Human Biology
Exam Answer Key
Course Introduction
Human Biology is an interdisciplinary course that explores the structure, function, and processes of the human body from molecular to systemic levels. The course examines key aspects such as genetics, physiology, anatomy, metabolism, and immunity, providing a foundational understanding of how the body grows, sustains itself, and defends against disease. Emphasis is placed on real-world applications including health, nutrition, disease prevention, and the impacts of lifestyle on human biology. Through laboratory work, discussions, and case studies, students gain practical insights and develop critical thinking skills relevant to medicine, healthcare, and biological research.
Recommended Textbook
Campbell Essential Biology with Physiology 4th Edition by Eric J. Simon
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29 Chapters
1325 Verified Questions
1325 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Introduction- Biology Today
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Sample Questions
Q1) Antibiotic resistance evolves in bacteria because ______.
A) the presence of antibiotics favors bacteria that already have genes for resistance
B) farmers do not use enough antibiotics in animal feed
C) the antibiotics create resistance genes in bacteria
D) none of the above
Answer: A
Q2) Humans are composed of ______ cells.
A) bacterial
B) eukaryotic
C) plant
D) prokaryotic
Answer: B
Q3) The DNA of a eukaryotic cell is found within the ______.
A) archaea
B) nucleus
C) prokaryotic cell
D) insulin
Answer: B
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Chapter 2: Essential Chemistry for Biology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why (if you are careful)are you able to float a needle on the surface of water?
A) Water has adhesive properties.
B) The surface tension that is a result of water's cohesive properties makes this possible.
C) The covalent bonds that hold a water molecule together are responsible for this ability.
D) A single needle is less dense than water.
Answer: B
Q2) Human body cells are approximately ______ water.
A) 95-99%
B) 25-35%
C) 50-55%
D) 70-95%
Answer: D
Q3) Relative to a pH of 6,a pH of 4 has a ______.
A) 200 times higher H<sup>+</sup> concentration
B) 100 times higher H<sup>+</sup> concentration
C) 20 times higher H<sup>+</sup> concentration
D) 100 times lower H<sup>+</sup> concentration
Answer: B
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Page 4
Chapter 3: The Molecules of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) By definition,what type of fatty acid has double bonds?
A) steroid
B) triglyceride
C) unsaturated
D) saturated
Answer: C
Q2) ______ is a steroid.
A) Butter
B) Sucrose
C) Amino acid
D) Estrogen
Answer: D
Q3) People with lactose intolerance do not have enough ______.
A) lactose
B) lactase
C) glucose
D) fructose
Answer: B
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Chapter 4: A Tour of the Cell
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Sample Questions
Q1) Plant cells,unlike animal cells,are characterized by the presence of a ______.
A) cell wall and contractile vacuole
B) cell wall and central vacuole
C) nucleus and cell wall
D) nucleus and contractile vacuole
Q2) In plant cells,______ may contain organic nutrients,pigments,and poisons.
A) mitochondria
B) chloroplasts
C) lysosomes
D) central vacuoles
Q3) A hormone that will be secreted from the cell is manufactured by ribosomes _____.
A) attached to the endoplasmic reticulum
B) attached to the Golgi apparatus
C) attached to the plasma membrane
D) inside the nucleus
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6
Chapter 5: The Working Cell
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Sample Questions
Q1) Diffusion ______.
A) is the result of the potential energy of atoms
B) requires an input of cellular energy
C) occurs when particles spread from areas where they are less concentrated to areas where they are more concentrated
D) proceeds until equilibrium is reached
Q2) Osmosis can be defined as ______.
A) the diffusion of water
B) the diffusion of nonpolar molecules
C) active transport
D) the diffusion of a solute
Q3) Which of the following is most like a signal transduction pathway in a cell?
A) a person answering the door to their home after someone rings the doorbell
B) a person parking a car in a parking space
C) catching fish using a fishing pole
D) a physician removing a thorn from a person's foot
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Chapter 6: Cellular Respiration: Obtaining Energy from Food
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following metabolic pathways is common to both aerobic and anaerobic processes of sugar breakdown?
A) the citric acid cycle
B) the electron transport chain
C) conversion of pyruvic acid to lactic acid
D) glycolysis
Q2) Electron transport takes place in the ______.
A) mitochondria
B) chloroplasts
C) cytoplasm
D) ribosomes
Q3) Plants use photosynthesis to
A) store chemical energy, and they use cellular respiration to harvest energy.
B) store as well as harvest chemical energy.
C) harvest energy, and they use cellular respiration to store chemical energy.
D) obtain carbon dioxide.
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8
Chapter 7: Photosynthesis: Using Light to Make Food
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Sample Questions
Q1) The last stage of one complete turn of the Calvin cycle involves ______.
A) G3P production
B) oxidation of CO<sub>2</sub>
C) regeneration of RuBP
D) sugar production
Q2) Which of the following is an autotroph?
A) human
B) mushroom
C) pine tree
D) fish
Q3) Which of the following is produced during the light reactions of photosynthesis?
A) O<sub>2</sub>
B) CO<sub>2</sub>
C) C<sub>6</sub>H<sub>12</sub>O<sub>6</sub>
D) ADP
Q4) The Calvin cycle makes direct use of ______ to make ______.
A) light energy and CO<sub>2</sub>... sugar
B) CO<sub>2</sub>, ATP, and NADPH... sugar and O<sub>2</sub>
C) light energy, CO<sub>2</sub>, and water... sugar and O<sub>2</sub>
D) CO<sub>2</sub>, ATP, and NADPH... sugar
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Chapter 8: Cellular Reproduction: Cells from Cells
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following occurs during interphase?
A) Chromatin becomes tightly coiled.
B) Chromosome duplication.
C) Sister chromatids separate.
D) The mitotic spindle forms.
Q2) What is the difference between a benign and a malignant tumor?
A) Benign tumors are composed of cancer cells; malignant tumors are not.
B) Benign tumors are not the result of a failure of a cell cycle control system; malignant tumors are.
C) Benign tumors do not metastasize; malignant tumors do.
D) Benign tumors do not form lumps; malignant tumors do form lumps.
Q3) Chromosomes that do not determine the sex of an individual are called ______.
A) homologous chromosomes
B) nonhomologous chromosomes
C) sex chromosomes
D) autosomes
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10
Chapter 9: Patterns of Inheritance
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the best explanation for a BbCc × bbcc cross producing offspring in a 5:5:1:1 phenotypic ratio?
A) linked genes
B) polygenic inheritance
C) incomplete dominance
D) codominance
Q2) Which of the following techniques is used to collect fetal cells during pregnancy for genetic testing?
A) testcross
B) dihybrid cross
C) amniocentesis
D) pedigree analysis
Q3) What would genetic counselors say is the probability that the second child will have the disease?
A) 1/2
B) 1/4
C) 1/8
D) 1/16
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Chapter 10: The Structure and Function of DNA
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Sample Questions
Q1) Peptide bonds form between ______.
A) amino acids
B) an mRNA codon and a tRNA anticodon
C) a tRNA and the amino acid it is carrying
D) an mRNA transcript and the small ribosomal subunit
Q2) Once viruses are detected,the number of viruses increases rapidly.This is because ______.
A) lysogeny produces large numbers of bacteriophages
B) DNA viruses reproduce more rapidly than RNA viruses
C) the host cell speeds the release process
D) the viruses lyse the hosts to release mature viruses all at once
Q3) DNA replication
A) is a slow process that results in virtually no errors.
B) requires DNA polymerase and RNA polymerase.
C) is a very fast process that results in numerous errors.
D) requires the cooperation of over a dozen enzymes and other proteins.
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12
Chapter 11: How Genes Are Controlled
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Sample Questions
Q1) Male tortoiseshell cats ______.
A) do not have an X chromosome
B) have orange and black patches of fur that reflect the pattern of X chromosome inactivation
C) are usually XYY individuals
D) are likely to be exceedingly rare and very likely to be sterile since normal male cats are XY
Q2) In eukaryotic cells,repressor proteins inhibit transcription by binding to ______.
A) silencers
B) enhancers
C) regulators
D) operators
Q3) Many proto-oncogenes regulate ______.
A) cell growth
B) cell suicide
C) cell division
D) cell repair
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13
Chapter 12: DNA Technology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Gel electrophoresis separates DNA fragments on the basis of differences in their
A) A:C ratio
B) length
C) G:T ratio
D) pH
Q2) Which of the following best defines the term transgenic organism?
A) an organism that is the first of its kind to bear a particular allele
B) an organism in which a genetic defect has been corrected using recombinant DNA therapy
C) an organism containing a gene from another species
D) an organism containing genes from three or more species
Q3) Of the following,which is the last step in the production of a recombinant DNA plasmid?
A) cloning
B) using DNA ligase to join DNA fragments
C) transduction
D) allowing the reproduction of the bacterium bearing the recombinant plasmid
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14
Chapter 13: How Populations Evolve
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Sample Questions
Q1) The smallest biological unit that can evolve is the ______.
A) species
B) individual
C) population
D) phylum
Q2) The original source of genetic variation that serves as the raw material for natural selection is ______.
A) mutation
B) gene flow
C) sexual recombination
D) random fertilization
Q3) Genetic drift is the result of ______.
A) natural selection
B) chance
C) a large gene pool
D) environmental variation
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Page 15
Chapter 14: How Biological Diversity Evolves
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Sample Questions
Q1) Sympatric speciation specifically excludes ______.
A) behavioral isolation
B) post-zygotic barriers
C) geographic isolation
D) temporal isolation
Q2) Which of the following taxonomic levels is most inclusive?
A) order
B) genus
C) family
D) class
Q3) Applying the biological species concept,the production of ligers reveals that ______.
A) a new species called ligers is forming
B) tigers and lions are actually the same species
C) tigers and lions are separate species
D) lions are probably a subspecies of tigers
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Chapter 15: The Evolution of Microbial Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) Animal life underwent its greatest diversification during the ______,which began about ______ million years ago.
A) Permian... 290
B) Cambrian... 540
C) Carboniferous... 363
D) Mesozoic... 245
Q2) Which prokaryotic group is most closely related to eukaryotes?
A) Bacteria
B) Protista
C) Archaea
D) Bacteria and Archaea are equally closely related
Q3) Which of the following is a colonial form of green algae?
A) Volvox
B) Giardia
C) Paramecium
D) Plasmodium
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Chapter 16: Plants, Fungi, and the Move onto Land
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Sample Questions
Q1) Of the following,which is the earliest step in the formation of fossil fuels?
A) subjecting organic matter to extreme pressure
B) fungi and bacteria converting the remains of organisms to inorganic nutrients
C) incomplete decomposition of organic matter
D) subjecting organic matter to extreme heat
Q2) Why are bryophytes considered incompletely liberated from their ancestral aquatic habitat?
A) Their embryos do not develop within gametangia.
B) Their sperm are flagellated.
C) The gametophyte generation is dominant.
D) They lack a cuticle.
Q3) The function of a mushroom is to _____.
A) produce seeds
B) store nutrients
C) produce spores
D) absorb food
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Chapter 17: The Evolution of Animals
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is a feature of birds that makes them valuable as biological indicators?
A) Many migrate long distances.
B) Many are brightly colored.
C) There are over 10,000 different species of birds.
D) Birdwatching is a popular hobby.
Q2) What characteristic is unique to echinoderms?
A) a lack of segmentation
B) a water vascular system
C) suction-cup-like feet
D) larvae with bilateral symmetry
Q3) Almost every element of bird anatomy is modified for what?
A) laying eggs
B) eating seeds
C) enhancement of flight
D) singing unique songs
Q4) The first hominid to spread beyond Africa was ______.
A) "Lucy"
B) Australopithecus afarensis
C) Homo erectus
D) Homo neanderthalensis
Page 19
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Chapter 18: An Introduction to Ecology and the Biosphere
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Sample Questions
Q1) The Sahara Desert and the Negev Desert belong to the same ______.
A) community
B) abiota
C) biome
D) biota
Q2) The effect of deforestation has been to ______.
A) decrease the amount of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere
B) increase the amount of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere
C) increase the rate at which carbon dioxide is incorporated into organic material
D) increase the rate of carbon dioxide production through cellular respiration
Q3) The greenhouse effect causes an increase in global temperatures.This increase is primarily due to ______.
A) CO<sub>2</sub> and other greenhouse gases allowing more solar radiation to penetrate Earth's surface
B) CO<sub>2</sub> and other greenhouse gases slowing the escape of UV radiation from Earth
C) the loss of ozone that trapped cooling UV radiation in the atmosphere
D) CO<sub>2</sub> and other greenhouse gases slowing the escape of heat from Earth
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Chapter 19: Population Ecology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Integrated pest management ______.
A) favors overwhelming a pest with chemical pesticides
B) advocates total eradication of pest species
C) aims to keep pest populations on an exponential growth curve
D) advocates mixed-species plantings and rotating crops
Q2) Which of these best describes Type II survivorship?
A) high survivorship for the very young
B) most individuals survive to older age intervals
C) survivorship is constant over the lifespan
D) survivorship is high for the few individuals that survive to a certain age
Q3) The use of the Indian mongoose to control rat populations
A) shows how effective biological control can be.
B) shows why integrated pest management usually fails.
C) became a disaster when the mongoose turned out to be as invasive as its target.
D) is an example of how coevolution makes biological control difficult.
Q4) Which population is growing at the fastest rate?
A) Population A
B) Population B
C) Population C
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Chapter 20: Communities and Ecosystems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Small fishes that eat zooplankton are
A) primary consumers
B) producers
C) tertiary consumers
D) secondary consumers
Q2) Based on the relationship between Plasmodium spp.and humans,these organisms would be considered ______.
A) parasites
B) hosts
C) producers
D) carnivores
Q3) A regional assemblage of interacting ecosystems is a ______.
A) biome
B) landscape
C) movement corridor
D) hot spot
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Page 22
Chapter 21: Unifying Concepts of Animal Structure and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which process describes the forcing of water and other small molecules from the blood into a kidney tubule?
A) absorption
B) filtration
C) secretion
D) excretion
Q2) Which of the following animals is an ectotherm?
A) human
B) parrot
C) spiny lobster
D) field mouse
Q3) Based on the information in the paragraphs,spiders are ______.
A) ectotherms
B) endotherms
C) sometimes ectotherms and sometimes endotherms
D) neither ectotherms nor endotherms
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Chapter 22: Nutrition and Digestion
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which portion of the digestive tract is specialized for absorption of the nutrients?
A) stomach
B) small intestine
C) large intestine
D) pharynx
Q2) Most nutrient absorption occurs in which part of the digestive system?
A) stomach
B) duodenum
C) the several meters of the small intestine that come after the duodenum
D) large intestine
Q3) Movement of chyme from the stomach to the small intestine is regulated by ______.
A) peristalsis
B) reverse peristalsis
C) the epiglottis
D) a sphincter
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Chapter 23: Circulation and Respiration
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Sample Questions
Q1) White blood cells play a particularly important role in ______.
A) fighting infections
B) supporting the activity of red blood cells
C) carrying carbon dioxide
D) blood clotting
Q2) In humans,oxygen is delivered to the cells of the body by ______.
A) a closed circulatory system
B) an open circulatory system
C) diffusion
D) diffusion and facilitated diffusion
Q3) Earthworms use ______ as their respiratory surface.
A) lungs
B) gills
C) their skin
D) tracheae
Q4) Animals need O<sub>2 </sub>because it ______.
A) plays a role in obtaining energy from food
B) helps animals synthesize proteins
C) is necessary to make CO<sub>2</sub>
D) is needed to deliver hemoglobin to the cells of an animal's body
Page 25
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Chapter 24: The Body's Defenses
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Q1) What has caused the evolution of drug-resistant strains of HIV?
A) genetic engineering of the virus in research laboratories
B) the merger of different AIDS viruses into one new virus
C) the joining of antibodies to HIV
D) anti-AIDS drugs
Q2) Which of the following cell types are specifically responsible for cell-mediated immunity?
A) T cells
B) B cells
C) natural killer cells
D) phagocytic cells
Q3) What kinds of cells engulf whatever foreign cells and molecules they encounter and recognize?
A) natural killer cells
B) platelets
C) phagocytic cells
D) interferons
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Chapter 25: Hormones
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Q1) Which of the following choices does not pair an endocrine gland or hormone with an aspect of metabolism that it regulates?
A) parathyroid-blood calcium levels
B) pancreas-blood glucose levels
C) prolactin-blood potassium levels
D) ovary-female sexual characteristics
Q2) Which of the following best describes the relationship of insulin to glucagon?
A) They work together to prepare the body to deal with stress.
B) Insulin stimulates the pancreas to secrete glucagon.
C) High levels of insulin inhibit pancreatic secretion of glucagon.
D) They are antagonistic hormones.
Q3) Which of the following hormones is made by the hypothalamus and released by the posterior pituitary?
A) estrogen
B) growth hormone
C) ADH
D) insulin
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Chapter 26: Reproduction and Development
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Q1) Menstruation ______.
A) involves the breakdown of the endometrium
B) is stimulated by HCG
C) occurs after ovulation but prior to degeneration of the follicle
D) is triggered by an LH surge
Q2) Hermaphrodites ______.
A) possess both male and female reproductive systems
B) have the gonads of one sex but the external appearance of the other
C) usually fertilize themselves
D) have abnormal reproductive systems
Q3) The yolk sac of humans ______.
A) stores nutrients to support the developing embryo
B) produces blood cells and gamete-forming cells
C) secretes HCG
D) absorbs nutrients from, and releases waste to, the mother's blood
Q4) Which one of the following statements is true?
A) Natural family planning is one of the most reliable forms of birth control.
B) Morning-after pills are about 25% effective at preventing pregnancy.
C) Tubal ligation prevents ovulation.
D) A vasectomy involves removing a section of each vas deferens.
Page 28
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Chapter 27: Nervous, Sensory, and Locomotor Systems
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Q1) If aqueous humor is not drained,the likely result will be the development of ______.
A) glaucoma
B) myopia
C) astigmatism
D) hyperopia
Q2) The cells that carry electric signals from one part of the body to another in the nervous system are _____.
A) dendrites
B) neurons
C) effectors
D) synapses
Q3) Which of the following is an example of sensory adaptation of receptors?
A) going into deep sleep
B) distinguishing between different colors
C) ignoring the shoes on your feet
D) detecting sound and light simultaneously
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Chapter 28: The Life of a Flowering Plant
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Q1) Which of the following best describes the condition in which the terminal bud of many plants produces hormones that inhibit growth of axillary buds?
A) foliage determination
B) cortical influence
C) apical dominance
D) axial dominance
Q2) Which of the following is a stem modification for storage?
A) tuber
B) petiole
C) rhizome
D) runner
Q3) Which of the following describes the sites of leaf attachment in a stem?
A) joints
B) nodes
C) internodes
D) cotyledons
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Chapter 29: The Working Plant
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Q1) Which of the following best describes the role of plant root nodules in plants such as peas and beans?
A) They house nitrogen-fixing bacteria.
B) They help absorb nutrients from the soil.
C) They are plant adaptations to kill bacteria that destroy root hairs.
D) They store nutrients.
Q2) Which of the following best describes transpiration?
A) the loss of oxygen from a plant
B) evaporation from a plant's roots
C) the bulk flow movement of water in a plant
D) the loss of water from plant leaves through evaporation
Q3) Which of the following describes how phloem sap moves within a plant?
A) bulk-flow mechanism
B) sugar-flow mechanism
C) pressure-flow mechanism
D) sink-to-source mechanism
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