Human Biology
Chapter Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Human Biology is an interdisciplinary course that explores the structure and function of the human body, emphasizing the biological principles underlying health and disease. Students will examine major organ systems, cellular processes, genetics, human development, and interactions between humans and their environment. Through lectures, laboratory work, and case studies, the course provides a foundational understanding of the mechanisms that sustain life, the role of biology in medical science, and contemporary issues in human health and biotechnology.
Recommended Textbook
Structure and Function of the Body 15th Edition by Kevin T. Patton PhD
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Chapter 1: A: Organization of the Body
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Sample Questions
Q1) In anatomy,the thigh is considered part of the leg.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) Bacteria generally have a well-defined nucleus.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) The gallbladder resides in the left lower quadrant.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q4) The umbilicus is the crossing point for the horizontal and vertical lines dividing the abdomen into quadrants.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Chapter 1: B: Organization of the Body
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Sample Questions
Q1) The dorsal cavity contains all of the following except the: A) brain.
B) spinal column.
C) spinal cord.
D) thyroid gland.
Answer: D
Q2) Negative feedback control systems:
A) oppose a change.
B) accelerate a change.
C) have no effect on the deviation from set point.
D) establish a new set point.
Answer: A
Q3) The body's thermostat is located in the: A) heart.
B) cerebellum.
C) pituitary.
D) hypothalamus.
Answer: D
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Chapter 2: A: The Chemical Basis of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) Trace elements in the body make up about 1% of the body weight.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) One function of carbon dioxide is to help maintain proper pH balance in the body.
A)True
B)False Answer: True
Q3) The "aliveness" of a living organism depends on the mixture of elements of which it is made.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q4) Oxygen has 8 electrons,but only 6 of them are in its outermost energy level.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Chapter 2: B: The Chemical Basis of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) A negatively charged subatomic particle that moves around the nucleus is a(n):
A) orbital.
B) proton.
C) neutron.
D) electron.
Q2) The reaction between hydrogen and oxygen needed to form water is an example of a:
A) hydrogen bond.
B) synthesis reaction.
C) decomposition reaction.
D) None of the above is correct.
Q3) When your body is building larger and more complex chemical molecules from smaller subunits,what is occurring?
A) Anabolic reactions that expend energy
B) Anabolic reactions that require energy
C) Catabolic reactions that expend energy
D) Catabolic reactions that require energy
Q4) Name and describe the types of radiation discussed in the chapter.
Q5) Explain what is meant by anabolism and catabolism and name a process that is an example of each.
6
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Chapter 3: A: Anatomy of Cells
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Sample Questions
Q1) The largest human cell is the female ovum or egg cell.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Integral membrane proteins play an important role in pinching off the cell membrane so two new cells can form during cell division.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The centriole is a single cylindrical structure at the boundary of the centrosome.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Gap junctions are found in the small intestine.They allow molecules to flow between cells.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Another term for cytosol is intracellular fluid.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 3: B: Anatomy of Cells
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Q1) Which of the following is not true about ribosomes?
A) Contains protein
B) Composed of a large unit and a small unit
C) Surrounded by a membrane structure
D) Contains RNA
Q2) Describe the structure and function of the nucleus.Include the structure and function of the nucleolus.
Q3) cell connections that form tunnels between cells and are found in heart muscles
A)Microtubules
B)Intermediate filaments
C)Microfilaments
D)Centrosomes
E)Cilia
F)Flagella
G)Microvilli
H)Desmosomes
I)Tight junctions
J)Gap junctions
K)Primary cilium
L)Centrioles
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Chapter 4: Physiology of Cells
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Q1) A solution may be defined as various solutes dissolved in a solvent.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A hypertonic solution has a higher amount of osmotic potential than any other type of solution.
A)True
B)False
Q3) For an enzyme to function,the coenzyme must fit into the enzyme's active site like a key fits into a lock.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The sodium-potassium pump is an example of a passive transport process.
A)True
B)False
Q5) A saline solution that contains a higher concentration of salt than a red blood cell would be:
A) isotonic.
B) hypotonic.
C) hypertonic.
D) hydrostatic.
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Chapter 5: Cell Growth and Reproduction
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Sample Questions
Q1) This structure holds two newly formed chromosomes together.
A)Adenine
B)mRNA
C)Interon
D)RNAi
E)Uracil
F)Chaperone protein
G)Tr
H)tRNA
I)thymine
J)Exons
K)Proteasomes
L)Telomere
M)Centromere
N)haploid
O)Diploid
P)Transcription
Q2) Explain the difference in the cells formed by mitosis and meiosis.Why is this difference important?
Q3) Explain the process of mitosis.Explain what occurs in each step.
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Chapter 6: Tissues
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not a characteristic of skeletal muscles?
A) Having one nucleus per cell
B) Being attached to bone
C) Having striations
D) Having voluntary or "willed" muscles
Q2) Which is not a function of connective tissue?
A) Transport
B) Support
C) Defense
D) Communication
Q3) List and describe the five important functions performed by the various types of epithelial tissues.
Q4) Connective tissue membranes are made up of two kinds of tissue.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Epithelial tissue is moderately vascular,which results in very little blood loss when cuts occur.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Why is blood considered to be the most unusual type of connective tissue?
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Chapter 7: A: Skin and Its Appendages
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Sample Questions
Q1) Darkening of the skin may be caused by a decrease in the secretion of adrenocorticotropic hormone.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Continual abrasion to the skin surface tends to lengthen the turnover time of the skin.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In the healing of a wound,fibroblasts in the dermis quickly reproduce and begin forming a dense mass of new connective tissue fibers.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The presence of hemosiderin and bile pigments in the skin can cause the skin to appear cyanotic.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Albinism is the inability of the body to form melanin.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 7: B: Skin and Its Appendages
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Q1) also called the superficial fascia
A)Keratinocytes
B)Hypodermis
C)Papillary layer
D)Pheomelanin
E)Melanocytes
F)Arrector pili muscles
G)Eumelanin
H)Dendritic cells
I)Albinism
J)Reticular layer
Q2) Which of the following is not true of dermal growth and repair?
A) Just as in the epidermis, the dermis is in a constant state of regeneration.
B) In the healing of an injury, fibroblasts reproduce and begin to form new connective tissue.
C) Surgical incisions made parallel to cleavage lines are less likely to leave a scar.
D) All of the above statements are true.
Q3) Name and explain the methods of heat loss discussed in this chapter.
Q4) Differentiate among first-,second-,and third-degree burns.
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Chapter 8: A: Skeletal Tissues
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Q1) Parathyroid hormone stimulates the activity of osteoclasts in the bone.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Variations in the amount of ossification and resorption of bone tissue are age dependent.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The type of cartilage growth most prevalent in childhood and early adolescence is interstitial or endogenous growth.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Hydroxyapatite consists of highly specialized chemical crystals of calcium and phosphate.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Canaliculi are small openings in the lamella where bone cells are found.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 8: B: Skeletal Tissues
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Sample Questions
Q1) In bone growth,the medullary cavity is enlarged because of the activity of:
A) osteoclasts.
B) osteocytes.
C) osteoblasts.
D) chondrocytes.
Q2) part of long bone to which tendons attach
A)Periosteum
B)Endosteum
C)Epiphyses
D)Diaphysis
E)Medullary cavity
F)Articular cartilage
Q3) Lengthwise-running central canals are connected to each other by transverse-running:
A) haversian canals.
B) Volkmann canals.
C) canaliculi.
D) lacunae.
Q4) Name and describe the parts of the osteon.
Q5) Compare and contrast osteoblasts,osteoclasts,and osteocytes.
15
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Chapter 9: Skeletal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The palatine bone:
A) makes up the side of the skull.
B) completes the nasal septum.
C) makes up part of the hard palate.
D) makes up none of the above.
Q2) The adult skeleton is composed of _____ bones.
A) 206
B) 126
C) 80
D) 260
Q3) The wrist consists of six irregular carpal bones.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which bones make up the lower side of the cranium,part of its floor?
A) Occipital
B) Frontal
C) Parietal
D) Temporal
Q5) Beginning at the hip,name the bones of the lower extremity from proximal to distal.
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Chapter 10: A: Articulations
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Q1) Flexibility of the tendons allows for some movement of syndesmotic joints.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Circumduction consists of pivoting a bone on its own axis.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Only the ulna articulates with the bones of the wrists.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Plantar flexion of the foot can also be described as extension of the leg.
A)True
B)False
Q5) There are four bursae in the shoulder joint.
A)True
B)False
Q6) There are no gomphoses joints in the appendicular skeleton.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 10: B: Articulations
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following structures does not characterize a synovial joint?
A) Joint capsule
B) Articular cartilage
C) Tendons
D) All of the above structures characterize a synovial joint.
Q2) In terms of structure,which type of articulation has a joint capsule?
A) Fibrous
B) Cartilaginous
C) Synovial
D) Amphiarthrotic
Q3) Gomphoses can be found in the:
A) mandible.
B) frontal bone.
C) maxilla.
D) Both A and C are correct.
Q4) Kicking a football is accomplished by:
A) pronation.
B) adduction.
C) extension.
D) flexion.
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Chapter 11: A: Anatomy of the Muscular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The muscles that move the head are paired muscles on opposite sides of the body.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The respiratory,digestive,circulatory,excretory,and endocrine systems all contribute to the ability of muscles to maintain posture.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Tendons are often continuous with the endosteum of bone tissue.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Antagonist muscles oppose the movement of the agonist muscle.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Muscles are sometimes named to reflect their function.
A)True
B)False
Q6) The occipitofrontalis muscle is actually three muscles.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 11: B: Anatomy of the Muscular System
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Q1) The muscle that raises or lowers the shoulders or shrugs them is the:
A) deltoid.
B) latissimus dorsi.
C) trapezius.
D) pectoralis minor.
Q2) The latissimus dorsi muscle is an example of a _____ muscle.
A) bipennate
B) convergent
C) spiral
D) fusiform
Q3) Which of the following is not a component of a lever system?
A) Fixator
B) Bone
C) Joint
D) Pull
Q4) What is tenosynovitis and how is it caused?
Q5) Name four features that are used in the naming of muscles.Give an example of each.
Q6) Name and explain the three types of levers.Which type is the most common in the body?
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Chapter 12: A: Physiology of the Muscular System
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Q1) The difference between red and white fibers is the amount of glycogen.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Myosin filaments attach to the Z disk.
A)True
B)False
Q3) T-tubules are unique to muscle cells.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Another name for muscle cells is muscle fibers.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The H-zone in a relaxed sarcomere is composed of only myosin.
A)True
B)False
Q6) The degree of a muscle's strength is influenced by many factors,including its metabolic condition and number of motor units recruited.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 12: B: Physiology of the Muscular System
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Q1) Which of the following is not a part of the neuromuscular junction?
A) T-tubules
B) Motor neuron
C) Motor endplate
D) All of the structures are part of the neuromuscular junction.
Q2) A decrease in muscle size is termed:
A) hyperplasia.
B) atrophy.
C) hypertrophy.
D) treppe.
Q3) Define rigor mortis.Why does it occur?
Q4) The substance that attracts oxygen in the myoglobin molecule is:
A) hemoglobin.
B) calcium.
C) iron.
D) ATP.
Q5) List and describe the three general functions of skeletal muscle tissue.
Q6) Explain how glycogen and myoglobin aid in muscle contraction.
Q7) List three conditions that influence the strength of muscle contraction.
Q8) Describe and/or diagram the sarcomere.
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Chapter 13: A: Nervous System Cells
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Sample Questions
Q1) A resting neuron has a positive internal charge.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Regeneration of nerve fibers will occur only if the cell body is intact and the fibers have a neurilemma.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The sodium-potassium pump actively pumps three potassium ions out of the neuron and two sodium ions into the neuron.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Most of the neurons in the brain and spinal cord are unipolar.
A)True
B)False
Q5) One distinction between ipsilateral and contralateral reflexes is that contralateral reflexes have interneurons and ipsilateral reflexes do not.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 13: B: Nervous System Cells
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Sample Questions
Q1) Define IPSP and EPSP.
Q2) Which of the following statements about amino acid neurotransmitters is incorrect?
A) They are among the most common neurotransmitters in the central nervous system.
B) They are all inhibitory neurotransmitters.
C) Glycine is a widely distributed inhibitory neurotransmitter in the spinal cord.
D) All of the above statements are correct.
Q3) chemical that carries a nerve impulse across a synaptic cleft
A)Presynaptic cell
B)Neurotr
C)Postsynaptic cell
D)Synaptic knob
E)Electrical synapse
F)Chemical Synapses
G)Synaptic cleft
Q4) Name the two ways in which neurons are classified.Name and describe the types of neurons in each classification.
Q5) Name and describe the three parts of the neuron.
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Chapter 14: A: Central Nervous System
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Q1) The hormone released by the hypothalamus,melatonin,helps regulate the biological clock.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Cerebrospinal fluid is not found in the subarachnoid space.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The central sulcus divides the cerebrum into two hemispheres.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Dural sinuses function as reservoirs for cerebrospinal fluid.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The spinal cord extends from the foramen magnum to the fifth lumbar vertebra.
A)True
B)False
Q6) One source of the tracts entering the cerebellum and forming the inferior cerebellar peduncle is the medulla.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 14: B: Central Nervous System
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Q1) If the dorsal root ganglia of the spinal nerve were destroyed,a person would lose _____ related to that pathway.
A) sensory perception
B) willed movement
C) only reflex activity
D) both reflex activity and sensation
Q2) the deep groove above the temporal lobe
A)Longitudinal fissure
B)Lateral fissure
C)Sulci
D)Parietooccipital sulcus
E)Fissure
F)Central sulcus
G)Gyri
Q3) Which of the following is an incorrect statement about the midbrain?
A) It contains the inferior colliculi where auditory centers are located.
B) It contains the superior colliculi where visual centers are located.
C) It contains the red nucleus and black matter that are involved in muscle control.
D) All of the above are correct statements about the midbrain.
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Chapter 15: Peripheral Nervous System
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Q1) Skeletal muscles are somatic effectors.
A)True
B)False
Q2) fibers are widely distributed in the body; name means "wanderer"
A)Olfactory nerve
B)Optic nerve
C)Oculomotor nerve
D)Trochlear nerve
E)Trigeminal nerve
F)Abducens nerve
G)Vestibulocochlear nerve
H)Glossopharyngeal nerve
I)Vagus nerve
J)Hypoglossal nerve
Q3) Trigeminal neuralgia,or tic douloureux,is characterized by stabbing pain radiating from the eyes.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Briefly describe the structure of the spinal nerves.
Q5) Describe the basic principles of somatic motor pathways.
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Chapter 16: Autonomic Nervous System
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Q1) Acetylcholine can stimulate _____ receptors.
A) alpha
B) beta
C) nicotinic
D) both alpha and beta
Q2) Explain physiologically how summation influences effectors doubly innervated by the autonomic nervous system.
Q3) Preganglionic neurons conduct impulses from the brain or spinal cord to an autonomic ganglion.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Somatic motor and autonomic pathways share all of the following characteristics except:
A) direction of information flow.
B) location of peripheral fibers.
C) number of neurons between CNS and effector.
D) acetylcholine.
Q5) Conduction to autonomic effectors requires only one efferent neuron.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 17: A: Sense Organs
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Q1) The photo pupil reflex is an accommodation process normally used to see objects that are close.
A)True B)False
Q2) The sense organs responsible for the sense of balance are located in the vestibule and cochlea.
A)True B)False
Q3) Proprioceptors are specialized types of visceroceptors.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Refraction means the deflection,or bending,of light rays.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Somatic sense receptors located in muscles and joints are called proprioceptors. A)True B)False
Q6) Taste buds are stimulated by chemicals called tastants. A)True B)False
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Chapter 17: B: Sense Organs
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Q1) activated by stretch or pressure in muscle tissue
A)Chemoreceptors
B)Mechanoreceptors
C)Nociceptors
D)Photoreceptors
E)Thermoreceptors
Q2) Define or explain the terms sensation,perception,and adaptation.Explain specifically how sensation and perception differ.
Q3) Which of the following is true about pain receptors?
A) Alpha fibers respond to chronic pain.
B) Alpha fibers are associated with dull, aching pain.
C) Alpha fibers are associated with sharp, localized pain.
D) Beta fibers are associated with sharp, localized pain.
Q4) The passageway leading to the tympanic membrane is the:
A) external auditory meatus.
B) auditory tube.
C) eustachian tube.
D) oval window.
Q5) Describe how light is converted into action potentials that are transmitted to the brain and interpreted as vision.
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Chapter 18: Endocrine System
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Q1) a cell with receptors for a specific hormone
A)Synergism
B)Steroid hormone
C)Second messenger
D)Target cell
E)Up-regulation
F)Antagonism
G)Prostaglandin
H)Tropic hormone
I)Nonsteroid hormone
J)Permissiveness
Q2) Explain the mechanism of steroid hormone action.What is the end product of a steroid hormone?
Q3) The release of a hormone by a gland is called signal transduction.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Some nonsteroid hormones attach to cell membrane sodium channels causing them to open and allowing an influx of sodium into the cell.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 19: Endocrine Glands
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Q1) Growth hormone is also called somatotropin.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Tropic hormones are secreted by the acidophils of the pars anterior.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which is not part of the pituitary gland?
A) Sella turcica
B) Infundibulum
C) Adenohypophysis
D) Neurohypophysis
Q4) The structure in the body that provides the "mind-body" link is the:
A) anterior pituitary gland.
B) hypothalamus.
C) posterior pituitary gland.
D) pineal gland.
Q5) Glucocorticoids stimulate the conversion of protein to sugar.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Explain how the renin-angiotensin mechanism operates to maintain blood pressure.
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Chapter 20: Blood
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Q1) Which of the following is an example of a leukocyte?
A) Monocyte
B) Thrombocyte
C) Platelet
D) Erythrocyte
Q2) Streptokinase,an enzyme from certain streptococci,can cause clot dissolution.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The synthesis of plasma protein takes place in the liver.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Both myeloid tissue and lymphatic tissue are considered hematopoietic tissue.
A)True
B)False
Q5) A woman who is pregnant for the first time cannot possibly have anti-Rh antibodies in her blood.
A)True B)False
Q6) Explain the negative feedback mechanism for the correction of low blood oxygen concentration.
Page 33
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Chapter 21: Anatomy of the Cardiovascular System
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211 Verified Questions
211 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/34167
Sample Questions
Q1) The base of the heart is superior to the apex of the heart.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following statements is not true of the heart?
A) The heart of an adult is proportionally larger than the heart of an infant.
B) The heart reaches its adult size between puberty and 25 years of age.
C) The average weight of the heart is about 85 grams more in the male than in the female.
D) The heart tends to take on the shape of the chest of the individual.
Q3) Pulmonary circulation is blood flow through the liver.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Because the heart is positioned between two bony structures,CPR can be an effective,lifesaving procedure.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Chordae tendineae are cordlike structures that connect semilunar valves to papillary muscles.
A)True
B)False
Page 34
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Chapter 22: A: Physiology of the Cardiovascular System
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117 Verified Questions
117 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/34168
Sample Questions
Q1) An increase in arterial blood pressure causes an increase in parasympathetic impulses to the heart and blood vessels.
A)True
B)False
Q2) During isovolumetric ventricular relaxation,both the semilunar valves and the AV valves are closed.
A)True B)False
Q3) The "pump" of the "respiratory pump" that moves blood to the central veins is the diaphragm.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The greater the cross-sectional area of a vessel,the greater the speed of the blood flow.
A)True B)False
Q5) Anger and fear have opposite effects on the heart rate.
A)True B)False
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Chapter 22: B: Physiology of the Cardiovascular System
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87 Verified Questions
87 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/34148
Sample Questions
Q1) The period between the filling of the ventricles and the opening of the semilunar valves is called:
A) atrial systole.
B) isovolumetric ventricular contraction.
C) isovolumetric ventricular relaxation.
D) passive ventricular filling.
Q2) The primary fluid flow principle of circulation is based on all of the following except a fluid:
A) flows only when a pressure gradient is absent.
B) does not flow when the pressure is the same in all parts of it.
C) flows only when its pressure is higher in one area than in another.
D) flows always from its higher-pressure area toward its lower-pressure area.
Q3) Explain why a transplanted heart would beat even if the nerves to the heart were not reconnected.
Q4) A decrease in total plasma volume results from the _____ mechanism.
A) atrial natriuretic hormone
B) antidiuretic hormone
C) renin-angiotensin
D) aldosterone
Q5) What are two functions that circulation control mechanisms must accomplish?
Page 36
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Chapter 23: Lymphatic System
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196 Verified Questions
196 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/34169
Sample Questions
Q1) Describe the structure of a lymph node,and explain what happens when lymph passes through it.
Q2) Almost all of the interstitial fluid filtered out by the capillaries enters the lymphatic system.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The spleen's two functions are defense of foreign microorganisms and provision of a blood reservoir.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Lymphatic capillaries (called lacteals)in the small intestine are important in the absorption of fats.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Name and describe the two main lymphatic ducts of the body.What area of the body is drained by each? What is the cisterna chyli?
Q6) Name and give the location of the major clusters of lymph nodes in the body.
Q7) Compare and contrast the structures of veins and lymphatics.
Q8) Describe the important functions performed by the thymus.
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Chapter 24: A: Immune System
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117 Verified Questions
117 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/34170
Sample Questions
Q1) T cells react mainly to antigens that are dissolved in plasma.
A)True
B)False
Q2) An antibody molecule must have at least two antigen-binding sites.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The inflammatory response is the body's first line of defense.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Complement is a chemical produced by cells after they become infected by a virus.
A)True
B)False
Q5) One of the antigen-specific sites on the antibody is used to activate the compliment cascade in the blood.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Humoral immunity occurs within the plasma.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 24: B: Immune System
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102 Verified Questions
102 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/34150
Sample Questions
Q1) The antibody normally constituting the highest percentage of antibodies in the blood is:
A) IgE.
B) IgG.
C) IgM.
D) IgA.
Q2) When a patient starts to have rejection problems with a transplanted organ,the problems are usually caused by:
A) a B cell-mediated condition.
B) human leukocyte antigens (HALs).
C) self-antigens.
D) severe combined immune deficiency (SCID).
Q3) Explain how a white blood cell ingests and destroys a microorganism.
Q4) Which of the following is not caused by complement protein activity?
A) Vasodilation
B) Agglutination of antigens
C) Cytolysis
D) All of the above are caused by complement protein activity.
Q5) Explain how the AIDS virus seems to affect the immune system.
Q6) Why is it difficult to predict the total number of AIDS cases?
Page 39
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Chapter 25: Stress
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138 Verified Questions
138 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/34171
Sample Questions
Q1) Because the body feels under attack when experiencing a stress response,the immune system becomes more active and vigilant.
A)True
B)False
Q2) All of the following are components of the "stress triad" observed by Hans Selye except:
A) enlarged adrenals.
B) hypertrophied skeletal muscles.
C) shrunken lymphatic organs.
D) bleeding gastrointestinal ulcers.
Q3) Alarm reaction responses resulting from the hypertrophy of the adrenal cortex include:
A) hyperglycemia.
B) decreased immunity.
C) decreased allergic responses.
D) all of the above.
Q4) A drop in blood lactate level is an objective measure of psychological stress.
A)True
B)False
Q5) List the physical and psychological responses your body makes to stress.
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Chapter 26: Anatomy of the Respiratory System
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213 Verified Questions
213 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/34172
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following lists the correct sequence of air as it passes through the nose into the pharynx?
A) Vestibule anterior nares inferior, middle, and superior meatus posterior nares
B) Inferior, middle, and superior meatus nostrils vestibule posterior nares
C) Anterior nares vestibule inferior, middle, and superior meatus posterior nares
D) Anterior nares posterior nares vestibule inferior, middle, and superior meatus
Q2) The larynx lies ventral to the third,fourth,and fifth vertebrae and superior to the pharynx.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Only larger,multicellular creatures require a respiratory system.
A)True
B)False
Q4) All three sets of tonsils are located in the oropharynx.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 27: A: Physiology of the Respiratory System
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117 Verified Questions
117 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/34173
Sample Questions
Q1) The gas laws are based on the concept of a standard gas whose molecules are so far apart that they rarely collide.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A relatively large increase in arterial oxygen partial pressure stimulates an increase in breathing rate.
A)True
B)False
Q3) For air to remain in the lungs,the pressure in the lungs must be equal to or less than atmospheric pressure.
A)True
B)False
Q4) On a percentage basis,there is more carbon dioxide dissolved in the plasma than there is oxygen dissolved in the plasma.
A)True
B)False
Q5) As lung compliance decreases,the efficiency of respiration increases. A)True
B)False
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Chapter 27: B: Physiology of the Respiratory System
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83 Verified Questions
83 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/34152
Sample Questions
Q1) Which muscles are used for forced expiration?
A) Sternocleidomastoid and abdominal muscles
B) Sternocleidomastoid and intercostals
C) External intercostals and pectoralis muscles
D) Abdominal muscles and internal intercostals
Q2) Dalton law states that the partial pressure of a gas in a mixture of gases is _____ to the total pressure of the mixture.
A) inversely related to the concentration of that gas in the mixture and
B) directly related to the concentration of that gas in the mixture and
C) directly related to the concentration of that gas in the mixture and inversely related
D) inversely related to the concentration of that gas in the mixture and directly related
Q3) External respiration can be defined as:
A) the exchange of gases between the lung and the blood capillaries in the lung.
B) pulmonary ventilation.
C) the exchange of gases between the blood capillaries and the tissue cells.
D) both A and B.
Q4) Briefly describe and diagram the oxygen-hemoglobin dissociation curve.
Q5) Explain the diving reflex.
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Chapter 28: A: Anatomy of the Digestive System
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137 Verified Questions
137 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/34174
Sample Questions
Q1) One function of the gallbladder is to dilute the bile so it can more easily pass through the ducts into the intestine.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The vermiform appendix is attached to the sigmoid part of the large intestine.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The fan-shaped projection of peritoneum that connects the small intestine to the posterior abdominal wall is the mesentery.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The esophagus is composed of striated and smooth muscles. A)True
B)False
Q5) The hepatic lobules are the anatomical units of the liver and are tiny hexagonal or pentagonal shaped structures.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 28: B: Anatomy of the Digestive System
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116 Verified Questions
116 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/34154
Sample Questions
Q1) The myenteric plexus is found in which layer of the GI wall?
A) Mucosa
B) Submucosa
C) Muscularis
D) Serosa
Q2) Which statement explains what happens to toxic substances after detoxification by liver cells?
A) They are used to increase pH for optimum amylase function.
B) They are used to dilute food and other substances and facilitate mixing of foods in the small intestine.
C) Small amounts are carried by mucus and sodium bicarbonate to the small intestine for use in digestion.
D) They are changed into nontoxic compounds by a series of chemical reactions.
Q3) All of the following are classified as accessory organs of the digestive system except the:
A) tongue.
B) mouth.
C) liver.
D) pancreas.
Q4) Explain the cause of appendicitis.
45
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Chapter 29: A: Physiology of the Digestive System
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128 Verified Questions
128 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/34175
Sample Questions
Q1) Bilirubin is found in bile and assists in micelle formation,which assists in the digestion of fats.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The digestion of triglycerides produces monoglycerides and phospholipids.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Chylomicrons are absorbed by the blood vessels in the villi of the small intestine.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Most enzymes in the body are intracellular.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Amino acids are the end products of protein digestion.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Retropulsion forces the chime in the stomach to move backwards.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 29: B: Physiology of the Digestive System
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122 Verified Questions
122 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/34156
Sample Questions
Q1) The major site for the absorption of the end products of digestion is the:
A) stomach.
B) small intestine.
C) cecum.
D) large intestine.
Q2) Rotavirus can cause what life-threatening condition in infants?
A) Constipation
B) Diarrhea
C) Cholera
D) Pyloric stenosis
Q3) process of taking food into the mouth,starting it on its journey through the digestive tract
A)Motility
B)Ingestion
C)Elimination
D)Secretion
E)Digestion
F)Absorption
Q4) Explain the differences between peristalsis and segmentation.
Q5) Explain the mechanism of absorption for lipids.
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Chapter 30: A: Nutrition and Metabolism
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129 Verified Questions
129 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/34176
Sample Questions
Q1) High blood concentrations of LDLs are associated with atherosclerosis.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Vitamin C has an antioxidant effect.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Just as there are essential amino acids,there are essential fatty acids.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Keto acids are formed in protein catabolism and can be oxidized in the citric acid cycle.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The hormone leptin is frequently given to people undergoing chemotherapy to stimulate their appetite.
A)True
B)False
Q6) One function of lactic acid is to convert NADH back to NAD.
A)True
B)False
Page 48
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Chapter 30: B: Nutrition and Metabolism
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115 Verified Questions
115 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/34158
Sample Questions
Q1) a group of hormones that stimulates the pancreas to release insulin
A)Citric acid cycle
B)Glycogenesis
C)LDL
D)Glycolysis
E)Leptin
F)Electron tr
G)HDL
H)GIP
I)Cori cycle
Q2) Which of the following is a factor that reduces appetite?
A) An increase in blood temperature reaching the hypothalamus
B) A decrease in blood temperature reaching the hypothalamus
C) A decrease in blood glucose
D) None of the above factors has an effect on appetite.
Q3) Which of the following is not considered a macronutrient?
A) Carbohydrates
B) Calcium
C) Iron
D) Neither B nor C is considered a macronutrient.
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Chapter 31: A: Urinary System
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133 Verified Questions
133 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/34177
Sample Questions
Q1) In the blood vessels in the kidney,lobar arterioles divide to become segmental arterioles.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Just as in the bladder,the ureter is lined with transitional epithelium,which allows it to stretch without damage.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Podocytes on the parietal walls of Bowman capsule help support the slit diaphragms that allow filtrate to leave the blood and enter Bowman capsule.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Most reabsorption occurs in the loop of Henle.
A)True
B)False
Q5) About 99% of the fluid filtered into Bowman capsule is reabsorbed.
A)True B)False
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Chapter 31: B: Urinary System
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109 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is the approximate threshold level for the reabsorption of glucose?
A) 100 mg/100 ml
B) 300 mg/100 ml
C) 200 mg/100 ml
D) 250 mg/100 ml
Q2) If a person becomes dehydrated,which hormone would you expect to find in high concentration in the blood?
A) Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
B) Atrial natriuretic hormone (ANH)
C) Para-aminohippurate acid (PAH)
D) Prolactin (PRL)
Q3) In the ascending limb of Henle:
A) sodium and chloride are reabsorbed from the tubule fluid.
B) the tubule fluid becomes dilute (hypotonic).
C) antidiuretic hormone causes the cells to become more permeable to water.
D) both A and B occur.
Q4) Explain how the loop of Henle establishes a solute concentration gradient from the top of the loop to the bottom of the loop.
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Chapter 32: Fluid and Electrolyte Balance
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201 Verified Questions
201 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/34178
Sample Questions
Q1) Because of unknown mechanisms,the secretion of saliva generally increases when there is a decrease in the total volume of body water.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What is the most abundant cation in extracellular fluid?
A) Sodium
B) Chlorine
C) Potassium
D) Magnesium
Q3) Osmoreceptors associated with thirst are located in the gastrointestinal tract.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following is not a cause of hypervolemia?
A) Renal failure
B) Ascites
C) Nephrotic syndrome
D) Congestive heart failure
Q5) The body tissue with the least amount of water is bone.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 33: Acid-Base Balance
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190 Verified Questions
190 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is considered a direct acid-forming food?
A) Citrus fruit
B) Vinegar
C) Cranberries
D) All of the above are considered direct acid-forming foods
Q2) Kidney tubule base bicarbonate reabsorption and hydrogen ion excretion tend to lower the blood pH and raise the pH of the urine.
A)True
B)False
Q3) For the body to maintain an acid-base balance,which of the following is(are)necessary?
A) Buffering
B) Respirations
C) Urine secretion
D) All of the above
Q4) Because intracellular fluid is in equilibrium with interstitial fluid and blood plasma,it also has a pH of 7.41.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 34: Male Reproductive System
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213 Verified Questions
213 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/34180
Sample Questions
Q1) The main factor determining male fertility is the:
A) size of the sperm.
B) number of sperm ejaculated.
C) shape of the sperm.
D) motility of the sperm.
Q2) Testosterone promotes bone growth and closure of the epiphyses.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Explain the difference between sexual and asexual reproduction.What effect does this have on the offspring and what advantage does sexual reproduction have in regard to survival of the offspring?
Q4) Nurse cells,Sertoli cells,and sustentacular cells are different names for the same cells.
A)True
B)False
Q5) After about 6 weeks,any unused sperm are broken down by the epididymis.
A)True B)False
Q6) Define the terms erection,emission,and ejaculation.Include in each definition the neural control involved.
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Chapter 35: A: Female Reproductive System
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124 Verified Questions
124 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/34181
Sample Questions
Q1) The greater vestibular glands in the female are homologous to the bulbourethral glands in the male.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The posterior ligament forms a deep pouch known as the perineal body.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The external os opens into the vagina.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The clitoris contains erectile tissue that becomes filled with blood during the sexual response.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The mons pubis is a skin-covered pad of fat over the symphysis pubis.
A)True
B)False
Q6) The luteal phase follows ovulation.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 35: B: Female Reproductive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) During the postovulatory phase of the cycle,the greatest percentage of progesterone is produced by the:
A) corpus albicans.
B) corpus luteum.
C) primary graafian follicle.
D) uterus.
Q2) phase that occurs frequently on cycle day 14 in a 28-day cycle
A)Menses
B)Postmenstrual phase
C)Ovulation
D)Premenstrual phase
Q3) Which of the following is the least predictable method of determining ovulation time?
A) The measurement of LH in the urine
B) The length of previous cycles
C) The change in basal body temperature
D) All of the above methods are equally accurate in determining ovulation time.
Q4) Describe and give the location of the ovaries.Name and describe the ligaments that hold the ovaries in place.
Q5) Describe how the cyclic changes in the uterus are regulated.
Page 56
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Chapter 36: A: Growth and Development
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133 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/34182
Sample Questions
Q1) A change in the organ of Corti,which is common in the elderly,requires bifocal glasses for correction.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Developmental biology is the name given to the branch of life science that studies the process of change over the life cycle.
A)True B)False
Q3) In older adulthood,the bones develop indistinct and shaggy-appearing margins with spurs,a process called lipping.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Gerontologists have found that aging may be linked to the reproductive limit of human cells.
A)True B)False
Q5) Agents that disrupt normal development of the fetus are called teratogens. A)True B)False
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Chapter 36: B: Growth and Development
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/34165
Sample Questions
Q1) The deciduous teeth:
A) begin to appear at about 6 months of age.
B) are lost during childhood.
C) start to erupt at about 6 years of age.
D) Both A and B are correct.
Q2) The sequence of early development of the fetus is:
A) morula, zygote, and blastocyst.
B) zygote, morula, and blastocyst.
C) zygote, blastocyst, and morula.
D) morula, blastocyst, and zygote.
Q3) The second stage of labor is the:
A) period from the onset of contractions until dilation of the cervix is complete.
B) period from the time of maximal cervical dilation until the baby exits through the vagina.
C) point at which the amniotic sac ruptures.
D) process of expulsion of the placenta through the vagina.
Q4) Polly is 70 years old.She has always enjoyed food and has had a hearty appetite.Lately,however,she has complained that "food just doesn't taste as good anymore." What is a possible explanation?
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Chapter 37: A: Genetics and Heredity
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130 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/34183
Sample Questions
Q1) Transcriptomics is the analysis of all the mRNA codes actually transcribed from the human genome.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A karyotype is effective only in identifying chromosomal abnormalities.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The function of DNA is to transcribe the genetic code to tRNA.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Because there have been tragic setbacks is some gene therapy clinical trials,there are presently no approved gene therapies available.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The effect on the body of uncontrolled PKU is damage to the liver and kidneys. A)True
B)False
Q6) The symptoms of osteogenesis imperfecta frequently disappear after puberty. A)True
B)False
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Chapter 37: B: Genetics and Heredity
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105 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/34166
Sample Questions
Q1) When did the scientific study of genetics begin? Give a brief summary of what happened.
Q2) simple cartoon of a chromosome
A)Proteome
B)Ideogram
C)Genome
D)Genomics
E)P-arm
F)Proteomics
G)Q-arm
Q3) If "A" stands for the dominant gene that prevents albinism and "a" stands for the recessive albinism trait,then an individual with the genotype of "aa" will express:
A) albinism and will be a carrier.
B) albinism and will not be a carrier.
C) normal pigmentation and will be a carrier.
D) normal pigmentation and will not be a carrier.
Q4) Discuss genetic counseling.Include in your discussion an explanation of a pedigree,the Punnett square,and a karyotype.
Q5) Explain the principle of independent assortment.
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