
Course Introduction
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Course Introduction
Human Biology explores the structure and function of the human body, examining how organ systems work together to maintain health and homeostasis. The course covers fundamental biological principles including cell biology, genetics, physiology, anatomy, and the bodys response to disease. Students learn about the interactions between humans and their environment, the role of nutrition and lifestyle in health, and current biomedical advances. Through lectures, laboratories, and discussions, the course provides an integrated understanding of the biological mechanisms that underpin human life and health.
Recommended Textbook
Biology of Humans Concepts Applications and Issues 4th Edition by Judith Goodenough
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Q1) Which of the following levels of organization would a single-celled organism be excluded from?
A)cellular
B)molecular
C)tissue
D)population
Answer: C
Q2) Cells that possess a nucleus and are complex due to a membrane system that establishes internal compartments belong in which of the following groups?
A)eukaryotic
B)virus
C)Archaea
D)bacteria
Answer: A
Q3) All individuals of a species that can interbreed in an area are called a(n)________.
Answer: population
Q4) A community and its physical environment are often referred to as a(n)________.
Answer: ecosystem
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Q1) Explain some of the modern uses for radioisotopes in society.
Answer: Radioisotopes can be used in a variety of medical applications for diagnosis (imaging,such as by radioactive iodine)or therapy (such as when radioactive seeds are used to treat prostate cancer).Although not discussed in the chapter,other uses include iodine and phosphorus isotopes being used to sequence DNA and RNA for medical,forensic,and criminal applications.Many isotopes have been used for a variety of dating in geological fields (e.g.,carbon 14 has been used to date fossils).
Q2) A(n)________ is a polymer that forms muscle,bone,hair,and other structural components of the body.
Answer: protein
Q3) A substance that,when disassociated in water,will give off hydrogen ions is referred to as a(n)________.
Answer: acid
Q4) A(n)________ is a nonprotein substance that aids in forming the enzyme-substrate complex in metabolic reactions. Answer: cofactor
Q5) The ________ can be used to measure whether a substance is an acid or a base. Answer: pH scale
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Q1) Certain chemotherapy drugs interfere with microtubule synthesis.Which of the following would have functional difficulties caused by those drugs?
A)flagella
B)Golgi complex
C)cilia
D)All of the above would have functional difficulties
Answer: D
Q2) Which of the following is true of both cilia and flagella?
A)They are commonly found on cells of the respiratory tract.
B)They are numerous and short extensions.
C)They move in a back-and-forth manner.
D)They have a 9 + 2 pattern of microtubules.
Answer: D
Q3) ________ are membrane proteins that aid adjoining cells to stick to each other. Answer: CAMs (cellular adhesion molecules)
Q4) ________ is the ingestion of large molecules and foreign substances through the phospholipid membrane.
Answer: Endocytosis
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Q1) What are the signs of skin cancer that distinguish it from other skin irregularities?
Q2) ________ is the pigment produced by melanocytes that gives skin its color.
Q3) In negative feedback,a muscle or gland works to counteract a change in homeostasis.The muscles or glands doing this are said to be ________.
Q4) The organ system that regulates and integrates body functions via hormones.
A)Nervous
B)Endocrine
C)Muscular
D)Skeletal
E)Integumentary
F)Lymphatic
G)Respiratory
H)Cardiovascular
I)Urinary
J)Reproductive
K)Digestive
Q5) A ________ is a group of cells of similar type that work together to serve a common function.
Q6) ________ muscle tissue is involuntary and has branching cells with striations.
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Q1) Forensic scientists may have to identify an adult victim who was lost in the wilderness years ago from the remains found by a hiker.What type of evidence from the bones would they look for to determine the age of the person?
A)the size of the bones and the condition of the growth plate
B)the number of bones
C)They look to see if any bones were broken, because the bones of the elderly break easily.
D)Not much can be told from just the bones to determine age.
Q2) Briefly explain osteoporosis and what preventative measures can be taken to reduce a person's risk of this condition.
Q3) Vertebrae in the neck are classified as ________ vertebrae.
Q4) The ________ joints have no joint cavity and usually do not permit movement.Sutures between skull bones are this kind of joint.
Q5) Arthroscopic surgery is used to repair damage to the knee.What sorts of things can go wrong that can lead to damage in someone's knee?
Q6) Why would a tall woman be at less risk of osteoporosis than a short woman,yet both would be at higher risk than a man?
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Q1) Turkey is often served at Thanksgiving meals in which family members vie for portions of white or dark meat.Why is the breast meat of a turkey considered white meat,while the darker meat is found in the leg muscles?
Q2) A(n)________ is a motor neuron and all the muscle cells that it stimulates.
Q3) Which of these structures is part of a muscle cell's plasma membrane that delivers signals to the sarcomere?
A)myosin heads
B)actin fibers
C)endoplasmic reticulum
D)T-tubules
Q4) Which of these junctions represents the connection between the tip of a neuron and a skeletal muscle cell from which acetylcholine diffuses?
A)gap
B)tight
C)neuromuscular
D)desmosome
Q5) The muscle that extends and rotates the thigh when walking is called the
Q6) Why must muscles be arranged in pairs opposite to one another?
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Q1) Multiple sclerosis is a disease in which the myelin sheath is destroyed.What will happen to nerve conduction speed in affected neurons?
A)It will slow down dramatically.
B)It will speed up dramatically.
C)It will speed up just a little bit.
D)There will be no effect.
Q2) What is the function of the myelin sheath in the nervous system?
Q3) Inhaling or "huffing" is a way to achieve a high usually by breathing in a fat-soluble substance.Which of the following structures would be most likely attacked first?
A)myelin sheath
B)axon
C)neuron
D)dendrite
Q4) ________ refers to the jumping of a nerve impulse from one node of Ranvier to the next.
Q5) Compare and contrast the sensory,motor,and interneurons.
Q6) A(n)________ synaptic neuron releases neurotransmitters that act on the ________ synaptic neuron to start an action potential.
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Q1) Dr.Ling,the famous brain surgeon,removes a portion of the skull during surgery.Which of the meninges does she see first?
A)ventricle
B)pia mater
C)dura mater
D)arachnoid
Q2) Stress,relaxation,hunger,consuming the wrong foods,and too much or too little sleep can contribute to which of the following?
A)stroke
B)coma
C)headache
D)spinal cord injury
Q3) Tunde has started to forget where she puts things and often forgets the names of people she has just met.What part of her brain is most likely not performing properly,according to the information in the text?
A)prefrontal cortex
B)hippocampus
C)cerebrum
D)cerebellum
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Q1) Natasha has just been diagnosed as having a torn diaphragm.This confuses her since she knows her diaphragm is just above her abdomen while she feels the pain in her neck and upper arms.What she is experiencing is an example of ________.
A)piloerector pain
B)referred pain
C)pacinian pain
D)epigastritis
Q2) These receptors are able to detect changes in light intensity in the eye.
A)Sclera
B)Cataracts
C)Astigmatism
D)Umami
E)General senses
F)Mechanoreceptors
G)Photoreceptors
H)Chemoreceptors
I)Cochlea
J)Thermoreceptors
Q3) The ________ is a sheet of tissue that separates the outer ear from the middle ear.
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Q1) Gian-Carlo is going to have part of his adrenal cortex removed because of a tumor.After the surgery he may need ________.
A)melatonin and insulin
B)oxytocin
C)cortisol
D)calcitonin
Q2) This type of hormone characteristically requires a second messenger.
A)lipid-soluble
B)steroid
C)water-soluble
D)prostaglandin
Q3) Eating a lot of shrimp would tend to decrease the incidence of which of the following conditions?
A)simple goiter
B)Grave's disease
C)SAD
D)myxedema
Q4) When the result of two hormones working at the same time is greater than that of either alone,we say that they work ________.
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Q1) Clots are dissolved by an enzyme called ________ after the wound has healed.
Q2) TPA,or tissue plasminogen activator,is a compound sometimes given to a person suffering from a heart attack.Why would a compound that apparently activates plasminogen be useful in treating a heart attack?
Q3) Which of these white blood cells gives rise to plasma cells,which can then produce antibodies?
A)T lymphocytes
B)monocytes
C)eosinophils
D)B lymphocytes
Q4) The liquid portion of the blood that consists of about 55% of the total volume of blood is referred to as ________.
A)stem cells
B)distilled water
C)plasma
D)platelets
Q5) White blood cells are different from red blood cells because mature red blood cells lack a (an)________.
Q6) ________ is the process whereby cells engulf pathogens and foreign substances.
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Q1) Which of these is the most correct sequence of signals?
A)SA node > Purkinje fibers > AV node > AV bundle > walls of the ventricle
B)SA node > AV bundle > AV node > ST segment > Purkinje fibers
C)SA node > AV bundle > AV node > ST segment
D)SA node > AV node > AV bundle > Purkinje fibers > walls of the ventricle
Q2) Veins that carry oxygenated blood from the lungs to the heart.
A)Veins
B)Thymus
C)Tonsils
D)Jugular veins
E)Circulatory
F)Aorta
G)Capillaries
H)Exercise
I)Pulmonary veins
J)Spleen
Q3) If the connective tissue in the ventricles,called ________,give way,blood may go backwards through the AV valves:
Q4) The tempo of the heartbeat is set by a cluster of specialized cardiac muscle cells called the ________.
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Q1) An example of a(n)________ barrier is lysozyme found in tears and saliva.
Q2) Which of the following is capable of resetting the thermostat of the body to cause a fever?
A)antigen
B)perforin
C)complement
D)pyrogen
Q3) If all of these hair-like structures,called ________,in respiratory passages suddenly stopped working,a person would probably have more respiratory infections.
Q4) ________ are molecules that signal to the immune system that particular cells belong to a host.
Q5) A (n)________ is an overreaction by the immune system to an antigen.
Q6) The eye is a warm,moist environment favored by many harmful bacteria.Nevertheless,eye infections are relatively rare.Why is this?
A)The enzyme tearase inhibits bacterial growth.
B)Tears contain the antibacterial enzyme lysozyme.
C)The eyes are constantly exposed to UV light, which inhibits bacterial growth.
D)Antibodies, particularly IgM, are secreted in abundance in the tears.
Q7) ________ are organisms capable of invading the body and causing disease.
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Q1) These muscles contract to help inflate the lungs by moving the ribs.
A)Intercostal muscles
B)Cartilage rings
C)Diaphragm
D)Alveoli
E)Expiratory reserve
F)Trachea
G)Inspiratory reserve
H)Pharynx
I)Sinuses
J)Bronchioles
Q2) Which of the following is a thin-walled,rounded chamber surrounded by a vast network of capillaries?
A)surfactant
B)alveolus
C)diaphragm
D)glottis
Q3) Why is the tuberculosis bacterium so hard to treat and destroy in the body?
Q4) The breathing center is located in the ________ of the brain and is responsible for the basic breathing rhythm.
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Q1) If a person were unable to produce much of this substance,the gastric juices might destroy the stomach lining.
A)chyme
B)HCl
C)mucus
D)pepsin
Q2) A person with frequent heartburn is more likely to eventually develop this condition than others.
A)Gallbladder
B)Appendix
C)Stomach
D)Rectum
E)Esophageal cancer
F)Large intestine
G)Mouth
H)Cirrhosis
I)Small intestine
J)Salivary glands
Q3) The ________ contains beneficial bacteria that synthesize vitamin K and some of the B vitamins.
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Q1) A patient has a tumor that causes her to secrete an excess amount of antidiuretic hormone (ADH).You would expect that the excessive level of ADH will ultimately cause
A)decreased blood pressure
B)increased blood pressure
C)an increase in urine volume
D)increased ventilation rate
Q2) An abrupt cessation of kidney function is called ________.
A)chronic renal failure
B)pyelonephritis
C)cystitis
D)acute renal failure
Q3) A portion of the renal tubule that resembles a hairpin turn that may have short loops or long loops is called the ________.
Q4) A 30-year-old female complains of frequent and painful urination.A urinalysis is performed and the results indicate the presence of bacteria in the urine.What problem does this woman have? From an anatomical perspective,explain to the patient why she is more likely to suffer from this disorder than her husband.What sort of treatment would be appropriate?
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Q1) A region located at the tip of the penis that has a high concentration of nerves for sexual arousal.
A)Prostate gland
B)Oviduct
C)Penis
D)Glans penis
E)Ovaries
F)Endometrium
G)Vas deferens
H)Cervix
I)Uterus
J)Seminal vesicle
K)Vagina
L)Testis
Q2) Which sterilization technique involves cutting the vas deferens on each side to prevent sperm from leaving the body?
A)hysterectomy
B)tubal ligation
C)vasectomy
D)testicular deactivation
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Q1) When your mother is mad at you she likes to remind you that she spent 48 hours in painful labor to bring you into the world! Specifically,she means that she spent a long time in the ________ stage of labor.
A)expulsion
B)dilation
C)third trimester
D)placental
Q2) The ________ is a group of cells that will develop into the chorion.
Q3) A(n)________ occurs when the blastocyst implants outside the uterus.
Q4) Normally,fertilization occurs in the ________ and implantation occurs in the ________.
A)vagina; uterus
B)uterus; ovary
C)fallopian tube (oviduct); uterus
D)ovary; fallopian tube (oviduct)
Q5) The period that begins at week 9 of development is the ________.
Q6) ________ is the primary germ layer that forms the nervous system and the outer layer of skin and its derivatives such as hair,nails,oil glands,sweat glands,and mammary glands.
Q7) The ________ develops where the vertebral column will later form.
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Q1) A phase in the mitotic division in which a nuclear membrane forms around each group of chromosomes at the two poles.
A)Interphase
B)Telophase
C)Cytokinesis
D)Haploid
E)Metaphase
F)Gene
G)Anaphase
H)Crossing over
I)Anaphase I
Q2) Oogenesis is completed at ________.
Q3) In which phase of meiosis I do homologues separate?
A)prophase II
B)anaphase
C)metaphase I
D)anaphase I
Q4) Each cell contains two chromosomes with genes for the same traits; these chromosomes are called ________.
Q5) Compare and contrast the processes of oogenesis and spermatogenesis.
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Q1) Why is Duchenne muscular dystrophy less common in females than males?
Q2) If two chromosomes have the same genes,they are said to be ________.
A)autosomal
B)polypeptides
C)homologues
D)traits
Q3) Duffy factor is due to a chemical that occurs on the membranes of red blood cells and is sometimes used as a blood-typing attribute in the same way that ABO and Rh factor blood types are used.Recent research has found that people with Duffy factor are about 40% less likely to be infected with HIV,given similar circumstances.Since HIV affects white blood cells,how would you characterize the Duffy factor gene and why?
Q4) The gene for Tay-Sachs disease codes for a nonfunctional form of the enzyme hexosaminidase A (or Hex A). It has been found that a person with only one-third the maximum amount of Hex A can function absolutely normally. Please characterize the heredity of Tay-Sachs disease.
A)codominant
B)recessive
C)dominant
D)multiple allelic
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Q1) In which part of the molecule does tRNA pair with mRNA?
A)rRNA
B)codon
C)anticodon
D)gene
Q2) Some t-RNA often contains sections of non-complimentary,unusual bases (i.e.,other than U,C,A,andG)which are added after transcription.What area of the t-RNA would never contain such odd bases in a living organism?
Q3) The genetic code only works because each codon is read in a specific manner that results in the correct amino acid being placed in that particular spot.What physically places each amino acid by matching up the correct codon?
A)tRNA
B)mRNA
C)DNA
D)rRNA
Q4) The ________ is used to convert the linear sequences of bases in DNA to the sequence of amino acids in proteins.
Q5) Changes in the DNA are called ________.
Q6) The end product of transcription is the production of a(n)________.
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Q1) What factors contribute to genetic variation in populations?
Q2) This living animal is most likely to share the most diseases with humans,given that the more closely related two things are,the more likely they are to suffer from the same infectious diseases.
A)Latin binomial
B)Homo erectus
C)Chimpanzees
D)Neanderthals
E)Australopithecus africanus
F)Astragalus
G)Convergent evolution
H)Ardipithecus ramidus
I)Founder effect
J)Homo habilis
Q3) A difference in appearance between males and females in a species is called ________.
Q4) What anatomical features help primates to live in trees?
Q5) Genetic drift that occurs in small,new colonies is called ________.
Q6) The order of mammals to which humans belong is the ________.
Q7) Explain the basic ideas of natural selection proposed by Charles Darwin.
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Q1) The shaggy-mane mushroom lives beneath broadleaf forest trees and aids in decomposition of forest litter.You have just learned something about what specific type of ecological information concerning this fungus?
A)the biosphere
B)the population dynamics
C)the niche
D)the phosphorus cycle
Q2) PCBs were frequently used in electrical transformers.A young man digs in an abandoned industrial site,finding old transformers,and sells the copper wire from them to a scrap yard.What health problems might the young man have in the future?
Q3) A certain species of flea only drinks the blood of elephants.How would you best describe this flea's trophic level?
A)producer
B)primary consumer
C)secondary consumer
D)decomposer
Q4) Two human activities,burning fossil fuels and ________,are important causes of the increase in atmospheric carbon dioxide.
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Q1) If the age structure of a country shows a large base and a tapering shape,we would guess that the population of this country will ________.
A)stay the same as it is now
B)decline in numbers
C)increase in numbers
D)We cannot predict population change using age structure.
Q2) In which area would significant water conservation have the greatest impact?
A)power plant cooling
B)agriculture
C)the home
D)car washes
Q3) The increase and decrease of individuals in a population around the carrying capacity in response to resource availability and other environmental factors is known as which growth pattern?
A)exponential growth
B)logistic growth
C)zero growth
D)death rate
Q4) In ________ countries the doubling time is often small.
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Q1) The agency responsible for the safety of drinking water is the ________.
A)U.S. Environmental Protection Agency
B)U.S. Food and Drug Administration
C)Food Safety and Inspection Service
D)Centers for Disease Control and Prevention
Q2) Food poisoning is the correct term to describe a gastrointestinal illness caused by ________.
A)viruses
B)chemicals
C)bacteria
D)All of the above are true.
Q3) Your roommate has developed symptoms of food infection.In trying to determine the cause of her infection,she remembers that she has eaten a variety of home-canned foods.What type of infection is she most likely to have?
A)Cryptosporidium
B)Salmonellosis
C)Botulism
D)Campylobacteriosis
Q4) Explain three things you can do at home to prevent foodborne illness.
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Q1) If a person uses Percocet,a morphine relative,to which of these drugs might that person develop cross-tolerance?
A)ecstasy
B)cocaine
C)heroin
D)marijuana
Q2) Vasily thinks that drinking alcohol heightens his alertness and awareness of his surroundings and that he is a better driver after drinking several beers.Persuade him otherwise.
Q3) A psychoactive drug that delays the removal of a neurotransmitter from the synapse will ________.
A)dampen the response of the receiving neuron
B)prolong the effect of the neurotransmitter on the receiving neuron
C)prevent the neurotransmitter from working
D)bind to the receptor and affect the receiving neuron in the same way as the neurotransmitter
Q4) Mattie thinks she should use nicotine patches because they are safe.How can you convince her otherwise given the information in this chapter?
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Q1) Shabir has been diagnosed with diabetes mellitus type 2 and will have his blood tested within the next 2 weeks.He has been warned by his physician to stay on a specific diet but he loves desserts that are not on his recommended treatment plan.You see him eating a huge piece of birthday cake,and when questioned,he says that his doctor will never know because he will fast for a few days before his blood glucose test and fool the physician.What blood test might the physician order to detect Shabir's deception?
A)hemoglobin A1c
B)white blood cell count
C)HDL
D)electrolytes
Q2) Which of the following is recommended for diabetes mellitus patients?
A)smoking
B)binge drinking
C)inactivity
D)controlling stress
Q3) Saito has diabetes mellitus type 1 and requires frequent insulin injections.He would much prefer to swallow pills instead of giving himself injections.Explain to him why this is not possible.What other option does he have besides an injection or an insulin pen?
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Q1) During the summer of 2010,there were very large forest fires in Western Russia.The cloud spread at some point over 1,000 miles (approximately 1600 km),enveloping a number of cities.The smoke was thicker than any you would see in a tobacco store! Based on the information in this chapter alone,why do you think the daily death rate due to heart disease in Moscow doubled during that time?
Q2) Viagra® works by dilating the arteries to the penis and other parts of the body.Why shouldn't a person use nitroglycerin at the same time that they are using Viagra®?
Q3) In which of these patients might Dr.Singh most appropriately prescribe a diuretic? The numbers represent their blood pressures.
A)6/66
B)20/80
C)25/75
D)60/90
Q4) In terms of public health,the major lethal effect of smoking is ________.
A)lung cancer
B)oral-facial cancer
C)peptic ulcers
D)cardiovascular disease
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Q1) Infectious proteins that are heat-resistant and that cannot be destroyed by ultraviolet light or most chemicals are known as ________.
Q2) ________ are disease-causing organisms that invade a person's body.
Q3) Product recalls on frozen hamburger are not uncommon during any given year.The meat packing industry can experience problems when processing centers accidentally introduce this fecal bacterium into ground meat.What organism is commonly found to be the culprit?
A)Clostridium
B)E. coli
C)Streptococcus
D)Staphylococcus
Q4) A disease or condition with clinically distinct symptoms,whose incidence has increased,especially in the past two decades,is called ________.
A)emerging
B)reemerging
C)infectious
D)declining
Q5) A (n)________ is a global outbreak of disease.
Q6) A(n)________ is an animal that carries a disease from one host to another.
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/29108
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Q1) Oat fiber will to some extent block lipid uptake by the digestive system.Which of the following conditions would potentially be more likely in a person eating large amounts of oat fiber?
A)night blindness and xerophthalmia
B)scurvy and poor wound healing
C)pellagra
D)fatigue, numbness, and tingling in the hands and feet
Q2) If a certain brand of daily vitamin were to contain 600% of the minimum daily requirement of riboflavin,what risks would there be to those who take that brand?
A)liver damage
B)none known
C)scurvy
D)rickets
Q3) According to the chapter,a person might prevent atherosclerosis by following these dietary guidelines.
Q4) According to the contents listed on the box of a certain brand of cereal,it contains 19 grams of carbohydrates but claims that no sugar is present.How is this possible?
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/29109
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Q1) Which statement is false concerning STDs?
A)Bacterial STDs can be treated with antibiotics.
B)Permanent infertility can be the result of an untreated STD.
C)STDs are routinely tested for during all physical examinations.
D)Most viral STDs can never be eliminated from the body.
Q2) Concerning HIV,which of these statements is false?
A)HIV is a retrovirus.
B)HIV proofreads when copying its genetic material so mistakes are not made.
C)HIV must interact with a receptor on the host to infect it.
D)HIV utilizes the enzyme reverse transcriptase to copy its RNA to DNA.
Q3) Select two classes of HIV drugs and fully explain how they work.Can they cure HIV?
Q4) Which is the most reliable method for preventing both pregnancy and contraction of a sexually transmitted disease?
A)a condom
B)abstinence
C)sterilization
D)a diaphragm
Q5) Why is a male more likely than a female to seek treatment for chlamydia and gonorrhea?
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/29110
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Q1) Children who have an ASD in which they can speak at length about their favorite topics would be diagnosed with ________.
A)autism
B)Asperger syndrome
C)PDD-NOS
D)fragile X syndrome
Q2) The most reliable diagnostic tool for autism spectrum disorders is ________.
A)neuroimaging
B)observation
C)genetic testing
D)the use of screening tests
Q3) Which of these statements concerning autism spectrum disorders (ASDs)is false?
A)ASDs affect girls more frequently than boys.
B)Symptoms typically appear by 1-3 years old.
C)They last a lifetime.
D)They can be associated with other medical conditions.
Q4) Explain the two main types of studies that showed the genetic basis of ASDs.
Q5) What therapies can be used for those with ASDs?
Q6) Explain the diagnostic criteria and symptoms used to distinguish between autism and Asperger syndrome.
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/29111
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Q1) Stem cell lines are developed from ________.
A)multipotent cells
B)inner cell mass cells from a blastocyst
C)cells collected from umbilical cords
D)cells collected from amniotic fluid
Q2) Which of the following areas is not known to contain stem cells?
A)the skin
B)bone marrow
C)the umbilical cord
D)muscle
Q3) Before stem cell research was such a prominent topic in the news,many people were misinformed about embryonic stem cell research.Many people thought that this form of stem cell research could only be completed by collecting stem cells from electively aborted fetuses.Explain specifically where embryonic stem cells come from when used for research and why these cells would not typically be found in aborted fetuses.
Q4) As stem cell research rapidly developed,it became a political and ethical issue.Describe how the ethical and political approach towards stem cell research has changed in the past decade.
Q5) Explain how a stem cell line would be developed.
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Q1) Certain new cancer therapies deal with the inhibition of angiogenesis (formation of blood vessels).How would inhibition of blood vessel formation be beneficial in terms of treating cancer?
Q2) Which type of cancer had the largest percentage of deaths among women in 2009?
A)breast
B)ovarian
C)pancreatic
D)lung and bronchus
Q3) How does chemotherapy work as a treatment for cancer? Why is it not always effective?
Q4) Which statement is not correct concerning cell division and cancer?
A)Normal cells are limited in how many times they can divide.
B)Cancerous cells can become immortal.
C)Oncogenes protect against cancer.
D)Apoptosis can be used to kill cancerous cells in the body.
Q5) ________ is a treatment method in which rapidly dividing cells are killed using drugs instead of radiation.
Q6) The removal and analysis of a piece of tissue that is suspected to be cancerous is called a(n)________.
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