Human Biology
Exam Answer Key
Course Introduction
Human Biology is the study of the structure, function, and development of the human body, integrating knowledge from anatomy, physiology, genetics, and cell biology. The course explores the complex systems that sustain life including the nervous, circulatory, respiratory, digestive, and reproductive systems while also examining cellular processes, genetic inheritance, human evolution, and the bodys interaction with its environment. Students will gain a comprehensive understanding of how the human body maintains homeostasis, responds to diseases, and adapts to changing conditions, providing a solid foundation for further studies in health sciences and medicine.
Recommended Textbook
Human Biology 14th Edition by Sylvia S. Mader Dr
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Chapter 1: Exploring Life and Science
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Sample Questions
Q1) The development of resistance of MRSA bacteria to antibiotics is an example of A)homeostasis.
B)metabolism.
C)evolution.
D)reproduction.
E)organization.
Answer: C
Q2) The cause of stomach ulcers appears to be A)excess stomach acid.
B)the bacterium Helicobacter pylori.
C)drinking too much coffee.
D)extreme stress.
E)diets rich in meat products.
Answer: B
Q3) Jessica is interested in a new vitamin pill her friend recommended.Her friend told her that it really helped her.Should Jessica accept this type of evidence?
Answer: NO
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3
Chapter 2: Chemistry of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) Water makes up 60-70% of total body weight.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) On a warm day in April,Tina jumped into the swimming pool.To her surprise the water was really cold.Which property of water did she discover?
A)Water molecules are cohesive.
B)The temperature of liquid water rises and falls slowly.
C)Water possesses hydrogen bonds.
D)Water is a polar molecule.
E)Frozen water is less dense than liquid water.
Answer: B
Q3) List the properties of water.
Answer: 1.Water has a high heat capacity.
2.Water has a high heat of evaporation.
3.Water is a solvent.
4.Water molecules are cohesive and adhesive.
5.Frozen water is less dense than liquid water.
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4
Chapter 3: Cell Structure and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which organelle can be likened to a post office?
A)nucleus
B)nucleolus
C)mitochondria
D)endoplasmic reticulum
E)Golgi apparatus
Answer: E
Q2) Which structure in the human body will use flagella to move?
A)sperm
B)eggs
C)lining of the respiratory tract
D)lining of the uterine tubes
E)lining of the urinary system
Answer: A
Q3) Cilia are composed of microtubules while flagella are composed of actin filaments.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Chapter 4: Organization and Regulation of Body Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which type of tissue covers body surfaces and lines body cavities?
A)epithelial tissue
B)connective tissue
C)muscular tissue
D)nervous tissue
E)vascular tissue
Q2) Which of the following body systems is located in only one cavity of the body?
A)urinary system
B)skeletal system
C)cardiovascular system
D)muscular system
E)immune system
Q3) One of the dangers of smoking is that it disrupts the defensive system that utilizes ciliary action of what type of specialized epithelia?
A)pseudostratified epithelium
B)glandular epithelium
C)cuboidal epithelium
D)stratified epithelium
E)columnar epithelium
Q4) List and describe the three types of cartilage.
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Chapter 5: Cardiovascular System: Heart and Blood
Vessels
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Sample Questions
Q1) Mrs.Hinson was informed that her blood pressure was 150/95.These numbers indicate that she has __________.
A)normal blood pressure
B)prehypertension
C)hypotension
D)stage 1 hypertension
E)stage 2 hypertension
Q2) At the arterial end of a capillary,blood pressure is more important than osmotic pressure to cause water to exit the capillary.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What is the name of the thick,membranous sac that surrounds and protects the heart?
A)mesothelium
B)endothelium
C)pericardium
D)myocardium
E)epicardium
Q4) Describe the 4 functions of the cardiovascular system.
Q5) Compare the structure and function of the arteries to that of the veins.
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Chapter 6: Cardiovascular System: Blood
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Sample Questions
Q1) Hemophilia is a genetic clotting disorder.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Coagulation contributes to homeostasis by
A)keeping the blood within the vessels.
B)regulating body temperature.
C)destroying pathogens.
D)removing debris from the blooD.
E)maintaining the pH of the blood.
Q3) Mature human red blood cells
A)have a nucleus.
B)are biconcave discs without a nucleus.
C)are rare in the bloodstream.
D)carry plasma.
E)fight pathogens.
Q4) Excess tissue fluid becomes lymphatic fluid that eventually enters the blood stream.
A)True
B)False
Q5) List and describe the functions of blood in the human body.
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Chapter 7: The Lymphatic and Immune Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) T cells can recognize antigens because they
A)have enzymes which react with antigens.
B)possess specific receptors.
C)produce antibodies.
D)possess fimbrae.
E)become plasma cells.
Q2) If the lymph system did not do its job,what would be one of the consequences?
A)excess glucose in the blood stream
B)slow reaction time to external stimuli
C)inability to clot
D)edema in the tissues
E)jaundice
Q3) Monocytes become what type of cell in the tissue?
A)neutrophils
B)eosinophils
C)basophils
D)macrophages
E)red blood cells
Q4) Describe the function of the thymus as it relates to the lymphatic system.
Q5) List and describe the body's innate defenses.
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Chapter 8: Biology of Infectious Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) HIV strains may differ by 10% within one person and by 35% in people across the globe.This is due to
A)both cellular and antibody-mediated responses.
B)the fact that HIV inserts its genome into the host genome.
C)HIV's high rate of mutation.
D)the fact that HIV targets T-cells.
E)the fact that most people do not die from HIV infection.
Q2) How is Mycobacterium tuberculosis spread?
A)via airborne droplets
B)contaminated food or water
C)sexual intercourse
D)IV drug abuse
E)blood transfusions
Q3) How is malaria spread?
A)via airborne droplets
B)by blood transfusions
C)sexual intercourse
D)breast feeding
E)mosquitoes
Q4) Describe the causative agents and transmission of tuberculosis.
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Chapter 9: Digestive System and Nutrition
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not produced by the pancreas?
A)bile
B)sodium bicarbonate
C)amylase
D)trypsin
E)lipase
Q2) Smooth muscles in the stomach are capable of mechanical digestion.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Pepsin is an enzyme that digests proteins at acidic pH.Therefore,it must act in the A)stomach.
B)small intestine.
C)mouth.
D)large intestine.
E)esophagus.
Q4) Explain the events of swallowing.
Q5) Swallowing consists of both a voluntary phase and a reflex action.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 10: Respiratory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which respiratory structure is used to produce sound?
A)larynx
B)nose
C)pharynx
D)glottis
E)esophagus
Q2) Sound is produced when air rushes into the lungs.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The role of the respiratory system is to ensure that oxygen leaves the body and carbon dioxide enters the body.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Ventilation includes
A)inspiration only.
B)expiration only.
C)both inspiration and expiration.
D)the volume of air that can be exhaleD.
E)the transportation of oxygen to the cells in the body.
Q5) Explain the nervous system's control of the respiratory system.
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Chapter 11: Urinary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Substances that are nonfilterable in the glomerulus exit the nephron through the afferent arteriole.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The kidneys convert vitamin D and thereby assist calcium homeostasis.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following organs of the urinary system is the storage area for urine?
A)bladder
B)kidney
C)ureter
D)renal pelvis
E)urethra
Q4) Parts of the nephron are lined with epithelial cells containing large numbers of mitochondria to assist in diffusion.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Explain the three steps involved in urine formation.
Q6) List the functions of the urinary system.
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Chapter 12: Skeletal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) What are the intervertebral disks made of?
A)bone
B)skeletal muscle
C)hyaline cartilage
D)fibrocartilage
E)elastic cartilage
Q2) Bone recycling allows the body to regulate what?
A)the amount of sodium in the blood
B)the amount of calcium in the blood
C)the amount of sodium in the bone
D)the amount of vitamin C in the blood
E)the amount of vitamin D in the bone
Q3) When you hit your "funny bone",what are you hitting?
A)olecranon process
B)deltoid tuberosity
C)acromion process
D)head of ulna
E)glenoid cavity
Q4) List and describe the three types of joints found in the human body.
Q5) Describe the steps involved in bone growth by endochondral ossification.
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Chapter 13: Muscular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) What happens to the actin and myosin filaments when a muscle contracts?
A)both of them shorten
B)both of them lengthen
C)both stay the same length
D)actin shortens while myosin lengthens
E)myosin shortens while actin lengthens
Q2) What muscle works in a pair with the biceps brachii?
A)the triceps brachii
B)the trapezius
C)the masseter
D)the pectoralis major
E)the sartorius
Q3) Skeletal muscle contractions play a role in returning the venous blood to the heart.
A)True
B)False
Q4) One motor unit obeys a principle called the all-or-none law.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Explain the differences between fast-twitch and slow-twitch muscle fibers.
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Chapter 14: Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which drug is in the same category as nicotine?
A)cocaine
B)alcohol
C)heroin
D)marijuana
E)none of these
Q2) The postganglionic fiber in the parasympathetic division is long because the ganglia lie near or within the organ.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The cerebrum is associated with the A)two lateral ventricles.
B)third ventricle.
C)fourth ventricle.
D)posterior ventricle.
E)anterior ventriclE.
Q4) The left hemisphere of the brain is more involved in verbal functions than the right hemisphere.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 15: Senses
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Sample Questions
Q1) In what way are the senses of taste and smell different?
A)Taste buds are modified neurons and olfactory cells contain a pore with supporting cells and elongated cells.
B)Taste buds contain cilia while olfactory cells contain microvilli.
C)Taste depends on a "weighted average" of all the taste messages while smell depends on the signature of olfactory cells stimulated.
D)There are hundreds of different tastes while only 5 different smell families.
E)The sensation of taste occurs in the spinal cord while the sensation of smell occurs in the cerebral cortex.
Q2) The receptors involved in our sense of equilibrium are
A)mechanoreceptors.
B)chemoreceptors.
C)nociceptors.
D)thermoreceptors.
E)pain receptors.
Q3) Memories are often elicited by smell.
A)True
B)False
Q4) List the four categories of sensory receptors and describe what they respond to.
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Chapter 16: Endocrine System
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Sample Questions
Q1) In comparing the functions of the nervous and endocrine system in controlling the body,the nervous system is better able to respond to changes in the external environment.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Jamie suffers from heartburn.Sometimes this can be treated with
A)mineralocorticoids.
B)prostaglandins.
C)aldosterone.
D)thymosin.
E)luteinizing hormonE.
Q3) Which disorder is associated with a low level of parathyroid hormone?
A)tetany
B)osteoporosis
C)myxedema
D)exophthalmic goiter
E)simple goiter
Q4) Right after eating a candy bar,insulin secretion would occur.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 17: Reproductive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following parts of the female reproductive system is not present in pairs?
A)uterus
B)ovary
C)oviduct
D)fimbriae
E)uterine tube
Q2) Identify the structures of the male reproductive system and indicate their functions.
Q3) Following ovulation,the follicle
A)becomes the corpus luteum and produces sex hormones.
B)disappears immediately.
C)becomes a vesicular or Graafian follicle.
D)becomes a secondary follicle containing a secondary oocyte.
E)becomes a polar body.
Q4) The oviducts are not attached to the ovaries.
A)True
B)False
Q5) In males,is there an organ analogous to the uterus in females?
Q6) List and describe the 5 functions of the reproductive system.
Page 19
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Chapter 18: Development and Aging
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Sample Questions
Q1) The names of the extraembryonic membranes are derived from their function in animals that produce shelled eggs.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Few neural cells in the cerebral cortex are lost during the normal aging process.
A)True
B)False
Q3) When does the mother first begin to feel the fetus move?
A)1-2 months
B)3-4 months
C)5-7 months
D)7-9 months
E)weeks 1-4
Q4) Most birth defects are due to the inheritance of an abnormal number of chromosomes.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Describe the steps in fertilization of an egg cell.
Q6) Summarize the events that occur during each stage of birth.
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Chapter 19: Patterns of Chromosome Inheritance
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Sample Questions
Q1) If an organism does not undergo meiosis,then it cannot undergo sexual reproduction.
A)True
B)False
Q2) From a karyotype,you could tell all of the following about the cell except whether
A)a fusion of two chromosomes had occurred.
B)a translocation had occurred between two chromosomes.
C)one chromosome was missing.
D)there were three copies of a chromosome present.
E)a particular gene contained a mutation.
Q3) If an organism has 4 pairs of chromosomes,after meiosis it will contain how many chromosomes?
A)2
B)4
C)8
D)16
E)32
Q4) List the stages of meiosis I and explain the events that occur during each stage.
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Chapter 20: Cancer
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Sample Questions
Q1) Thus far no evidence has been found that nonionizing radiation,such as the energy given off by cell phones,causes cancer.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Antiangiogenic drugs cause cytotoxic T cells to attack tumor cells.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The American Cancer Society publicizes seven warning signals,which spell out the word CAUTION.The "C" in CAUTION stands for change in
A)skin coloring.
B)bowel or bladder habits.
C)sensitivity to heat or cold.
D)sleep habits.
E)eating habits.
Q4) List standard therapies and newer therapies for the treatment of cancer.
Q5) Cancer is a single disease that affects one in three Americans.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Explain what the acronym CAUTION means in regard to the warning signs of cancer.
Page 22
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Chapter 21: Patterns of Genetic Inheritance
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following individuals has a recessive phenotype?
A)AA
B)Aa
C)AaBb
D)aabb
E)aAbB
Q2) If you want to know the probability that tossing two coins will result in a particular outcome (two heads,for example),you use the A)product rule.
B)sum rule.
C)punnett rule.
D)Bergman's rule.
E)genetics rulE.
Q3) Which of the following is not a characteristic of an X-linked recessive disorder pedigree?
A)An affected son can have normal parents.
B)If a female has the trait,her father must also have it.
C)The characteristic often skips a generation.
D)More females than males are affecteD.
E)If a woman has the characteristic,all of her sons will have it.
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Chapter 22: DNA Biology and Technology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not a requirement for the genetic material of the cell?
A)It must be able to replicate.
B)It must be able to store information.
C)It must be able to undergo mutations.
D)It must be able to change conformations.
E)It must be able to provide genetic variability.
Q2) Mitochondria also contain DNA.
A)True
B)False
Q3) An individual has a genetic disorder in which their cell is not forming the correct protein structure for the cell membrane to allow entry of a particular ion.Doctors have determined that in order to help cure this person they need to alter the shape of the protein.Which type of regulation of gene expression would have the greatest chance of success?
A)posttranslational control
B)posttranscriptional control
C)transcriptional control
D)translational control
E)pretranscriptional control
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Chapter 23: Human Evolution
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Sample Questions
Q1) According to the evolutionary theory humans are descended from apes.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is inconsistent with what is known about Homo erectus?
A)H.erectus walked erect and probably had a striding gait like ours.
B)H.erectus had a larger brain and a flatter face than Homo habilis.
C)H.erectus was much shorter than Homo species had been up to this time.
D)H.erectus babies were born in an immature state that required an extended period of care.
E)H.erectus fossils have been found in Africa,Asia,and EuropE.
Q3) The flipper of a whale and the wing of a bird are homologous structures.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following is not an example of a vestigial structure?
A)pelvic girdle and legs in whales
B)wings for flight in most birds
C)tailbone in humans
D)pelvic girdle in snakes
E)none are examples of vestigial structures
Q5) Describe the four stages of chemical and biological evolution.
Page 25
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Chapter 24: Global Ecology and Human Interferences
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Q1) What does the word "trophic" mean?
A)energy
B)niche
C)web
D)feeding
E)biomass
Q2) If the first-level carnivores consumes 500 kg of energy from herbivore tissue,how much is available to the second-level carnivores?
A)500 kg
B)100 kg
C)50 kg
D)10 kg
E)5 kg
Q3) Which of the following biogeochemical cycles is a sedimentary cycle?
A)carbon
B)nitrogen
C)phosphorus
D)water
E)ice
Q4) List and explain the six steps in the hydrological cycle.
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Chapter 25: Human Population,global Resources,and Conservation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a renewable resource?
A)land
B)solar energy
C)fossil fuels
D)minerals
E)oil
Q2) Define an ecological footprint.
A)the total amount of resources used by an individual to meet their needs
B)the amount of food a person needs to eat
C)the amount of water a person needs to meet their needs
D)the amount of land a person needs to provide a place to live
E)the amount of energy a person needs to meet their needs
Q3) How much of Earth's land mass is already desert?
A)1%
B)10%
C)40%
D)50%
E)65%
Q4) Describe the factors that are contributing to the biodiversity extinction crisis we are currently experiencing.
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