Human Biology Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Human Biology is the study of the structure, function, and development of the human body, integrating knowledge from anatomy, physiology, genetics, and biochemistry. The course explores the fundamental systems that sustain life, including the circulatory, respiratory, nervous, and immune systems, and examines how these systems interact to maintain health. Students also investigate topics such as human reproduction, growth, and aging, as well as the impact of lifestyle, environment, and disease on the body. Through lectures, discussions, and laboratory work, students gain a comprehensive understanding of human biology and its relevance to personal and public health.
Recommended Textbook
Biology Science for Life with Physiology Edition 5th Edition by Colleen M. Belk
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25 Chapters
1631 Verified Questions
1631 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Can Science Cure the Common Cold
Introduction to the Scientific Method
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79 Verified Questions
79 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What would be the most trustworthy source of scientific information?
A) anecdotal evidence
B) paid advertisements
C) peer-reviewed research publications
D) science reports in newspapers and on TV
Answer: C
Q2) According to the graph, how did the number of days with cold symptoms compare for people taking placebo and zinc lozenges?
A) People taking the placebo had cold symptoms for three more days than people taking the zinc lozenges.
B) People taking the placebo had cold symptoms for seven more days than people taking the zinc lozenges.
C) People taking the zinc lozenges had cold symptoms for three more days than people taking the placebo.
D) People taking the zinc lozenges had cold symptoms for seven more days than people taking the placebo.
Answer: A
Q3) What type of reasoning takes the form of "if/then" statements?
Answer: Deductive
3
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Chapter 2: Science Fiction, Bad Science, and
Pseudoscience:
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53 Verified Questions
53 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which monomer units combine to form nucleic acids?
A) amino acids
B) fatty acids
C) nucleotides
D) sugars
Answer: C
Q2) According to the theory of evolution, what characteristics do all living organisms share suggesting that all life-forms on Earth arose from a single ancestor?
A) They share a common organic chemistry.
B) They have DNA within their nucleus.
C) They exhibit the same basic cell wall.
D) They perform the same mode of reproduction.
Answer: A
Q3) Which feature is found in prokaryotic cells?
A) nucleus
B) endoplasmic reticulum
C) Golgi apparatus
D) cell wall
Answer: D
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Chapter 3: Is It Possible to Supplement Your Way to Better
Performance and Health
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87 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which organelle is found in plant cells but not in animal cells?
A) chloroplast
B) endoplasmic reticulum
C) centriole
D) mitochondrion
Answer: A
Q2) If a drop of red food coloring is added to a glass of water, how will the red-colored molecules move?
A) from an area of high concentration of red-colored molecules to an area of low concentration
B) from an area of low concentration of red-colored molecules to an area of high concentration
C) from an area of high concentration of water molecules to an area of low concentration
D) toward an area of low concentration of water molecules
Answer: A
Q3) Which organelle in a scavenging white blood cell would break down bacteria that had entered the body?
Answer: lysosome
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Chapter 4: Body Weight and Health: Enzymes, Metabolism, and Cellular Respiration
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63 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) According to the diagram, how many molecules of oxygen (O ) combine with electrons and hydrogen ions to form one molecule of water (H O) at the end of the electron transport chain?
A) 1/2
B) 1
C) 2
D) none
Q2) Which person might have a high basal metabolic rate?
A) a 70-year-old woman who knits for most of the day
B) a 30-year-old man who is a professional athlete
C) a 50-year-old woman who exercises twice a week
D) a 65-year-old man who walks three miles daily
Q3) If loading and shooting a dart gun is analogous to how ATP functions, which component of ATP is similar to the dart?
A) the nitrogenous base
B) the sugar
C) a phosphate
D) a photon
Q4) What is the resting energy requirement of a person who is awake but not active? (three words)
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Chapter 5: Life in the Greenhouse: Photosynthesis and Climate Change
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70 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Into what type of energy does the process of photosynthesis transform solar energy?
A) chemical
B) mechanical
C) heat
D) kinetic
Q2) What happens first after chlorophyll absorbs light energy?
A) Water splits into H and O .
B) Hydrogen ions combine with electrons to produce NADPH.
C) Electrons are released and move to a higher energy level.
D) Carbon dioxide is converted to sugar.
Q3) How do scientists estimate the atmospheric levels of carbon dioxide that existed on Earth hundreds or thousands of years ago?
A) They deduce it from the carbon dioxide content of fossil fuels.
B) They measure it from bubbles of gas trapped in Antarctic ice.
C) They estimate it from the relative numbers of carbon-based life forms that existed over time.
D) They measure it from erupting volcanoes, bubbling hot springs, and seeping hydrothermal vents.
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Chapter 6: Cancer: DNA Synthesis, Mitosis, and Meiosis
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58 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which carbohydrate forms the cell wall during cytokinesis in plant cells?
A) cellulose
B) sucrose
C) glucose
D) lactose
Q2) During which phase of mitosis are the replicated chromosome aligned in the middle of the cell?
A) prophase
B) anaphase
C) metaphase
D) telophase
Q3) What term describes a harmless, noncancerous or precancerous tumor?
A) benign
B) carcinogenic
C) malignant
D) metastatic
Q4) What is the process by which cells of a malignant tumor can break away and start new cancers at distant locations?
Q5) What is the surgical removal of cells, tissue, or fluid that will be analyzed for cancerous cells?
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Chapter 7: Are You Only As Smart As Your Genes Mendelian and Quantitative Genetics
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71 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) In a trait that shows continuous variation, what can we infer if the variance is low?
A) The majority of individuals will be far above the mean.
B) The majority of individuals will be very close to the mean.
C) The majority of individuals will be far below the mean.
D) Relatively few individuals will be very close to the mean.
Q2) Which situation most likely describes a recessive genetic disorder?
A) The mutant allele of the gene encodes a completely nonfunctional protein.
B) The mutant allele of the gene encodes a protein that has both the normal function and a new, harmful function.
C) The mutant allele of the gene encodes a protein that has a new, harmful function.
D) The mutant allele of the gene encodes a protein with the normal function but twice the normal activity.
Q3) What term refers to the physical traits of an organism?
Q4) What type of trait has an "off-or-on" character, where individuals have either one phenotype or another (for example, purple vs. white flowers)?
Q5) What are the segments of DNA that generally code for proteins?
Q6) What single, circular structure is found in prokaryotes such as bacteria?
Page 9
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Chapter 8: DNA Detective: Complex Patterns of Inheritance and
Dna Profiling
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65 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) In addition to excessive bleeding, persons with hemophilia may have excessive bruising, pain, and swelling in the joints, vision loss, anemia, or neurological problems. What process results from the effects of a single gene loss?
A) codominance
B) multiple allelism
C) pleiotropy
D) environmental effects
Q2) In humans, what ordinarily determines the sex of the offspring?
A) autosomes carried by the egg cell
B) autosomes carried by the sperm cell
C) sex chromosome carried by the egg cell
D) sex chromosome carried by the sperm cell
Q3) How will people with the same blood type be related?
A) They are always unrelated.
B) They are always related.
C) They may or may not be related.
D) They always have both alleles in common but are not necessarily related.
Q4) What pattern of inheritance occurs in the ABO blood system where there are three distinct alleles in human populations?
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Genetically Modified Organisms: Gene
Expression, Mutation,
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Sample Questions
Q1) Imagine that a mutation in a DNA molecule results in the codon CCU being changed to CCC. Both of these codons code for proline. What characteristic accounts for the fact that more than one codon can code for the same amino acid?
A) the ambiguity of the genetic code
B) the redundancy of the genetic code
C) the universality of the genetic code
D) mutations in the genetic code
Q2) What is pharming?
A) the use of genetically modified crops with organic pesticides
B) the use of genetically modified organisms to produce medical treatments
C) the use of gene guns to produce genetically modified fish species
D) the use of genetically modified organisms that are photosynthetic
Q3) Which foods or food ingredients are regulated by the FDA to ensure food safety?
A) vitamin tablets
B) cheese
C) sirloin steaks
D) chicken wings
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Chapter 10: Where Did We Come From the Evidence for Evolution
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why can evolution in mosquitoes be more easily observed than evolution in a population of squirrels?
A) Mosquitoes have a shorter generation time.
B) Mosquitoes have a higher mutation rate.
C) Mosquitoes feed only on blood.
D) Mosquitoes lay eggs rather than bear live young.
Q2) You're examining fossils from a variety of hominin species. Which fossils would show the greatest amount of radioactive material in relation to daughter products?
A) Paranthropus aethiopicus
B) Homo habilis
C) Ardepithecus ramidus
D) Australopithecus garhi
Q3) What is the molecular clock?
A) The rate at which mutations accumulate in DNA within a species.
B) The rate at which new species diverge from ancestral species.
C) The rate at which structures no longer needed become small and insignificant.
D) The rate at which new discoveries are made about gene homology.
Q4) What type of trait includes the tailbone found in humans and other primates without tails?
Page 12
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Chapter 11: An Evolving Enemy: Natural Selection
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70 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) How would you describe the gene changes shown in this figure?
A) No genes have changed, since all flies have a gene for alcohol processing.
B) The number of genes in the population has increased.
C) The frequency of the fast enzyme allele has decreased.
D) The frequency of the fast enzyme allele has increased.
Q2) What is the primary source for new, unique genes in a population?
A) mutation
B) natural selection
C) artificial selection
D) crossing over
Q3) What is the primary body part affected by tuberculosis?
A) the liver
B) the muscles
C) the immune system
D) the lungs
Q4) In a population, which individuals are most likely to survive and reproduce?
A) the individuals who are best adapted to the environment
B) the largest individuals in the group
C) the individuals who can catch the most prey
D) the individuals who grow the most rapidly
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Chapter 12: Who Am I Species and Races
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Sample Questions
Q1) True or false: When a founder population has a small gene pool, evolutionary change is more likely to be rapid than if the founder population has a large gene pool.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What results after a speciation event?
A) Two species have evolved that are each different from the original species.
B) One new species evolves, while the original species stays the same.
C) One new species evolves, while the original species may stay the same or evolve into something different.
D) One new species evolves, while the original species goes extinct.
Q3) A gene exists as two alleles in a population of freely mating individuals. If 40% of the population carries the recessive allele (a) for the gene, what percentage of the population has the homozygous recessive aa genotype?
A) 40%
B) 20%
C) 16%
D) 80%
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Chapter 13: The Greatest Species on Earth Biodiversity and Classification
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Sample Questions
Q1) What organisms form mats of long, thin chains of cells and are important in decomposition?
Q2) What is the most important role of bacteria in the environment?
A) as disease-causing agents
B) as fungal control
C) as decomposers
D) as a source of restriction enzymes
Q3) What is the adaptive value of natural antibiotic production for fungi?
A) Bacteria use fungi for food.
B) Bacteria spoil the food that the fungi need for their own nutrition.
C) Bacteria are the main competitors with fungi for food.
D) Bacteria inhibit the reproduction of fungi.
Q4) Algae are classified as part of which group?
A) Plantae
B) Protista
C) Fungi
D) Archaea
Q5) What was the first antibiotic, discovered as a result of a laboratory accident?
Q6) What process is performed by both algae and plants?
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Chapter 14: Is the Human Population Too Large Population
Ecology
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69 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which population was unaffected by density-dependent factors?
A) elk in Yellowstone National Park in the 1970s
B) Norway lemmings
C) yeast that ferment grape juice into wine
D) bacteria kept in a culture that has its nutrients constantly replenished
Q2) True or false: The human population growth rate is higher now than ever before.
A)True
B)False
Q3) How does exponential growth appear on a graph?
A) as a straight line
B) as an "S" curve
C) as a "J" curve
D) as a wavy line that goes up and down regularly
Q4) True or false: Net primary productivity refers to all the energy in the plants and animals in a food chain at any particular time.
A)True
B)False
Q5) True or false: A population can be clumped at one scale and uniform at another.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 15: Conserving Biodiversity: Community and Ecosystem Ecology
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72 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) How many species normally go extinct each year, as estimated by scientists?
A) 1 species per thousand per year
B) 1 species per million per year
C) 1 species per billion per year
D) 1 species per year
Q2) Not everyone can travel to a remote area of the world to protect a rare habitat, but there are choices each of us can make each day to reduce habitat destruction and slow the rate of species extinction. What action could you take to reduce habitat destruction caused by the mining, drilling, and transport of fossil fuels?
A) Eat lower on the food chain.
B) Only buy products that are sustainably harvested.
C) Carpool or use public transportation.
D) Keep the thermostat turned to warmer levels in winter and cooler levels in summer.
Q3) Which threat to biodiversity isn't directly due to humans?
A) loss of habitat due to volcanic activity
B) introduction of nonnative species
C) overexploitation
D) pollution
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Chapter 16: Where Do You Live Climate and Biomes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which location might exhibit the greatest variation in temperatures throughout the seasons?
A) a small town at sea level in Panama
B) San Diego, California
C) a city in Finland
D) Rome, Italy
Q2) Earth's axis is tilted away from the sun during ________ and toward the sun during ________ in the Northern Hemisphere.
A) winter; summer
B) summer; winter
C) spring; fall
D) fall; spring
Q3) In the Northern Hemisphere, when does the summer solstice occur?
A) when the sun reaches its northern maximum
B) when the South Pole is closest to the sun
C) when solar irradiance is at its minimum
D) when lengths of day and night are equal at all latitudes
Q4) In a general sense, ________ refers to short term environmental conditions, and ________ refers to long term environmental conditions.
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Chapter 17: Organ Donation: Tissues and Organs
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Sample Questions
Q1) What are the cells that make up the liver?
A) fibroblasts
B) osteocytes
C) chondrocytes
D) hepatocytes
Q2) Fibroblasts are to fibrous connective tissue as ________ are to cartilage.
A) osteoblasts
B) chondrocytes
C) osteocytes
D) hepatocytes
Q3) Which type of cell protects the body from the potentially harmful effects of ultraviolet radiation?
A) nervous
B) muscle
C) epithelial
D) connective
Q4) What connective tissue is made from substances secreted by osteocytes?
Q5) What tissue type protects the body from water loss?
Q6) What example of homeostasis includes the maintenance of constant internal body temperature?
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Chapter 18: Binge Drinking: the Digestive and Urinary Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) How does drinking larger doses of alcohol have negative physiological effects on the body?
A) The heart muscle relaxes to decrease the heart rate.
B) The blood pressure increases to remove toxins.
C) Sweating is decreased to reduce dehydration.
D) The kidneys will reduce urine production.
Q2) What are the functional units of the kidneys?
Q3) How does a digested nutrient enter the bloodstream?
A) through a series of large pores in the duodenum
B) through tiny blood vessels inside the microvilli
C) through the liver
D) through small openings in the epithelium of the stomach
Q4) By which process is the majority of water that's filtered reabsorbed in the nephrons during urine formation?
A) active transport
B) exocytosis
C) osmosis
D) pinocytosis
Q5) Which enzyme in saliva breaks down sugars? (two words)
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Chapter 19: Clearing the Air: Respiratory and Cardiovascular Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) What action does the respiratory system require signals from the nervous system to perform?
A) enhancing the amount of available oxygen in the lungs
B) coordinating the muscles controlling breathing
C) releasing enzymes to increase the exchange of gases
D) exchanging gases with the circulatory system
Q2) True or false: The presence of known carcinogens in ETS supports the argument that ETS can cause lung cancer in nonsmokers.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which structures return blood to the heart?
A) capillaries
B) veins
C) arteries
D) sinoatrial nodes
Q4) Which pathway correctly traces a drop of blood through the vascular system?
A) right ventricle, lungs, left atrium, left ventricle, body, right atrium
B) left ventricle, lungs, right atrium, right ventricle, body, left atrium
C) right ventricle, lungs, right atrium, left ventricle, body, left atrium
D) left ventricle, lungs, left atrium, right ventricle, body, right atrium
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Chapter 20: Vaccination: Protection and Prevention or Peril
Immune System,
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68 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) What cells of the immune system will help the body respond more quickly if the infectious agent is encountered again?
A) complement
B) cytotoxic
C) helper
D) memory
Q2) How can injecting a person with a killed-bacteria vaccine protect that individual from a disease?
A) The proteins of the killed bacteria remain in the body, and live bacteria later prey on them instead of live tissues.
B) The proteins of the killed bacteria bind with receptors in the body so that live bacteria can't bind with them later.
C) The proteins of the killed bacteria stimulate the production of antibodies, which can be utilized later in response to infection.
D) The proteins of the killed bacteria give the person a mild form of the disease, which conditions the body not to respond to later infection.
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Chapter 21: Human Sex Differences: Endocrine, Skeletal, and Muscular Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) A tumor in an endocrine gland caused Jane to have weakened bones and unusually high levels of blood calcium. Which gland was affected?
A) parathyroid gland
B) pancreas
C) bone marrow
D) pituitary gland
Q2) True or false: In general, the first signs of puberty occur earlier in life for girls than for boys.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Why does skeletal muscle have a striated appearance?
A) dark color of myosin
B) dense array of microtubules
C) dense packing of ATP molecules
D) regular arrangement of myofibrils
Q4) Which body structure is part of the axial skeleton?
A) skull
B) legs
C) arms
D) hips
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Chapter 22: Is There Something in the Water Reproductive and Developmental Biology
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the graph depicting the levels of various hormones, what event would prevent the decline in estrogen and progesterone seen toward the end of the 28-day menstrual cycle?
A) a subsequent ovulation event
B) the maturation of another follicle
C) fertilization
D) degeneration of the corpus luteum
Q2) Which condition decreases the probability that fertilization will take place?
A) Cervical mucus is less viscous and thinner following ovulation.
B) The oviducts contract during ovulation.
C) Enzymes are present within the acrosome of sperm.
D) The upper vagina is an acidic environment.
Q3) Ovulation
A) is the process in males that produces sperm.
B) occurs on the first day of the menstrual cycle.
C) results in the release of a mature egg.
D) occurs in the oviducts.
Q4) What body system allows the survival of different species?
Page 24
Q5) What are the primary female reproductive organs that are responsible for producing egg cells?
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Chapter 23: Study Drugs: Brain Boost or Brain Drain Brain
Structure and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Action potential begins when which of the following occurs?
A) The inside of the neuron becomes more negative relative to the outside.
B) Sodium channels open sequentially.
C) The membrane becomes depolarized.
D) Potassium ions diffuse to allow repolarization of the cell.
Q2) During synaptic transmission across a typical synapse, which action occurs?
A) Sodium ions flow into the membrane of the presynaptic neuron.
B) The binding of neurotransmitters triggers the release of potassium ions by the presynaptic neuron.
C) Vesicles containing neurotransmitter molecules diffuse to the receiving neuron's plasma membrane.
D) Neurotransmitter molecules bind to receptors on the postsynaptic membrane.
Q3) What is the network of nerves that radiates out from the brain and the spinal cord part of?
A) the central nervous system
B) interneurons
C) the peripheral nervous system
D) neurotransmitters
Q4) What system is composed of the spinal cord and brain?
Page 25
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Chapter 24: Feeding the World: Plant Structure and Growth
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Sample Questions
Q1) In plants, what are the mature ovaries containing seeds?
A) bulbs
B) fruits
C) tubers
D) rhizomes
Q2) What evidence was used by scientists to deduce the climate conditions that existed thousands of years ago?
A) plant remains trapped in sediments
B) fossilized fruits and seeds
C) DNA in crop plants
D) deep layers in soils
Q3) Which of the following is a form of cultural control to minimize pest populations?
A) crop rotation
B) monoculture
C) irrigation
D) pesticide use
Q4) What is the practice farmers use when they plant a single crop over a large area of land?
Q5) Pollination occurs when the pollen of a flower lands on which plant structure?
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Chapter 25: Growing a Green Thumb: Plant Physiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) What are the narrow, tapering cells found in the xylem tubes of drought-adapted plant species?
Q2) What is the tendency of a plant's uppermost bud to limit the growth of lower buds? (two words)
Q3) What type of plants flower only if day length is less than a critical value?
A) short-day plants
B) long-day plants
C) biennial plants
D) perennial plants
Q4) What is the overall process illustrated by this diagram?
A) C adaptations
B) CAM adaptations
C) apical dominance
D) transpiration
Q5) What type of force moves water up a tree, from its roots to its leaves?
A) pushing
B) pulling
C) pumping
D) positive pressure
Q6) Which plants live for many years and produce flowers every year?
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