Human Biology
Exam Materials
Course Introduction
Human Biology is an interdisciplinary course that explores the structure, function, and processes of the human body at the cellular, tissue, organ, and system levels. It examines the principles of genetics, physiology, anatomy, and biochemistry as they relate to human health and disease. Students will gain an understanding of how the body maintains homeostasis, adapts to environmental changes, and responds to pathogens. The course also considers issues of human evolution, reproduction, and development, as well as the impact of lifestyle choices and environment on human wellness. Through laboratory activities, case studies, and current research discussions, students develop critical thinking and scientific inquiry skills relevant to the biological sciences.
Recommended Textbook
Essentials of Biology 4th Edition by Sylvia S. Mader Dr
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Biology: The Science of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) The process of _____________________ transforms solar energy into chemical energy.
A) metabolism
B) homeostasis
C) respiration
D) photosynthesis
E) reproduction
Answer: D
Q2) The metabolic reactions that rake place in a cell obey all of the same laws and require the same conditions necessary for any chemical reaction to occur.To make these reactions possible,cells
A) maintain the correct temperature, moisture level and acidity as well as other factors.
B) rely on the external conditions in the environment.
C) are at the mercy of change that occur as each reaction progresses in the cell.
D) rely on external factors that control their internal conditions.
E) sidestep the conditions by manipulating the external environment.
Answer: A
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3
Chapter 2: The Chemical Basis of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is NOT a property of water?
A) It is a good solvent.
B) It is denser when frozen than when liquid.
C) It is cohesive.
D) It resists temperature changes.
E) It can be found as a solid, liquid, or gas.
Answer: B
Q2) Which of the following explains the events occurring when water boils?
A) Hydrogen bonds are broken between neighbor water molecules.
B) Covalent bonds are broken between oxygen and hydrogen atoms.
C) Ionic bonds are broken when the minerals in water are heated.
D) The bond between one water molecule and another is strengthened.
E) The hydrogen atoms break away from the oxygen and escape as vapor.
Answer: A
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4
Chapter 3: The Organic Molecules of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following elements would be found in a carbohydrate?
A) C, H
B) C, H, O
C) C, H, O, P
D) C, H, O, N
E) C, H, Cl, O
Answer: B
Q2) The "primary structure" of a protein refers to
A) the interactions among two or more polypeptides.
B) the alpha helix or pleated sheets.
C) the side groups of the amino acids.
D) the number and sequence of amino acids.
E) the DNA nucleotide sequence that coded for it.
Answer: D
Q3) When starch is digested,an -OH group and an -H group from a water molecule is used in hydrolysis to split the monosaccharide subunits.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Inside the Cell
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Sample Questions
Q1) Compared with a eukaryotic cell,a prokaryotic cell
A) lacks organelles beyond ribosomes.
B) is larger.
C) does not require energy.
D) is not living.
E) has no method of movement.
Q2) A general eukaryotic cell is typically in the area of
A) 0-1 millimeter.
B) 1-10 nanometers.
C) 1-10 micrometers.
D) 10-100 micrometers.
E) 10-100 millimeters.
Q3) Without tight junctions in certain tissues
A) cells would not be able to communicate with each other.
B) fluids may leak out past the barrier the junction would create.
C) the tissues would not be able to expand and stretch without damage.
D) nutrients would not be able to be passed from cell to cell.
E) cells would not be able to migrate during their development.
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6
Chapter 5: The Dynamic Cell
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements most accurately describes the first law of thermodynamics?
A) energy can be neither created nor destroyed but it can be changed from one form to another.
B) one usable form of energy cannot be completely converted into another usable form.
C) one usable form of energy can be completely converted into another usable form.
D) energy cannot be created or destroyed.
E) energy cannot be transformed.
Q2) If blood cells are placed in a hypertonic solution
A) the cells will shrink due to water loss by the cell.
B) the cells will be unaffected since they have a cell membrane to separate them from the solution.
C) the cells will swell due to diffusion.
D) the cells will burst due to active transport.
E) the cells will shrink due to the loss of solutes from the blood cell.
Q3) Less energy is needed to bring about a reaction when an enzyme is present.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 6: Energy for Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which stages of the Calvin cycle reactions require the use of energy from ATP?
A) CO<sub>2</sub> fixation and CO<sub>2</sub> reduction
B) CO<sub>2</sub> reduction and RuBP regeneration
C) CO<sub>2</sub> fixation and RuBP regeneration
D) CO<sub>2</sub> fixation, CO<sub>2</sub> reduction, and RuBP regeneration
Q2) The localization of the electron transport chains to the thylakoid membrane ensures that
A) the energy released can be used to establish an H<sup>+</sup> ion gradient.
B) the energy released is stored in the stroma.
C) NADP<sup>+</sup> does not enter the thylakoid space.
D) CO<sub>2</sub> remains in the stroma for the Calvin cycle reactions and does not enter the thylakoid space.
E) glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate (G3P) is produced in the thylakoid space.
Q3) The O<sub>2</sub> given off during photosynthesis is derived from which compound?
A) CO<sub>2</sub> and H<sub>2</sub>O
B) RuBP
C) CO<sub>2</sub>
D) NADP<sup>+</sup>
E) H<sub>2</sub>O
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Chapter 7: Energy for Cells
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Sample Questions
Q1) What molecule most directly provides the energy you need for your muscles to contract?
A) glucose
B) ATP
C) NADH
D) ADP
E) oxygen
Q2) The citric acid cycle starts with ________ and yields
A) lactic acid; carbon dioxide.
B) glucose; 32 ATPs.
C) acetyl CoA; lactic acid or alcohol.
D) acetyl CoA, NAD, FAD, and ADP; carbon dioxide, NADH, FADH<sub>2</sub>, and ATP.
E) carbon dioxide; oxygen. The citric acid cycle starts with the products from the preparatory step that meet up with C<sub>4</sub> molecules already present in the mitochondrial matrix. Two carbons are pulled off and released as carbon dioxide, leaving a C<sub>4</sub> molecule allowing the process to occur again. Both NAD+ and FAD accept hydrogen atoms, resulting in NADH and FADH<sub>2</sub>.
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Page 9
Chapter 8: Cellular Reproduction
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cancer cells have abnormal chromosomes because they express telomerase when they should not.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is not a characteristic of cancer cells?
A) cells that have lost contact inhibition
B) cells with abnormal nuclei
C) cells which function normally for tissue they are in
D) cells that lack differentiation
E) cells that have uncontrolled cell division
Q3) Losing weight can reduce a persons risk for cancer by up to 40%.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The spindle serves two rolls in mitotic cell division.These are
A) to separate the sister chromatids and to elongate the cell.
B) to separate the non-sister chromatids and then the homologous chromosomes.
C) to separate the sister chromatids and then the non-sister chromatids.
D) to separate the sister chromatids and then form the cleavage furrow.
E) to separate the homologous chromosomes and then form the cleavage furrow.
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Chapter 9: Meiosis and the Genetic Basis of Sexual
Reproduction
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Q1) During crossing-over
A) genetic material is exchanged between sister chromatids, resulting in new combinations of alleles.
B) genetic material is exchanged between nonsister chromatids, resulting in new combinations of alleles.
C) sister chromatids from each homologous chromosome of a tetrad are exchanged, resulting in new combinations of alleles.
D) nonsister chromatids from each homologous chromosome of a tetrad are exchanged, resulting in new combinations of alleles.
E) one homologous chromosome of a tetrad is exchanged with another tetrad, resulting in new combinations of alleles.
Q2) Klinefelter syndrome can result from
A) nondisjunction during meiosis I in the female parent.
B) nondisjunction during meiosis I in the male parent.
C) nondisjunction during meiosis I in either female parent.
D) nondisjunction during meiosis I or II in the male parent.
E) nondisjunction during meiosis I or II in either parent.
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Page 11
Chapter 10: Patterns of Inheritance
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Sample Questions
Q1) How many different gametes can be produced from the genotype AaBBDDEeff?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 4
D) 8
E) 16
Q2) Parents with the dominant phenotype cannot have offspring with the recessive phenotype.
A) True, because the dominant gene must be passed down from each parent.
B) True, because at least one dominant gene will be passed down from each parent.
C) False, because one parent could carry the recessive allele.
D) False, because both parents could carry the recessive allele.
E) True, because both parents have the dominant allele.
Q3) What does true-breeding mean?
A) The organism has 2 parents.
B) The organism can be cross-pollinated.
C) The organism is self-pollinated.
D) The organism is easy to cultivate.
E) The organism cannot be cultivated.
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Page 12
Chapter 11: DNA Biology
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Sample Questions
Q1) An intervening sequence of DNA that is not expressed is called a(n)
A) intron.
B) exon.
C) gene.
D) replicon.
E) promoter.
Q2) Which of the following events in gene expression control does not occur in the nucleus?
A) chromatin condensation
B) mRNA translation
C) DNA transcription
D) mRNA processing
E) transcription factor binding
Q3) The sequence of the peptide that would result from transcribing and translating the gene pictured would be
A) Tyr-Ala-Asn.
B) Ile-Ser-Val.
C) no peptide would be made, the first codon means "stop."
D) Met-Arg-Leu.
E) Tyr-Ser-Val.
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Chapter 12: Biotechnology and Genomics
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Sample Questions
Q1) During recombinant DNA technology what structure acts as a carrier for the foreign DNA?
A) vector
B) restriction enzyme
C) DNA ligase
D) polymerase chain reaction
E) DNA helicase
Q2) _____ is the study of the structure and function of cellular proteins and their interactions; _______ may be employed to use computer algorithms to aid this process.
Rev: 02_07_2014_QC_44566
A) Proteomics; bioinformatics
B) Comparative genomics; bioinformatics
C) Genomics; proteomics
D) Proteomics; comparative genomics
E) Comparative genomics; proteomics
Q3) Organisms that have had foreign genes inserted into them are called transgenic organisms.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 13: Genetic Counseling
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Q1) What kinds of mutations can be revealed through ultrasound?
A) Some chromosomal abnormalities, such as Down syndrome and Edwards syndrome, and a few other known inherited disorders.
B) The genetic profile, including any mutant gene alleles the fetus may have.
C) All chromosomal mutations, including deletions, duplications, inversions, and translocations.
D) Only larger chromosomal mutations, such as the large deletion seen in individuals with cri du chat syndrome.
E) Only inherited genetic disorders caused by single gene mutations.
Q2) Which genetic disorder is due to a deletion on chromosome 7?
A) Williams syndrome
B) Cri du chat
C) Alagille syndrome
D) Down syndrome
E) cancer
Q3) Testing for a protein may help reveal whether or not an individual has a genetic disorder.
A)True
B)False
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Page 15
Chapter 14: Darwin and Evolution
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Q1) Which is not an important characteristic of the Galápagos Islands in the context of Darwin's theory of evolution?
A) the islands were too far from mainland South America for most terrestrial plants and animals to colonize.
B) the organisms on the islands were different from those observed in South America.
C) the organisms on the islands were similar to those observed in South America.
D) the organisms on the islands varied from island to island.
E) the multiple islands all had an identical environment.
Q2) The fossil similarity of the extinct glyptodont to the living,modern armadillo is an example of comparative anatomy.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Prior to Darwin,people considered variation among individuals as "imperfections" and that they served no particular purpose.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 15: Evolution on a Small Scale
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Q1) In the figure shown here,flower color of a population is distributed in a bell-shaped normal curve.If the white flower color increases in frequency in the population,this would illustrate
A) stabilizing selection.
B) disruptive selection.
C) directional selection.
D) genetic drift.
Q2) What is the typical mutation rate within a cell?
A) 1/100,000
B) 1/1000
C) 1/10,000
D) 1/100
E) 1/10
Q3) In the process of natural selection,individuals that are most fit are the ones that are A) most likely to survive.
B) most likely to reproduce.
C) most likely to migrate.
D) most likely to mutate.
E) most likely to be physically fit.
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Chapter 16: Evolution on a Large Scale
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Q1) Which of the following lists the levels of taxonomic classification in order from the most inclusive to the least inclusive?
A) genus - family - order - class - phylum
B) phylum - order - class - family - species
C) genus - order - family - class - phylum
D) family - order - class - phylum - kingdom
E) domain - kingdom - phylum - class - order
Q2) A phylogenetic tree
A) indicates common ancestors.
B) indicates the organism's taxon.
C) uses only derived characters.
D) indicates common ancestors for each family.
E) also includes the organism's order and class.
Q3) Which of the following would be considered analogous structures?
A) the forelimb of a bat and the forelimb of a horse
B) the wings of a fly and the wings of a sparrow
C) the pelvis of a human and the pelvis of a whale
D) the flipper of a dolphin and the arm of a human
E) the wings of a bird and the forelimb of a reptile
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Page 18
Chapter 17: The Microorganisms: Viruses, bacteria, and Protists
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Q1) The genetic material of a bacterium can include
A) a circular chromosome.
B) plasmids.
C) latent bacteriophage DNA.
D) a circular chromosome plus plasmids.
E) a circular chromosome, plasmids, and latent bacteriophage DNA.
Q2) Which of the following is not caused by an emerging virus?
A) acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS)
B) chickenpox
C) bird flu
D) ebola
E) severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS)
Q3) Which means of genetic recombination in bacteria requires a direct link between donor and recipient cells?
A) transformation
B) transduction
C) conjugation
D) binary fission
E) both transduction and conjugation
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Chapter 18: Land Environment: Plants and Fungi
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Q1) Which of these is mismatched?
A) mushroom - fruiting body
B) angiosperm - flower
C) lycophyte - microphyll
D) charophyte - hypha
E) gymnosperm - seed
Q2) Apples,oranges,peanuts,and rice grains are produced by
A) gymnosperms.
B) bryophytes.
C) angiosperms.
D) charophytes.
E) lycophytes.
Q3) Which structures were required for the evolution of the ferns and gymnosperms?
A) seeds and flowers
B) megaphylls and seeds
C) microphylls and megaphylls
D) flowers and vascular tissue
E) megaphylls and vascular tissue
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Chapter 19: Both Water and Land: Animals
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Q1) In the replacement model of evolution,where did modern humans first evolve?
A) Africa
B) Asia
C) Europe
D) North America
E) South America
Q2) Which of these diseases is not caused by roundworms?
A) hookworm infection
B) pinworm infection
C) trichinosis
D) schistosomiasis
E) elephantiasis
Q3) Which feature is used to identify the ecdysozoans?
A) shedding their exoskeleton
B) presence of an endoskeleton
C) parasitic lifestyle
D) asexual reproduction
E) adapted to aquatic habitats
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Chapter 20: Plant Anatomy and Growth
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Q1) Mineral transport in plants occurs
A) through xylem tissue when sugars are present.
B) through both xylem and phloem tissue.
C) due to osmosis of water out of tracheids.
D) through xylem tissue as the water column is pulled upward.
E) continuously through phloem in both directions.
Q2) What advantages do root hairs give to a plant?
A) The products of photosynthesis from the leaves are stored in the root hairs.
B) Root hairs provide support for the elongating shoot system.
C) Root hairs allow the plant to regenerate after the shoot system dies back.
D) Root hairs allow lateral branching of the roots.
E) Root hairs increase the surface area available for water absorption.
Q3) What two properties of water are critical in moving water through xylem?
A) polarity and neutral pH
B) cohesion and adhesion
C) density as a solid and low molecular weight
D) adhesion and density as a solid
E) low molecular weight and cohesion
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22
Chapter 21: Plant Responses and Reproduction
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Q1) In a eudicot seed,the zygote becomes the _____,while the _______ is derived from the endosperm.
A) embryo; seed coat
B) cotyledons; embryo
C) embryo; cotyledons
D) embryo; stored food
E) stored food; seed coat
Q2) During germination,which part of the seed exhibits negative gravitrophism?
A) Embryonic shoot
B) Cotyledon
C) Seed coat
D) Root system
E) Embryo
Q3) Which of the following is not an effect of gibberellins?
A) stem elongation between nodes
B) cell elongation
C) breaking of dormancy
D) ripening of fruit
E) excessive stem elongation
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Page 23
Chapter 22: Being Organized and Steady
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Q1) Homeostasis maintains various levels within a narrow range only if environmental conditions do not fluctuate much.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In the figure shown here,the tissue indicated by "1" is
A) characterized by a mineralized matrix.
B) the primary component of the fetal skeleton.
C) filled with coarse collagen fibers.
D) storing fat
E) a type of epithelial tissue
Q3) Glands are often composed of muscle tissue.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The ability of epithelial tissue to constantly divide
A) is a disadvantage in areas of the body where tissue undergoes a lot of wear and tear, such as the digestive tract.
B) makes epithelial tissue more likely to become cancerous than other tissues.
C) results in an inability to replace damaged tissue.
D) makes it similar to nervous tissue.
E) makes it an unsuitable tissue type for the outer layer of skin.
Page 24
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Chapter 23: The Transport Systems
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Q1) The vessel that leaves the heart,taking O<sub>2</sub>-rich blood to the body,
A) is large in diameter with a thick muscle and elastic layer.
B) is called the pulmonary trunk.
C) has many valves along its length to assist in blood flow.
D) is comprised of a single layer of thin epithelial cells.
E) is called the superior vena cava.
Q2) Which is not a function of blood?
A) all are functions of blood
B) transport substances
C) defend the body
D) regulate body temperature
E) forms clots
Q3) Which of the following is NOT true about platelets?
A) They form clumps in leaks in blood vessels.
B) They produce prothrombin activator.
C) They contract within a clot.
D) They phagocytize pathogens.
E) They are actual fragments of a larger type of cell.
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25
Chapter 24: The Maintenance Systems
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Q1) Digestion in humans and earthworms
A) is similar in that both organisms, digestion is an extracellular process, occurring in a complete digestive tract.
B) is different in that earthworms have a sac plan body plan and humans have a tube within a tube body plan.
C) is different in that digestion is an extracellular process in humans but an intracellular process in earthworms.
D) is similar in that in both organisms, digestion is an intracellular process, occurring in an incomplete digestive system.
E) is similar in that in both organisms, digestion occurs in a simple tract, in which all parts of the tract are similar.
Q2) The figure shown represents urine formation.What specific process is occurring at #2?
A) secretion
B) filtration
C) reabsorption
D) excretion
E) urination
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Chapter 25: Human Nutrition
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Q1) Which meal plan is in the closest accordance of the UDSA guide lines?
A) 6 oz. grains, 2.5 cups of vegetables, 2 cups of fruit and 3 cups of milk
B) 2 oz. of grains, 1 cup of vegetables, 2 cups of fruit and 2 cups of milk
C) 6 oz. grains, 2.5 cups of vegetables, 1 cup oils and 5.5 oz. of meat
D) 3 oz. grains, 2 cups fruits, 3 tsp. oils, and 5.5 oz meat
E) 3 cups vegetables, 2 cups fruit, 1 cup milk, and 4 oz meat
Q2) Which source of protein does not contain the nine essential amino acids?
A) nuts
B) eggs
C) milk
D) chicken
E) beef
Q3) Which of the following substances is NOT correctly matched with its caloric value?
A) carbohydrate - 4 kcal/gram
B) fat - 4 kcal/gram
C) water - 0 kcal/gram
D) protein - 4 kcal/gram
E) fiber - 0 kcal/gram
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Chapter 26: Defenses Against Disease
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Q1) The immune system plays a significant role in fighting infections and cancer.
A)True
B)False
Q2) This figure represents
A) the events of the inflammatory response.
B) the first stages of immunity.
C) the complement system.
D) the antibody response.
E) the effects of an immunization on the blood.
Q3) AIDS is caused by
A) the human immunodeficiency virus that destroys helper T cells.
B) the human immunodeficiency virus that stimulates apoptosis of immune system cells.
C) allergens that stimulate helper T cells to produce cytokines.
D) bacteria that destroy lymphocytes in the bone marrow.
E) the human immunodeficiency virus that destroys macrophages.
Q4) HIV is contracted mainly by rectal intercourse.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 27: The Control Systems
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Q1) The __________ conveys sensory information to the CNS and motor commands away from the CNS to skeletal muscles.
A) parasympathetic division
B) autonomic nervous system
C) somatic system
D) sympathetic division
E) brain stem
Q2) If an individual's pancreatic islets have been destroyed,the result will be
A) Cushing syndrome.
B) Graves disease.
C) type 2 diabetes mellitus.
D) Addison disease.
E) type 1 diabetes mellitus.
Q3) A patient's pons has been affected by a rapidly growing tumor.Of the choices listed below,which is the most likely result?
A) loss of the normal breathing rhythm
B) hearing loss
C) inability to understand speech
D) inability to regulate blood pressure
E) inability to experience emotions
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Chapter 28: Sensory Input and Motor Output
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Q1) Martha is 57 years old and has been overweight for the past several years.Although she hasn't changed her daily activity level,Martha is now experiencing pain in her hips and knees.What is most likely to be the cause of Martha's discomfort?
A) rheumatoid arthritis
B) sprains
C) strains
D) osteoarthritis
E) bursitis
Q2) The fovea of the eye is
A) the area where axons leave the retina.
B) the area where cones are primarily located.
C) the area where ciliary muscles contact the lens.
D) the area where rods are primarily located.
E) the opening in the iris.
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Chapter 29: Reproduction and Embryonic Development
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58 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) The brain and spinal cord develop from the A) endoderm.
B) neural tube.
C) notochord.
D) neural crest.
E) somites.
Q2) Which of the listed embryonic stages is the earliest?
A) gastrula
B) blastocyst
C) neurula
D) morula
E) 8-cell stage
Q3) If a pregnant woman wanted to know the sex of her fetus as soon as possible,she could have ultrasound in the _____ month.
A) first
B) third
C) sixth
D) eighth
E) ninth
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Chapter 30: Ecology and Populations
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following populations has the greatest biotic potential?
A) Population A in which females start to reproduce at 1 year and produce 2 offspring each year.
B) Population B in which females reach sexual maturity in 6 months and produce 1 offspring each reproductive cycle.
C) Population C in which males reach sexual maturity in just 3 months.
D) Population D in which individuals reach sexual maturity in 6 months and produce 5 offspring each year.
E) Population E in which individuals produce 20 offspring starting at 5 years of age.
Q2) Emperor penguins defend an area around their nests.Their territory encompasses a complete circle around the nest with approximately a 0.5m radius.If each nesting penguin has this same size and shape territory,what type of distribution will these animals exhibit?
A) clumped
B) random
C) dense
D) uniform
E) independent
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Chapter 31: Communities and Ecosystems
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Sample Questions
Q1) An organism that obtains its food from the process of photosynthesis is a(n)
A) autotroph.
B) consumer.
C) heterotroph.
D) decomposer.
E) omnivore.
Q2) All of the following are true about ecosystems EXCEPT
A) chemicals are constantly recycled and reused.
B) chemicals are converted from one form to another.
C) energy is constantly recycled.
D) energy is required continuously because some energy is lost.
E) the ultimate source of energy is the sun.
Q3) What process is occurring in Box C?
A) nitrification
B) decomposition
C) denitrification
D) nitrogen-fixing
E) nitrogen incorporation When nitrogen gas is transformed into ammonium, this is known as nitrogen fixing or nitrogen fixation.
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Chapter 32: Human Impact on the Biosphere
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which subfield does not directly support conservation biology?
A) chemistry
B) genetics
C) ecology
D) wildlife management
E) field biology
Q2) Which of the following is not a way in which rural areas may be sustainable?
A) planting of native grasses to rebuild the soil
B) planting of trees next to land used for agriculture to break the wind and protect the soil from erosion
C) use of cover crops to stabilize the soil between growing seasons
D) restoration and maintenance of wetlands to lessen runoff and alleviate flooding
E) increasing use of extensive irrigation techniques to nurture demanding crops
Q3) Desertification and deforestation are similar in that both involve
A) overpopulation of an area by humans.
B) loss of plant and animal life in an area.
C) lack of rainfall in an area.
D) overgrowth of undesirable plants in an area.
E) loss of wetland habitats.
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