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Chapter 26: Reproductive Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) The broad ligament supports the A)prostate gland.
B)testes.
C)breasts.
D)uterus.
Q2) In the nonpregnant state,
A)the corpus albicans becomes hormonally active,secreting estrogen and progesterone.
B)the endometrium secretes hCG.
C)hormonal secretion of the corpus luteum gradually declines.
D)the zygote becomes hormonally active.
Q3) Which of the following is not located in or on the ovary?
A)Corpus luteum
B)Graafian follicle
C)Fertilized ovum
D)Corpus albicans
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28
Chapter 27: Human Development and Heredity
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Q1) What is the baby-to-be called after 9 weeks of development?
A)Zygote
B)Fetus
C)Embryo
D)Neonate
Q2) The fimbriae sweep the ovum into which structure immediately following ovulation?
A)Uterus
B)Fallopian tube
C)Vagina
D)Ovary
Q3) Which word refers to milk production by the mammary glands?
A)Implantation
B)Parturition
C)Lactation
D)Quickening
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