Human Biology
Chapter Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Human Biology explores the structure, function, and processes of the human body at the molecular, cellular, organ, and systemic levels. This course covers fundamental topics such as genetics, physiology, anatomy, metabolism, and the interactions between major body systems, while also addressing human health, disease, and development. Emphasis is placed on understanding how lifestyle choices, environmental factors, and genetics impact overall health and well-being, providing a foundation for further study in the life sciences, medicine, or healthcare-related fields.
Recommended Textbook
Human Anatomy 7th Edition by Elaine N. Marieb
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Page 2
Chapter 1: The Human Body: an Orientation
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Q1) Which organ system covers the external surface of the body, but not the internal surface of the mouth?
A) lymphatic
B) digestive
C) integumentary
D) cutaneous
Answer: C
Q2) A coronal section through the human body can
A) pass through both the nose and the occipital region.
B) pass through both ears.
C) provide mirror right and left images.
D) lie in a horizontal plane.
Answer: B
Q3) The eye is ________ to the occipital region.
A) superior
B) lateral
C) anterior
D) proximal
E) deep
Answer: C
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Chapter 2: The Living Units
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Q1) During the G phase, DNA is replicated in the cytoplasm.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) This phase is the physical division of the cytoplasm between the two newly formed cells that result from mitosis.
Answer: cytokinesis
Q3) Functions of the Golgi apparatus include all of the following except
A) synthesis of lysosomes.
B) DNA replication.
C) plasma membrane formation.
D) production of secretory granules.
Answer: B
Q4) The stiffest elements of the cytoskeleton, analogous to the bones of the human body, are
A) microtubules.
B) microfilaments.
C) intermediate filaments.
D) the cytosol.
Answer: A
Page 4
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Chapter 3: Basic Embryology
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Sample Questions
Q1) The cavity in the mesoderm that ultimately develops into the peritoneal, pericardial, and pleural cavities is called:
A) an antrum.
B) a blastocoel.
C) a coelom.
D) a dermatome.
Answer: C
Q2) Blood vessels and the heart arise from this primary germ layer.
A) endoderm
B) ectoderm
C) mesoderm-somites
D) mesoderm-lateral plate
E) intermediate mesoderm
Answer: D
Q3) The urinary bladder is derived from which embryonic layer?
A) ectoderm
B) mesoderm
C) endoderm
D) neural crest
Answer: C
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Chapter 4: Tissues
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Q1) Ligaments consist primarily of which kind of connective tissue?
A) loose areolar
B) dense irregular
C) cartilage
D) dense regular
Q2) When cells from a cancerous tumor travel to other parts of the body, this process is called
A) carcinogenesis.
B) malignancy.
C) metastasis.
D) transformation.
Q3) Elastic fibers are comprised of the protein ________.
Q4) Which letter on the diagram indicates motile structural elements of the epithelial membrane?
A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D
E) E
Q5) This type of fat is important in babies to aid in thermoregulation.
Page 6
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Chapter 5: The Integumentary System
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Q1) Which primary layer of the skin contains melanocytes?
A) dermis
B) hypodermis
C) epidermis
Q2) By the time keratinocytes reach the stratum corneum, they are dead and filled with collagen.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The appearance of wrinkles in skin with age is largely due to changes in the
A) collagen and elastic fibers in the dermis.
B) keratin of the epidermis.
C) carotene in the epidermis.
D) blood vessels in the dermis.
Q4) The only cell type found superficial to the stratum spinosum in the epidermis is the
A) keratinocyte.
B) melanocyte.
C) dendritic cell.
D) tactile epithelial cell.
Q5) The dendritic cells reside in the ________.
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Chapter 6: Bones and Skeletal Tissues
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Q1) Explain how the epiphyseal plate remains a constant width until puberty is completed.
Q2) A large, multinucleate cell with a ruffled border is an
A) osteoclast.
B) adipocyte.
C) osteocyte.
D) osteoblast.
Q3) Repair of a simple fracture begins with A) calcification of dense connective tissue.
B) granulation tissue formation.
C) hyaline cartilage deposition.
D) inflammation and hematoma formation.
Q4) Osteocytes, residing within lacunae, are connected via canaliculi.
A)True
B)False
Q5) In appositional growth, chondrocytes within cartilage divide and secrete new matrix.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Explain the healing of a simple fracture.
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Chapter 7: Bones, Part 1: The Axial Skeleton
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Q1) Which of these bones has both the cribriform plate and the crista galli?
A) mandible
B) sphenoid bone
C) occipital bone
D) temporal bone
E) ethmoid bone
Q2) Which letter indicates the mastoid process of the temporal bone?
A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D
E) E
Q3) The largest paranasal sinus is the A) frontal.
B) maxillary.
C) ethmoid.
D) sphenoid.
Q4) What is the most common congenital abnormality of the skull?
Q5) List the 14 bones of the face. Identify which are paired (with the letter P) and which are unpaired (using UP).
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Chapter 8: Bones, Part 2: The Appendicular Skeleton
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Q1) The coronoid fossa is found on which of the bones listed below?
A) radius
B) tibia
C) ulna
D) humerus
Q2) The ________ ligaments run from each lateral surface of the sacrum to the ischial tuberosities to hold the pelvis together.
Q3) Which letter indicates a deep hemispherical socket where all three pelvic bones intersect?
A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D
E) E
Q4) When the forearm is flexed at the elbow, the coronoid process of the ulna fits into the ________ fossa of the humerus.
Q5) The pectoral girdle consists of the clavicle and the ________.
Q6) The head of the femur has a ________, from which a ligament extends that attaches to the inner surface of the acetabulum.
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Joints
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Q1) A chronic disorder of joints in which the articular cartilages degenerate and bony spurs form is
A) rheumatoid arthritis.
B) osteoarthritis.
C) gout.
D) Lyme disease.
Q2) Pulling your shoulders back, or squaring them, involves which motion of the scapula?
A) abduction
B) pronation
C) retraction
D) opposition
Q3) One could characterize a bursa as a sac of synovial fluid.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Describe the joint-associated problems that can occur as normal changes to the articular cartilage as an individual ages.
Q5) This joint is structurally reinforced by talofibular and tibiofibular ligaments.
Q6) The most freely moving large joint of the body is the ________ joint.
Q7) ________ causes the forearm to rotate laterally.
Page 11
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Chapter 10: Skeletal Muscle Tissue
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Q1) Of the various types of skeletal muscle fibers, the ones supplied by the most capillaries are
A) slow oxidative fibers.
B) fast glycolytic fibers.
C) fast oxidative fibers.
D) slow glycolytic fibers.
Q2) List the arrangement of muscle fibers in a muscle and their connective tissue fibers.
Q3) This type of muscle attaches to bone, but may also attach to skin, cartilage, fascia or a raphe.
A) skeletal muscle
B) smooth muscle
C) cardiac muscle
Q4) As skeletal muscles enlarge in a weight lifter, all of the following occur except
A) muscle cells divide mitotically.
B) muscle cells grow larger.
C) myofilaments become more abundant in the muscle cells.
D) myofibrils become more abundant in the muscle cells.
Q5) Muscle cells that produce ATP anaerobically via glycolysis are called ________.
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Page 12
Chapter 11: Muscles of the Body
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Q1) Third-class lever systems, like most skeletal muscles, enable great strength but sacrifice speed and distance of movement.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A prime mover for lateral rotation at the shoulder is the A) pectoralis major.
B) supraspinatus.
C) teres major.
D) teres minor.
Q3) The pelvic diaphragm consists of the levator ani, coccygeus, and transverse perineal muscles.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Inability to raise the eyebrow could be associated with damage to the A) mastoid process.
B) orbicularis oculi.
C) temporalis muscle.
D) frontal belly of the epicranius muscle.
Q5) The three hamstrings are ________.
Q6) The ________ is the longest muscle in the body, spanning two joints.
Page 13
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Chapter 12: Fundamentals of the Nervous System and Nervous Tissue
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Q1) Which of the following is not considered a special somatic sense?
A) smell
B) taste
C) pain
D) equilibrium
Q2) Nearly all somatic sensory neurons are of this type, based on the classification of the type and number of processes.
Q3) Identify the letter that indicates the gaps between Schwann cells that are known as myelin sheath gaps (nodes of Ranvier).
A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D
E) E
Q4) Chromatophilic bodies are clusters of rough ER and free ribosomes that produce the large amount of proteins needed by a neuron.
A)True
B)False
Page 14
Q5) ________ neurons develop from neural crest cells.
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Chapter 13: The Central Nervous System
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Q1) The brain stem consists of the
A) cerebrum, pons, midbrain, and medulla.
B) midbrain, medulla, and pons.
C) pons, medulla, cerebellum, and midbrain.
D) midbrain only.
Q2) After someone faints, smelling salts of ammonia may be placed under the person's nose. The person breathes the ammonia vapors, which deliver a sharp jolt to the nasal membranes, and the person wakes up. This illustrates
A) how smells bring about emotions.
B) the function of the hypothalamus in controlling sleep.
C) the function of sensory input to the reticular activating system.
D) how smells elicit memories of being awake, causing the person to awaken.
Q3) Describe the difference between the primary sensory areas of the cerebrum and their corresponding association areas.
Q4) Which of the following is a motor area for vision?
A) frontal eye field
B) premotor cortex
C) primary visual cortex
D) visual association area
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Chapter 14: The Peripheral Nervous System
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Q1) An example of an encapsulated receptor is
A) a hair follicle receptor.
B) a tendon organ.
C) a tactile epithelial cell (Merkel disc).
D) a lamellar corpuscle (Pacinian corpuscle).
Q2) Name the three divisions of the trigeminal nerve and the foramina through which they run.
Q3) This nerve innervates the diaphragm.
Q4) Of the following, the nerve that forms from fibers of both the medial and lateral cords of the brachial plexus is the A) median.
B) axillary.
C) ulnar.
D) musculocutaneous.
Q5) A nerve plexus is formed by interconnected dorsal and ventral rami of spinal nerves. A)True
B)False
Q6) The portion of the nervous system that does NOT include the brain and spinal cord.
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Chapter 15: The Autonomic Nervous System and Visceral
Sensory Neurons
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Q1) Which division of the autonomic nervous system has preganglionic fibers within the facial nerve?
A) sympathetic
B) parasympathetic
C) somatic
D) CNS
Q2) Which autonomic division increases heart rate?
A) sympathetic
B) parasympathetic
C) somatic
D) cranial
Q3) This organ contains modified sympathetic postganglionic neurons that lack nerve processes.
A) adrenal medulla
B) collateral ganglia
C) stellate ganglion
D) sympathetic chain ganglia
Q4) Contrast the structure of the somatic and autonomic motor neurons.
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Q5) Postganglionic fibers of the parasympathetic system are called ________ because they release the neurotransmitter acetylcholine.
Chapter 16: The Special Senses
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Q1) The cochlear duct lies between two ________ -filled chambers known as the scala vestibuli and scala tympani.
Q2) Identify the relationship between olfactory receptor cells, glomeruli, and mitral cells. Then explain how odor signals are amplified to the mitral cells.
Q3) Transparent structure of the eye containing regularly aligned collagen fibers. A) sclera
B) choroid
C) ciliary body
D) cornea
E) lens
Q4) The lens of the eye is attached to stringlike ________, which are anchored by ciliary bodies attached to the sclera.
Q5) Identify the letter that indicates the structure that is called the cochlea.
A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D
E) E
Q6) The ability of the eye to focus on nearby objects is a process called ________.
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Chapter 17: The Endocrine System
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Q1) Largest purely endocrine gland in the body.
A) pancreas
B) hypophysis
C) adrenal gland
D) thyroid gland
E) thymus gland
Q2) The secretion of hormones by the anterior lobe of the pituitary is controlled by the
A) pars distalis.
B) pancreatic islets.
C) hypothalamus.
D) atria of the heart.
Q3) Which of the following hormones is secreted by neurons?
A) oxytocin
B) thyroid hormone
C) growth hormone
D) insulin
Q4) Contrast the two anatomical regions of the adrenal glands.
Q5) The parathyroid glands lie on the ________ surface of the thyroid gland.
Q6) The ________ consists of four endocrine cell types: A, B, D, and PP.
Page 19
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Chapter 18: Blood
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Q1) The blood cell whose nucleus often resembles a telephone receiver is the A) erythrocyte.
B) basophil.
C) eosinophil.
D) lymphocyte.
Q2) Leukocytes function primarily within the bloodstream.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Elevated numbers of band cells in differential WBC counts is considered an indicator of infection.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What is the anatomical difference between T lymphocytes and B lymphocytes?
A) T cells are larger.
B) B cells are larger.
C) B cells have a darker-staining nucleus.
D) They are structurally identical.
Q5) ________ are cell fragments that initiate a blood clot formed of blood cells trapped in a network of fibrin protein.
Q6) The formation of blood is called ________.
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Chapter 19: The Heart
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Q1) Identify the letter that indicates the left common carotid artery.
A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D
E) E
Q2) At which corner point of the heart does one listen for the sound of the closing aortic semilunar valve?
A) superior right
B) inferior right
C) superior left
D) inferior left
Q3) Identify the letter that indicates the location of the bundle branches.
A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D
E) E
Q4) Compare the difference between incompetent and stenotic heart valves.
Q5) Inflammation of the heart's myocardium is called ________.
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Chapter 20: Blood Vessels
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Q1) The inferior vena cava ascends on the left side of the vertebral bodies and to the left of the abdominal aorta.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The right suprarenal and gonadal veins drain into the inferior vena cava, whereas the left suprarenal and gonadal veins drain into the A) superior vena cava.
B) other side of the inferior vena cava.
C) hepatic portal system.
D) left renal vein.
Q3) The right gonadal vein drains into the A) inferior vena cava.
B) internal iliac vein.
C) lumbar vein.
D) renal vein.
Q4) ________ channels, also known as arterial anastomoses, provide alternative pathways of blood to joints.
Q5) The ________ vein descends through the transverse foramina of the first six cervical vertebrae.
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Chapter 21: The Lymphatic and Immune Systems
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Q1) Identify the letter that indicates the smallest lymphatic vessel that collects lymph in the peripheral tissue.
A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D
E) E
Q2) The bulges that give lymph vessels a string-of-beads appearance are really
A) lymph nodes.
B) pockets for valves.
C) weakenings in the wall of the vessels.
D) temporary constrictions caused by bulging skeletal muscles that squeeze the lymph vessel.
Q3) Which of the following lymphoid structures have a hilum?
A) tonsils and appendix
B) thymus and aggregated lymphoid nodules
C) spleen and lymph nodes
D) MALT
Q4) The ________ tonsils are the ones most often infected and removed during a tonsillectomy.
Page 23
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Chapter 22: The Respiratory System
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Q1) Identify the letter that indicates the uvula.
A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D
E) E
Q2) The ________ sinuses drain into the nasal cavity.
Q3) Fissure separating the upper and middle lobes of the right lung.
A) horizontal
B) oblique
C) carina
D) superior
E) inferior
Q4) Identify the letter that indicates the vocal fold, or true vocal cord.
A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D
E) E
Q5) Describe the structure and function of the pleural cavity.
Page 24
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Chapter 23: The Digestive System
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Q1) The splenic flexure is the boundary between the A) spleen and stomach.
B) transverse and descending colon.
C) transverse and ascending colon.
D) descending colon and sigmoid colon.
Q2) Layer of the GI tract responsible for peristalsis and segmentation.
A) muscularis mucosae
B) muscularis externa
C) lamina propria
D) submucosa
E) serosa
Q3) The union of the cystic and common hepatic ducts.
A) accessory pancreatic duct
B) main pancreatic duct
C) hepatopancreatic ampulla
D) common bile duct
E) bile canaliculi
Q4) Describe the structure and function of the intrinsic and extrinsic muscles of the tongue.
Q5) Longitudinal folds of the stomach mucosa are called ________.
Page 25
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Chapter 24: The Urinary System
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Q1) A network of peritubular capillaries surrounds the convoluted tubules and nephron loop for the purpose of filtration.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Identify the letter that indicates the visceral layer of the glomerular capsule.
A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D
E) E
Q3) The urinary bladder, when empty, lies within both the abdominal and pelvic cavities.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The U-shaped ________ is located between the proximal and distal convoluted tubules.
Q5) Urine flows from the kidney to the bladder by gravity and peristalsis.
A)True
B)False
Q6) The ________ layer of the ureters propel urine to the bladder by peristalsis.
Page 26
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Chapter 25: The Reproductive System
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Q1) The acrosomal reaction occurs
A) just before fertilization.
B) during meiosis of the sperm.
C) during spermiogenesis.
D) during placentation.
Q2) Cryptorchidism is a congenital condition in which one or both testes fail to descend into the scrotum.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The ________ is formed by the union of the ductus deferens and seminal vesicles.
Q4) Ovarian follicles contain ________ and thecal cells that, after ovulation, differentiate into the corpus luteum
Q5) The ovarian cortex consists of A) follicles and connective tissue.
B) the largest blood vessels of the ovary. C) the hilus of the ovary.
D) the mesovarium.
Q6) The secretory phase of the uterine cycle corresponds to the ________ phase of the ovarian cycle.
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Q7) The uterus is composed of three basic layers. The inner layer is the ________.