Human Biology Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Human Biology explores the structure and function of the human body, focusing on cells, tissues, organs, and organ systems. This course examines the biological principles underlying human physiology, genetics, development, and evolution. Students will also discuss current health issues, including nutrition, disease, and the impact of lifestyle and environment on human health. Through laboratory and interactive activities, learners gain practical understanding of anatomical structures and physiological processes, preparing them for further study or careers in health and biological sciences.
Recommended Textbook
Biology A Guide to the Natural World 5th Edition by David Krogh
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Science As a Way of Learning: a Guide to the Natural World
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Q1) What is the difference between a tissue and an organ system?
A)Tissues are composed of organ systems.
B)Tissues are not composed of cells, but organ systems are composed of cells.
C)A tissue cannot exist unless it is part of an organ system, but an organ system can exist independently of tissues.
D)An organ system includes tissues.
Answer: D
Q2) Living things inherit information from their parents encoded in: A)fats.
B)atoms.
C)proteins.
D)DNA.
Answer: D
Q3) A good hypothesis must:
A)be falsifiable.
B)be false.
C)be theoretical.
D)lead to a question.
E)be true.
Answer: A
Page 3
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Chapter 2: Fundamental Building Blocks: Chemistry, water, and Ph
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Q1) Hydrogen,deuterium,and tritium are considered the same element because:
A)their mass is about the same.
B)they can form ions easily.
C)they have the same number of protons.
Answer: C
Q2) If a neutral atom has an atomic number of 10,then we know that it has:
A)10 neutrons.
B)10 protons.
C)10 electrons.
D)10 protons and 10 electrons.
E)10 protons, 10 electrons, and 10 neutrons.
Answer: D
Q3) Which elements make up the majority of the human body?
Answer: Carbon,oxygen,and hydrogen make up the majority of the human body.
Q4) Which of the following results from the making of a bond?
A)Atoms become more reactive.
B)Molecules are broken down.
C)Electrons are destroyed.
D)Atoms become more stable.
Answer: D
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Chapter 3: Lifes Components: Biological Molecules
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Q1) Sugar is an organic molecule because it contains:
A)carbon and nitrogen.
B)carbon.
C)water.
D)carbon dioxide.
E)carbon and oxygen.
Answer: B
Q2) In the following chemical reaction,which molecule is the disaccharide? glucose + fructose sucrose + water
A)sucrose
B)glucose
C)water
D)fructose
Answer: A
Q3) All of the following are monosaccharides except:
A)fructose.
B)cellulose.
C)glucose.
D)deoxyribose.
Answer: B
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Chapter 4: Lifes Home: the Cell
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Q1) The outer lining of a cell is the:
A)cytosol.
B)plasma membrane.
C)cytoskeleton.
D)nucleus.
Q2) Cell walls can be found as part of:
A)animal cells, fungi, and protists.
B)plant cells, bacteria, fungi, and protists.
C)protists and animal cells.
D)bacterial cells.
E)plant cells.
Q3) The central vacuole is used for nutrient storage and photosynthesis in plant cells.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A man was under treatment for infertility.Examination of his sperm showed that his sperm could not swim.He also suffered from chronic bronchitis and other respiratory problems in which mucus with trapped particles was not being cleared from his lungs.From this you might infer he has a genetic defect affecting which structures inside his cells?
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Chapter 5: Lifes Border: the Plasma Membrane
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Q1) You have lost a lot of blood in an accident.In the emergency room the first thing the doctors will need to do is replace lost fluids.The fluids they give you should be:
A)isotonic to your cells.
B)hypotonic to your cells.
C)hypertonic to your cells.
D)either hypertonic or isotonic to your cells.
E)either hypertonic or hypotonic to your cells.
Q2) Osmosis is an example of passive transport.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The outer living limit of the cell is called the:
A)cell wall.
B)edge.
C)plastid.
D)plasma membrane.
Q4) Active transport moves a substance against the concentration gradient.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Osmosis refers to the diffusion of ________ across a membrane.
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Chapter 6: Lifes Mainspring: an Introduction to Energy
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Q1) In allosteric enzyme regulation,which of the following is false about the molecules that can inhibit enzyme activity?
A)They can cause the active site to have a poor shape for binding substrate.
B)They can increase substrate binding.
C)They cause a change in the enzyme's shape.
D)They can bind to a site other than the active site.
Q2) Glucose can be broken down to provide energy for the beating of cilia.Therefore,the glucose must contain:
A)potential energy.
B)kinetic energy.
C)heat energy.
D)entropy.
Q3) In the reaction glucose + oxygen carbon dioxide + heat,the:
A)products have more potential energy than the reactants.
B)products have less potential energy than the reactants.
C)products have the same amount of potential energy as the reactants. D)entropy has decreased.
Q4) The regulation of an enzyme's activity by means of a molecule binding to a site on the enzyme other than its active site is called ________.
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Chapter 7: Vital Harvest: Deriving Energy From Food
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Q1) There is an energy investment step needed to get glycolysis started,requiring the use of ________ ATPs.
A)zero
B)four
C)two
D)three
E)one
Q2) As you know,all living things require a source of nutrients.Using animals as an example,explain what these nutrients are used for once they leave the digestive tract.
Q3) In order for a fat to be used for energy,it must first be broken down into:
A)amino acids.
B)glucose.
C)fatty acids and sugars.
D)fatty acids and glycerol.
Q4) During aerobic respiration,the final electron acceptor is ________.
Q5) A molecule that has gained electrons has been ________.
Q6) ________ means "sugar splitting."
Q7) The most important electron carrier in cellular respiration is ________.
Q8) The electron transport chain occurs in the ________ of the mitochondria.
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Chapter 8: The Green Worlds Gift: Photosynthesis
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Q1) Which of the following is true of plants?
A)Plants can create their own sugars using photosynthesis.
B)Plants can create their own sugars using fermentation.
C)Plants can create their own sugars using aerobic cellular respiration.
D)Plants can create their own sugars using anaerobic cellular respiration.
Q2) Where does the NADPH created during the light reactions accumulate?
A)in the stomata
B)in the thylakoid membrane
C)in the leaf's epidermis
D)in the thylakoid compartment
E)in the stroma
Q3) Your friend lives in a basement apartment with no windows.She loves plants,but every time she tries to grow one it dies.What might you suggest your friend try,and why?
Q4) Which of the following is a CAM plant?
A)lilac
B)cactus
C)sugarcane
D)pine tree
E)corn
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Chapter 9: The Links in Lifes Chain: Genetics and Cell Division
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Q1) When a dividing human cell reaches telophase,23 nuclear membranes must form,one for each pair of chromosomes.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What is one of the similarities between prokaryotic and eukaryotic cell division?
A)DNA is unwound and duplicated by the same process.
B)Microtubules separate the chromosomes.
C)One cell divides into four cells.
D)At the end of cell division, nuclear membranes form around the chromosomes.
Q3) At what point in the cell cycle does DNA replication take place?
A)during mitosis
B)continually throughout the cell cycle
C)during cytokinesis
D)before mitosis
Q4) During the cell cycle of a eukaryotic cell,each chromosome is replicated to become a chromosome with two chromatids,and then the chromatids are pulled apart to form two separate chromosomes.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 10: Preparing for Sexual Reproduction: Meiosis
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Q1) What process produces genetic diversity through random distribution of chromosomes?
A)alignment of the metaphase plate to one side instead of in the middle
B)cytokinesis
C)independent assortment
D)recombination
E)crossing over
Q2) The X and Y chromosomes are not homologous,but in the meiosis of sperm formation,they pair and separate in anaphase I as though they were homologous.
A)True
B)False
Q3) How many chromosomes are in a human gamete?
A)43
B)42
C)26
D)23
E)46
Q4) ________ have both male and female reproductive parts.
Q5) Once produced,a zygote will divide by ________ to develop into a whole organism.
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Chapter 11: The First Geneticist: Mendel and His Discoveries
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Q1) In humans,"unattached" earlobes are dominant over "attached" earlobes.Widow's-peak hairline is dominant over non-widow's-peak hairline.Use E and e for the earlobe phenotype alleles and W and w for the hairline phenotype alleles.A woman and a man,both with genotype EeWw,have a child.What is the probability that the child will have attached earlobes and a widow's peak?
A)1/16
B)9/16
C)1/3
D)3/4
E)3/16
Q2) A particular quality of an organism is referred to as a ________,each variation of which is a particular ________.
Q3) In a breeding experiment with yellow and green true-breeding parents,Mendel took yellow seeds from his F generation,planted them,and self-pollinated the flowers to produce an F generation.He saw that some produced all yellow seeds,and some produced a mix of yellow and green seeds.How can these results be explained?
Q4) The physical characteristics of an organism,or its ________,are determined by its genetic makeup,referred to as its ________.
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Chapter 12: Units of Heredity: Chromosomes and Inheritance
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Q1) Nondisjunction in meiosis gives rise to gametes with abnormal chromosome numbers.Which event is likely to produce a higher percentage of abnormal gametes?
A)failure of homologous chromosomes to separate at meiosis I
B)failure of homologous chromosomes to separate at meiosis II
C)failure of sister chromatids to separate at meiosis I
D)failure of sister chromatids to separate at meiosis II
E)failure of sister chromatids to separate at mitosis
Q2) Regarding the human sex chromosomes,which statement is correct?
A)The Y chromosome carries a greater number of genes than does the X chromosome.
B)X and Y are different in size but carry nearly equal numbers of genes.
C)The X chromosome carries more genes than does the Y chromosome.
D)The X chromosome carries only gender-related genes.
E)The X chromosome carries the genes for the development of male phenotype.
Q3) If a disease is caused by a dominant allele,it means that a person with the disease:
A)will always pass it on to all their children.
B)will pass it on to one-fourth of their children.
C)must be homozygous dominant for the allele.
D)must be heterozygous for the allele.
E)could be either homozygous or heterozygous for the allele.
Page 14
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Chapter 13: Passing on Lifes Information: Dna Structure and Replication
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Q1) How is the information that specifies a protein stored in DNA?
A)in the arrangement of the sugar-phosphate chain
B)in the types of chemical bonds holding bases together
C)in the sequence of bases
D)in the orientation of the double strands
Q2) The structure of DNA allows the molecule to store information.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Describe what happens to the two parent strands of DNA during DNA replication.
Q4) Which of these individuals are credited with the discovery of the structure of DNA?
A)Rosalind Franklin and Maurice Wilkins
B)Gregor Mendel and T.H. Morgan
C)James Watson and Francis Crick
D)Louis Pasteur
Q5) In a normal DNA molecule,adenine always pairs with ________,and cytosine always pairs with ________.
Q6) The bases of each strand of a double helix are paired with bases on the other strand,so each strand of DNA is said to be ________ to the other.
Page 15
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Chapter 14: How Proteins Are Made: Genetic Transcription, translation, and Regulation
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Q1) The full complement of DNA found in a cell of your body constitutes your: A)coding sequences.
B)non-coding sequences.
C)genome.
D)genetic code.
Q2) Translation of mRNA into protein always starts at: A)a termination codon.
B)the E site.
C)an AUG codon.
D)the A site.
E)the first anticodon on the mRNA.
Q3) Which segment of an mRNA transcript is removed before it is translated? A)exons.
B)operators.
C)introns.
D)Alu sequences.
E)stop codons.
Q4) During translation,a tRNA with its bound amino acids is in the P site.What processes happen once a new tRNA is in the A site?
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Q5) The codon AAC in mRNA will match with the tRNA anticodon sequence ________.
Chapter 15: The Future Isnt What It Used to Be: Biotechnology
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Q1) One advantage of using bacteria in recombinant DNA technology is that they have a ring of DNA that is not part of their chromosome called a:
A)plasmid.
B)virus.
C)bacteriophage.
D)restriction fragment.
Q2) What is the most common way of introducing recombinant DNA into bacterial cells?
A)viral vectors
B)PCR
C)transformation
D)gel electrophoresis
Q3) What is the advantage of genetically modifying crops such as corn,cotton,and potatoes with Bt genes?
A)to reduce the need for fertilizers
B)to stop Bacillus thuringiensis from damaging the crops
C)to improve the resistance of insect pests to Bt toxins
D)to make the crops more resistant to insect pests
Q4) Next to plasmids,the most common type of cloning vector is a ________.
Q5) ________ involves the fusion of a somatic cell with an enucleated egg cell.
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Chapter 16: An Introduction to Evolution: Charles Darwin, evolutionary Thought, and the Evidence for Evolution
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Q1) The most important concept that Charles Darwin brought to the discussion of evolution was that natural selection was the driving force behind the change that occurred in organisms over time.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Charles Darwin and Alfred Russel Wallace both realized that most species produce many more offspring than is necessary to maintain a constant population.What might be the fate of the excess individuals?
A)The more favorable forms survive and reproduce, but the others do not.
B)They mutate and then are able to adapt to new environments.
C)They evolve to take advantage of natural resources.
Q3) The major weakness of Charles Darwin's theory during his lifetime was the:
A)fact that populations do not promote competition but rather promote sharing.
B)lack of a mechanism to explain how traits were passed to offspring intact when most believed inheritance worked through blending.
C)fact that, at certain points in embryonic development, diverse species all have structures known as pharyngeal gill slits.
D)lack of variation in natural populations.
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Chapter 17: The Means of Evolution: Microevolution
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Q1) The gene pool for a particular gene would include:
A)the sum of all the alleles for all the traits in the population.
B)all the alleles for a given trait in a particular individual organism of the population.
C)the sum of all the phenotypes in the population.
D)all the alleles for a particular gene in all the individuals in the population.
Q2) Disruptive selection operates whenever:
A)a phenotype is more successful because it is rare.
B)natural selection is disrupted by genetic drift.
C)the extremes in a distribution of phenotypes are more fit than the average.
D)only the largest individuals survive.
Q3) How have Caesarean sections and intensive neonatal (near-birth)medical care likely affected the average birth weight of American babies?
A)Birth weight is now subject to disruptive selection instead of stabilizing selection.
B)Average birth weights have significantly decreased.
C)Gene flow will occur in the direction of larger and smaller infants.
D)Stabilizing selection for birth weight no longer has as much of an influence.
Q4) The smallest unit that can participate in evolution is a ________.
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Chapter 18: The Outcomes of Evolution: Macroevolution
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Q1) Which of these is not gametic isolation?
A)Female stigma destroys germinating pollen grain.
B)Lily sperm cannot fertilize tulip eggs.
C)Pollen grain does not germinate on stigma (female structure).
D)Male and female sex organs do not fit together.
Q2) If the apple and haw flies no longer interbreed due to the different ripening times of apples and hawthorns,this would be an example of what kind of reproductive isolating mechanism?
A)ecological isolation
B)temporal isolation
C)behavioral isolation
D)mechanical isolation
E)gametic isolation
Q3) Which of the following pairs of traits represents analogous characteristics?
A)trout fins and frog legs
B)sparrow wings and penguin wings
C)bat wings and whale fins
D)bat wings and dragonfly wings
Q4) The practice of giving a two-part scientific name to every distinct organism is called
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Chapter 19: A Slow Unfolding: the History of Life on Earth
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Q1) Which of the following would support a hypothesis that insects preceded amphibians on land and were flourishing when the first amphibians evolved?
A)Amphibians and insects both have lungs in their terrestrial stage.
B)Amphibians and insects have many adaptations in common.
C)Amphibians and insects share a recent common ancestor.
D)Many amphibians are insectivores in their terrestrial stage.
Q2) Which of the following is assumed to be more primitive than a dinosaur and more complex than a shark?
A)segmented worm
B)crayfish
C)starfish
D)frog
Q3) The Cambrian explosion of life is most notable for the:
A)appearance of multicellular animals, including nearly all phyla of the animal kingdom.
B)movement of life from the oceans to the land masses, including all kingdoms.
C)appearance of stromatolites.
D)appearance of the first photosynthetic organisms.
Q4) Life first evolved in and the earliest forms of life lived in ________.
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Chapter 20: Arriving Late,traveling Far: the Evolution of Human Beings
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Q1) According to the fossil evidence,which hominin was the first to leave Africa?
A)Homo neanderthalensis
B)Homo sapiens
C)Homo erectus
D)Homo ergaster
Q2) Hominins migrated from Africa,through Asia,all the way to Australia. A)True
B)False
Q3) The first wave of modern human migration reached Europe and northern Asia. A)True
B)False
Q4) The fossils of Australopithecines indicate that,even though they walked upright,their arms were longer than their legs,and their feet still contained a partially opposable big toe.What does this suggest to you about their habitat and lifestyle?
Q5) Describe the characteristics that appear to differentiate humans from apes in the hominin group.
Q6) The first wave of modern human migration out of Africa began about ________.
Page 22
Q7) To which species does the fossil hominin in the first crate belong? Briefly explain your answer.
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Diversity of Life 1
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Q1) Rod-shaped bacteria are called spirochetes.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The main decomposers on Earth are the:
A)viruses and protists.
B)plants and animals.
C)bacteria and fungi.
D)plants and fungi.
Q3) In general,most antibiotics work by:
A)exploiting differences between human and bacterial cells.
B)preventing bacteria from entering human cells.
C)preventing viruses from entering human cells.
D)boosting the human immune system.
Q4) Malaria is caused by a bacterium.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Most protists are unicellular.
A)True
B)False
Page 23
Q6) Some protists have locomotor extensions called ________ and ________.
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Chapter 22: Fungi: the Diversity of Life 2
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Q1) An important role of fungi in human society is that fungi are the source of:
A)the anti-inflammatory drug ibuprofen.
B)immune-system-suppressing drugs important for organ transplants.
C)nutrition for farm animals.
D)bio-fuels.
Q2) The fungal group with the largest number of known species is: A)zygomycetes.
B)ascomycetes.
C)basidiomycetes. D)chytrids.
Q3) The cell walls of fungi contain: A)chitin. B)cellulose. C)phospholipids. D)DNA.
Q4) Fungi obtain food exclusively by decomposing dead organisms. A)True B)False
Q5) Discuss the ways in which fungi are both helpful and harmful to human society.
Page 25
Q6) Most fungi are ________,or fixed in one spot.
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Chapter 23: Animals: the Diversity of Life 3
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Q1) Discuss why nearly all larger animals have circulatory systems,and describe the differences between the open circulatory system and the closed circulatory system.
Q2) There are more species in the insect group of phylum Arthropoda than all other animal phyla combined.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A hermaphrodite is an organism that:
A)generally reproduces asexually.
B)does not require males for sexual reproduction.
C)possesses both male and female sex organs.
D)can select the sex of its offspring.
E)usually stores sperm in female structures for months after copulation.
Q4) Which group is most closely related to the echinoderms?
A)Arthropods
B)Molluscs
C)Chordates
D)Nematodes
E)Annelids
Q5) What are the benefits and challenges of an exoskeleton?
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Chapter 24: Plants: the Diversity of Life 4
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Q1) Gymnosperms were the dominant form of plant life on land:
A)around the time the dinosaurs came to dominance.
B)until the discovery of fire by humans.
C)before ferns evolved.
D)about 20 million years ago.
Q2) A spore growing into a plant that will produce sperm or eggs describes the ________ generation of a plant's life cycle.
Q3) Elaborate leaves called "fronds" are found in which group of seedless vascular plants?
A)green algae
B)gymnosperms
C)mosses
D)ferns
Q4) Which of the following would be an example of an adaptation for seed dispersal?
A)phototropism
B)pinecones
C)nectar production
D)seeds wrapped in burrs
E)deciduous cycles
Q5) Ginkgo biloba belongs in the plant group ________.
Page 27
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Chapter 25: The Angiosperms: Form and Function in Flowering Plants
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Q1) Vascular tissue that conducts food produced during photosynthesis is the: A)meristematic tissue.
B)phloem.
C)xylem.
D)ground substance.
Q2) The force that moves water through xylem is provided by: A)gravity.
B)transpiration.
C)osmosis.
D)active transport.
Q3) Although they may look different,all fruits come from one carpel and produce one seed.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The cotyledons of an embryo represent the first leaves of the plant.
A)True B)False
Q5) Double fertilization occurs within the embryo sac in the carpels of angiosperms. A)True
B)False
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Chapter
Integumentary, skeletal, and Muscular Systems
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Q1) In humans,the heart and lungs are found in the:
A)spinal cavity.
B)abdominopelvic cavity.
C)cranial cavity.
D)thoracic cavity.
Q2) Which of the following is characteristic of cardiac muscle?
A)It is found only in the heart and blood vessels.
B)It is most similar in appearance to smooth muscle.
C)It is not striated.
D)It contracts under the control of its pacemaker cells.
Q3) Which of the following systems are involved in coordination and regulation?
A)nervous and endocrine
B)digestive and cardiovascular
C)urinary and cardiovascular
D)lymphatic and respiratory
Q4) The heart is in the thoracic cavity.
A)True
B)False
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Q5) The brain is in the ________ cavity,which is part of the larger ________ cavity.
Q6) Bone and cartilage are examples of ________ tissues.
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Page 30
Chapter 27: Communication and Control 1: the Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Part of the reason for the charge difference inside and outside a neuron's membrane is:
A)excess potassium outside the membrane.
B)excess sodium inside the membrane.
C)negatively charged proteins inside the membrane.
D)positively charged proteins inside the membrane.
E)positively charged proteins outside the membrane.
Q2) A section of a neuron's membrane becomes temporarily positive on the inside when:
A)ion channels open and sodium ions rush in.
B)ion channels open and potassium ions rush in.
C)negatively charged proteins exit the cell.
D)neurotransmitters enter the cell.
Q3) Neurons are not correct cells because they aren't spherical in shape.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The neuron being stimulated by a neurotransmitter comes after the synaptic cleft.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 28: Communication and Control 2: the Endocrine System
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Sample Questions
Q1) A bunch of hormone molecules travel by one cell and have no effect but quickly stimulate the next cell.What did the second cell have that the first did not?
A)greater need for the hormone
B)a homeostatic response
C)receptors for the hormone
D)dendrites
E)larger size
Q2) Through nervous stimulation,the hypothalamus controls the release of which hormone?
A)adrenaline
B)growth hormone
C)thyroid-stimulating hormone
D)glucagon
E)follicle-stimulating hormone
Q3) Small amounts of testosterone are made in the ovaries and adrenal glands of females.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What gland and hormone control the release of cortisol from the adrenal cortex?
32
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Chapter 29: Defending the Body: the Immune System
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Sample Questions
Q1) What does it mean when we say a vaccine is based on an "attenuated" virus?
A)The vaccine is a live virus that has been heat-killed.
B)The vaccine is a live virus that has been chemically damaged.
C)The vaccine is a similar species to the virus that isn't harmful (e.g., cowpox for smallpox).
D)The vaccine isn't the virus at all, just similar-shaped chemicals.
E)The vaccine is based on a virus that has been rendered harmless by lab-induced mutation.
Q2) Lymphocytes that become part of cell-mediated immunity arm of the adaptive immune response develop in the:
A)bone marrow.
B)thymus.
C)intestine.
D)lymph nodes.
E)spleen.
Q3) Lymph "glands" (nodes)swelling is a sign that an infection is present.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The inflammatory response is caused by the chemical ________.
Q5) What is a phagocyte?
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Chapter 30: Transport and Exchange 1: Blood and Breath
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Sample Questions
Q1) Some proteins are too large to leave the capillaries.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Water and plasma proteins make up about 99 percent of blood plasma.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Veins are smaller blood vessels than capillaries.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The human cardiovascular system is comparable in some ways to a car's: A)engine.
B)electrical system.
C)cooling system.
D)transmission system.
Q5) Many people regularly donate plasma.Which of the following substances is not given when the plasma is donated?
A)electrolytes
B)antibodies
C)water
D)red blood cells
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Chapter 31: Transport and Exchange 2: Digestion, nutrition, and Elimination
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Q1) A friend tells you that she wants to try to be a strict vegetarian or vegan,but her parents are discouraging her from doing so.Her parents say she will not get enough protein or vitamins.What advice can you offer your friend to help her convince her parents she will get enough protein and vitamins on a vegetarian or vegan diet?
Q2) Which of the following is a complex carbohydrate that cannot be digested?
A)disaccharides
B)starches
C)high fructose corn syrup
D)fibers
Q3) Which category of nutrient would be best described as compounds needed in small amounts in the diet to facilitate chemical reactions in the body?
A)lipids
B)trace minerals
C)vitamins
D)enzymes
Q4) Which structure,A,B,C,or D,transports urine using peristalsis?
Q5) Minerals are always chemical elements,not compounds.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 32: An Amazingly Detailed Script: Animal Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) Programmed cell death is also known as ________.
Q2) Bicoid is only one type of morphogen.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Bicoid mRNAs are produced by the zygote.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The mouth is the last thing produced by growth of the archenteron through the sea urchin gastrula.
A)True
B)False
Q5) A basic description of the function of morphogens is that they:
A)stimulate the formation of the ectoderm.
B)affect the course of local development.
C)kill cells during development.
D)stop all embryonic growth.
Q6) The lenses of the eye are produced from the endoderm.
A)True
B)False
Q7) During gastrulation in sea urchins,which forms first,the mouth or the anus? Page 36
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Chapter 33: How the Baby Came to Be: Human Reproduction
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is considered a gamete?
A)embryo
B)child
C)oocyte
D)zygote
Q2) Spermatids are produced by:
A)spermatogonia.
B)primary spermatocytes.
C)secondary spermatocytes.
D)sertiary spermatocytes.
Q3) Sperm are made in the: A)testes.
B)epididymis.
C)ovary.
D)vas deferens.
Q4) Development of sperm occurs from the:
A)inside of the seminiferous tubule toward the outside.
B)outside of the epididymis toward the inside.
C)outside of the seminiferous tubule toward the inside.
D)middle of the penis toward the prostate gland.
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Chapter 34: An Interactive Living World 1: Populations in Ecology
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Q1) Which of the following would be generally true of r-selected species?
A)Most live until older age.
B)All live very short life spans.
C)R-selected species are larger organisms that produce few offspring.
D)R-selected species are smaller organisms that produce many offspring.
Q2) If a population's death rate is 5 percent and birth rate is 10 percent,its r value would be:
A)15 percent.
B)5 percent.
C)50 percent.
D)essentially zero.
Q3) The average amount of time that passes between the birth of a woman and the birth of her child is called:
A)reproductive time.
B)generation time.
C)birth rate.
D)population rate.
Q4) Elephants are good examples of r-selected species.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 35: An Interactive Living World 2: Communities in Ecology
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Sample Questions
Q1) A flea is considered to be a predator on a dog.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following happens when a new island arises from the ocean and life begins to colonize the island?
A)competitive exclusion
B)coevolution
C)primary succession
D)secondary succession
Q3) On a hike along the desert slope of the Sierra Nevada Mountains in California,you notice that there is an abundance of pinyon pine and juniper trees.We would identify these two plants as:
A)competitors.
B)mutualistic species.
C)ecological dominants.
D)symbiotic species.
Q4) Competition among species may lead to resource partitioning in an ecosystem.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What is the relationship between a biodiversity and geographic diversity?
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Chapter 36: An Interactive Living World 3: Ecosystems and Biomes
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Q1) What major agricultural innovation in the early twentieth century allowed for production of far more food on arable land?
A)the discovery of crop rotation
B)use of fish as fertilizer
C)concentration of carbon fertilizer
D)industrial nitrogen fixation
E)genetically modified crops
Q2) The Venus flytrap is a photosynthetic plant that can trap and eat small insects.The Venus flytrap is a:
A)secondary consumer.
B)producer.
C)tertiary consumer.
D)both a producer and secondary consumer.
E)both a producer and tertiary consumer.
Q3) The coastal zone is best described as the:
A)area between high and low tide.
B)main profundal zone of the ocean.
C)zone where freshwater and saltwater mix.
D)area between high tide and the edge of the continental shelf.
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E)area between low tide and the start of the benthic zone.
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