Human Biology Exam Solutions - 990 Verified Questions

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Human Biology Exam Solutions

Course Introduction

Human Biology provides a comprehensive overview of the biological principles relevant to the human body, exploring its structure, function, development, and evolution. The course examines major body systems, genetics, cellular processes, and the ways in which humans interact with their environment. Emphasis is placed on understanding health, disease, and the roles of biotechnology and medical advances in modern society. By integrating concepts from molecular biology to organ systems, the course fosters an appreciation of human biology's role in everyday life and its impact on global health challenges.

Recommended Textbook

Visualizing Human Biology 4th Edition by Kathleen A. Ireland

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21 Chapters

990 Verified Questions

990 Flashcards

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Chapter 1: What Is Life

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which is the most common form of feedback control in humans?

A)Control center feedback.

B)Positive feedback.

C)Negative feedback.

D)Effector feedback.

Answer: C

Q2) What is meant by the term homeostasis?

A)It is the taxonomic term for human beings.

B)It is a characteristic of livings things that means they can reproduce the same organism.

C)It means that humans are constantly changing.

D)It is the ability of an organism to monitor conditions and maintain them.

Answer: D

Q3) Which of the following is the smallest unit of life?

A)Organism

B)Organ system

C)Organ

D)Cell

Answer: D

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Page 3

Chapter

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Sample Questions

Q1) A fiddler crab feeds on dead or decaying matter which makes it:

A)a carnivore.

B)a detritivore.

C)an omnivore.

D)a herbivore.

Answer: B

Q2) Homo habilis can be distinguished from A.afarensis due to:

A)a swift gait.

B)the ability to make and use tools.

C)narrow hips.

D)extended infant development.

Answer: B

Q3) In an ecosystem,energy can be recycled and nutrients cannot.

A)True

B)False

Answer: False

Q4) Homo erectus and Homo ergaster are currently classified as the same species.

A)True

B)False

Answer: False

Page 4

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Chapter 3: Life Has a Unique Chemistry

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Sample Questions

Q1) Since carbon has 4 electrons in the outer energy level,it can form 4 covalent bonds.

A)True

B)False

Answer: True

Q2) Which of the following organic chemicals is the most abundant in your body?

A)Proteins

B)Lipids

C)Carbohydrates

D)Nucleic acids

Answer: A

Q3) Which of the following is considered a base?

A)Ammonia

B)Lemon juice

C)Vinegar

D)Stomach acid

Answer: A

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Page 5

Chapter 4: Organization and Communication

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Sample Questions

Q1) The cell theory includes all of the following EXCEPT:

A)All living things are composed of cells.

B)Cells pass on genetic material to daughter cells during cell division.

C)Cells share similar chemical composition.

D)Cells are made up of similar shapes and sizes.

Q2) Nuclear pores allow DNA to escape the nuclear membrane during transcription.

A)True

B)False

Q3) In which of the following organelles is DNA found?

A)Golgi body

B)Smooth endoplasmic reticulum

C)Lysosome

D)Nucleus

Q4) What is the purpose of cellular respiration?

A)The production of glucose

B)The production of ATP

C)The production of oxygen

D)The production of mitochondria

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6

Chapter 5: Tissues

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Sample Questions

Q1) How many abdominopelvic regions are there?

A)1

B)2

C)4

D)9

Q2) Which of the following is a disease that damages cartilage inside joints?

A)Osteoarthritis

B)Rheumatoid arthritis

C)Osteoporosis

D)Fibromyalgia

Q3) The foot is on the _____________ part of the lower limb.

A)proximal

B)distal

C)superior

D)inferior

Q4) In which cavity is the brain found?

A)Dorsal body cavity

B)Mediastinum

C)Ventral body cavity

D)Pericardial cavity

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Chapter 6: The Skeletomuscular System

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Sample Questions

Q1) The extension of the sarcolemma that conducts the contraction message is called:

A)the myofibril.

B)the T tubule.

C)the sarcoplasmic reticulum.

D)the nucleus.

Q2) Which of the following is a function of the skeletal and muscular systems as they work together?

A)Movement and locomotion

B)Protection of organs

C)Maintenance of upright posture

D)All of these

Q3) Which structure is defined by the borders called Z-lines?

A)Fascicle

B)Muscle fiber

C)Sarcomere

D)Myosin

Q4) The muscular system can produce movement of the body without the assistance of other systems.

A)True

B)False

Page 8

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Chapter 7: The Nervous System

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Sample Questions

Q1) How many cranial nerves are there?

A)5

B)10

C)12

D)31

Q2) Ependymal cells are neuroglia which assist in the production of cerebrospinal fluid.

A)True

B)False

Q3) The spinal nerves only contain sensory neurons while the cranial nerves contain only motor neurons.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Repolarization is due to the opening of sodium channels.

A)True

B)False

Q5) The brain is composed of interneurons,motor neurons,and sensory neurons.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 8: The Special Senses

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Sample Questions

Q1) Why do older people usually hold reading material farther away from their eyes?

A)Their cornea has changed shape.

B)Their lens is stiffer, thicker, and not as elastic.

C)Their eye has changed shape.

D)Their retina does not focus as well.

Q2) What is unique about the macula lutea?

A)It is the part of the retina with the highest concentration of cones.

B)It is the part of the retina with no photoreceptors.

C)It is only found in squid and octopus.

D)It is the type of cone that detects yellow color.

Q3) The cornea is part of the:

A)fibrous layer.

B)vascular layer.

C)nervous layer.

D)retina.

Q4) The ear is an organ for hearing and balance.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 9: Immunity and the Lymphatic System

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Sample Questions

Q1) Interferon is an example of what kind of hormone?

A)Autocrine

B)Eccrine

C)Local

D)Endocrine

Q2) What is happening during the exhaustion phase of the general adaptation syndrome?

A)Increased energy levels

B)Heightened mental alertness

C)Organs are failing due to prolonged stress response and resulting damage

D)The person sleeps to recover from the stress

Q3) Which is the most common form of skin cancer?

A)Melanoma

B)Basal cell carcinoma

C)Squamous cell carcinoma

D)Cuboidal cell carcinoma

Q4) Viruses secrete interferon to interfere with the complement system.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 10: Infectious Disease and Epidemiology

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following is a description of bacterial shape?

A)Chains of spheres

B)Twisted spheres

C)Chains of twisted rods

D)Cones

Q2) The major difference between prokaryotes and eukaryotes is:

A)prokaryotes have organelles and a nucleus while eukaryotes do not.

B)prokaryotes have unique mitochondria.

C)eukaryotes have organelles and a nucleus while prokaryotes do not.

D)prokaryotes, but not eukaryotes, can perform photosynthesis.

Q3) This virus,which causes flu-like symptoms,can attack the nervous system.

A)Measles

B)Ebola

C)Polio

D)Hantavirus

Q4) Which of the following is an example of a viral disease?

A)Athlete's foot

B)Influenza

C)Mad cow disease

D)Yeast infection

Page 12

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Chapter 11: Cancer

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Sample Questions

Q1) If you carry either the BRCA1 or BRCA2 gene,you will develop breast cancer.

A)True

B)False

Q2) New cancer treatments target cancer cells and are less damaging to healthy cells.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Genes that promote cell growth are called:

A)tumor-suppressor genes.

B)proto-oncogenes.

C)telomerase.

D)p53.

Q4) The prostate-specific antigen can be diagnosed by:

A)imaging.

B)screening tests.

C)tumor-enzyme test.

D)genetic tests.

Q5) A distinguishing feature of cancer cells is their perfect symmetry. A)True

B)False

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Chapter 12: The Cardiovascular System

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Sample Questions

Q1) The tricuspid valve is located between the left ventricle and the aorta.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Which of the following structures delays contraction of the heart?

A)Purkinje fibers

B)SA node

C)AV bundle

D)AV node

Q3) Blood slows down in arterioles due to the large cross-sectional area.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Hemoglobin is a protein in white blood cells that destroys pathogens like bacteria.

A)True

B)False

Q5) What is the purpose of precapillary sphincters?

A)They regulate blood flow to the heart.

B)They change the amount of blood flowing into capillary beds.

C)They are muscles that pump blood back to the heart.

D)They contract when the tissues need more oxygen and nutrients.

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Chapter 13: The Respiratory System: Movement of Air

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Sample Questions

Q1) The trachea is located behind the esophagus.

A)True

B)False

Q2) The fleshy tab of tissue that hangs down the back of the throat is:

A)the uvula.

B)the oropharynx.

C)the internal nares.

D)the epiglottis.

Q3) Which structure is part of the conducting zone of the respiratory system?

A)Alveoli

B)Respiratory brochioles

C)Bronchi

D)All of these choices

Q4) Tuberculosis is on the rise again because antibiotic-resistant,tubercular bacterial strains have now appeared.

A)True

B)False

Q5) One function of the respiratory system is to maintain blood pH.

A)True

B)False

15

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Chapter 14: Nutrition: You Are What You Eat

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Sample Questions

Q1) ATP is only produced in the electron transport chain.

A)True

B)False

Q2) After eating oysters you develop the symptoms of food poisoning.Which infectious agent might you suspect?

A)E. coli

B)Norwalk-like virus

C)Salmonella

D)Campylobacter

Q3) Hemolytic uremic syndrome is caused by:

A)Salmonella

B)E. coli 0157:H7

C)Norwalk-like virus

D)anorexia

Q4) Unsaturated fats are solid at room temperature.

A)True

B)False

Q5) Chemiosmosis takes place in the cytoplasm of the cell.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 15: The Digestive System

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Sample Questions

Q1) A cavity is damage to which region of the tooth?

A)Dentin

B)Enamel

C)Pulp

D)Root

Q2) Where is pepsin produced?

A)Salivary glands

B)Stomach

C)Liver

D)Pancreas

Q3) The ileum is part of which structure?

A)Large intestine

B)Stomach

C)Small intestine

D)Pancreas

Q4) Where does peristalsis start during deglutition?

A)Mouth

B)Pharynx

C)Esophagus

D)Stomach

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Chapter 16: The Urinary System

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which structure directs urine into the ureter?

A)Renal hilus

B)Renal pelvis

C)Glomerulus

D)Urethra

Q2) Urinalysis can produce false positive results for certain drugs because it does not test for the specific drug but rather the breakdown products.

A)True

B)False

Q3) The renal pyramids are located in the:

A)renal cortex.

B)renal medulla.

C)renal papilla.

D)renal pelvis.

Q4) What effect does a high-protein diet have on the pH of urine?

A)Keeps it in the normal range

B)Increases the acidity

C)Increases the alkalinity

D)Causes an excess of bicarbonate ions in the urine

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Chapter 17: The Endocrine System and Development

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Sample Questions

Q1) What causes the development of secondary sex characteristics in males and females?

A)hGH

B)Prolactin

C)FSH and LH

D)Oxytocin

Q2) The posterior pituitary gland is composed of neuroendocrine cells.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Glucagon:

A)stimulates the release of hGH from the pituitary gland.

B)decreases the basal metabolic rate.

C)regulates the movement of chyme from the stomach to the small intestine.

D)accelerates the conversion of glycogen to glucose.

Q4) What causes the condition of goiter?

A)Hyposecretion of cortisol

B)Hypersecretion of insulin

C)Hypersecretion of TSH

D)Hyposecretion of ACTH

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Chapter

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which is an example of a haploid gamete?

A)Fertilized egg

B)Sperm

C)Cell taken from the uterine lining

D)Zygote

Q2) Sperm production occurs in the:

A)epididymis.

B)ductus deferens.

C)seminiferous tubules.

D)Leydig cells.

Q3) During surgical sterilization of a male:

A)the foreskin of the penis is removed.

B)the prostate gland is removed.

C)the ductus deferens is cut and tied off.

D)a hormonal implant is placed in the testis to prevent sperm from maturing.

Q4) RU486 works by blocking the action of:

A)LH.

B)FSH.

C)estrogen.

D)progesterone.

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Chapter 19: Pregnancy: Development From Conception to Newborn

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Sample Questions

Q1) When a sperm fertilizes an egg the resulting cell is called:

A)a morula.

B)a blastocyst.

C)an implantation.

D)a zygote.

Q2) If the labor needs to be induced,pitocin,a synthetic form of prolactin,will be given intravenously.

A)True

B)False

Q3) A "breech baby":

A)is when the baby is born before 37 weeks of gestation.

B)is when the baby is delivered by cesarean section.

C)is when the baby fails to gain weight like other babies its age.

D)is when the baby's position in the womb makes it difficult to deliver because the buttocks or feet are lower than the head.

Q4) The amnion provides a diffusion area for the amniotic fluid.

A)True B)False

21

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Chapter 20: Inheritance, Genetics, and Molecular Biology

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Sample Questions

Q1) Gregor Mendel was the first to breed plants and draw conclusions about the patterns of inheritance from his results.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Which of the following is NOT an example of a single-gene disorder?

A)Down syndrome

B)Cystic fibrosis

C)Marfan syndrome

D)SCID

Q3) Human traits are complicated because many are polygenic which means the trait is influenced by many genes.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Hemophilia and colorblindness are:

A)dominant traits.

B)sex-linked traits.

C)multifactorial traits.

D)autosomal traits.

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Chapter 21: Populations Evolve in Ecosystems

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which organism is not a typical example of a Malthusian strategist?

A)Elephant

B)Insect

C)Rodent

D)Plant

Q2) The Calvin cycle requires the energy from photons of light to 'fix' carbon.

A)True

B)False

Q3) How do bacteria show evidence for evolution?

A)They arise spontaneously in labs given the right conditions.

B)Antibiotic-resistant bacterial populations are on the rise.

C)Scientists can force bacteria to change into different species given the right conditions.

D)Bacterial DNA is very similar to human DNA.

Q4) Only about 10 percent of the available energy at one trophic level can be transferred to the next trophic level.

A)True

B)False

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