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This course explores the complex factors that shape human behavior, drawing from foundational theories in psychology, sociology, and anthropology. Students examine the biological, cognitive, emotional, and social influences that guide individual and group actions. Topics include personality development, motivation, socialization, perception, learning, and the impact of culture and environment on behavior. Through case studies, discussions, and research reviews, the course encourages critical analysis of why people behave the way they do and how understanding human behavior can inform decision-making in personal, professional, and societal contexts.
Recommended Textbook
Psychology Themes and Variations 3rd Canadian by Dr. Wayne Weiten
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Sample Questions
Q1) Imagine that you have been asked to speak to a group of Grade 10 students who have signed up for a study skills seminar offered by a local youth group. Based on the information provided in the Personal Application, what are ten concrete points that you would make in your presentation?
Answer: Good answers to this question should include positive advice (such as setting up a study schedule, rewarding studying, and regular classroom attendance), and some "myth clarification" (such as "never changing answers on multiple-choice tests").
Q2) Mariska is participating in a study in which she is asked to carefully observe and report her conscious reactions to several stimuli. Which type of psychologist is most likely to conduct a study like this?
A)structuralist
B)humanist
C)behaviourist
D)psychoanalytic
Answer: A
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Q1) Which of the following seems to be true about the skills and attitudes involved in critical thinking?
A)They naturally develop during early adulthood.
B)They develop only in individuals trained in scientific disciplines.
C)They need to be specifically taught to individuals.
D)They naturally develop during adolescence.
Answer: C
Q2) How did Wilhelm Wundt define psychology?
A)the scientific study of the unconscious
B)the scientific study of conscious experience
C)the scientific study of behaviour
D)the scientific study of the brain
Answer: B
Q3) Which of your text's unifying themes is reflected in the fact that people sometimes see what they either "want to see" or "expect to see"?
A)Heredity and environment jointly influence behaviour.
B)People's experience of the world is highly subjective.
C)Behaviour is shaped by cultural heritage.
D)People's experience of the world is empirical.
Answer: B
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Q1) You are sitting on a park bench in a major metropolitan area from 7 a.m. to 7 p.m. and you note the number of people who walk by, whether or not they litter, and their sex. What type of research method are you are engaging in?
A)naturalistic observation
B)case study research
C)experimental research
D)casual observation
Answer: A
Q2) What do we call statistics that are used to interpret data and draw conclusions?
A)significant
B)descriptive
C)numerical
D)inferential
Answer: D
Q3) Which of the following sets of concepts is NOT a closely related set?
A)correlation, sample, journal
B)method, results, discussion
C)experiment, independent variable, control group
D)mean, median, mode
Answer: A
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the Featured Study by Dutton & Aron, the authors hypothesized that an attractive female (who was a research confederate) would be perceived as more attractive by males on "fear-arousing" bridge, than by males on a "control" bridge. Further, if a man crossed the "fear-arousing" bridge prior to meeting a female, he would be more likely to phoned her later. In this study, what is the independent variable?
A)whether the male subjects phoned the female confederate
B)whether a male subject crossed a bridge, or not
C)the 'fear-arousing' bridge
D)the baseline attractiveness of the female confederate
Q2) Which of the following is a research strategy that minimizes the potential methodological problems associated with the placebo effect and experimenter bias?
A)blind sample procedure
B)single blind procedure
C)neutral sample procedure
D)double blind procedure
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Q1) Which of the following comparison groups has a significant similarity with adopted children, based on research on adopted children and intelligence?
A)their biological parents
B)both sets of parents
C)their adoptive parents
D)neither set of parents
Q2) When Trevor feels the pain in his right leg, what area of the brain responds to this sensation?
A)left parietal lobe
B)right temporal lobe
C)left frontal lobe
D)right prefrontal cortex
Q3) Vivian has been experiencing unexplained flashes of light and colour, even when her eyes are closed. She recently saw a neurologist who located a small brain tumour. Where is Vivian's tumour likely to be located?
A)right frontal lobe
B)temporal lobe
C)occipital lobe
D)left parietal lobe
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Q1) Which aspect of fitness is related to your text's example of an adaptive "stotting" behaviour in Thomson's gazelles?
A)the nurturing of offspring
B)feeding behaviour
C)the avoidance of predators
D)the selection of potential mates by females
Q2) If a person's hippocampus is damaged, what would become difficult for that person?
A)controlling her response to pleasurable stimuli
B)vision and hearing
C)controlling her food intake
D)remembering
Q3) Which term best describes the process by which neural impulses are transmitted through the nervous system?
A)chemical
B)electrical
C)biological
D)electrochemical
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Q1) Which of the following brain areas is critical when Darcy reaches out for her water glass?
A)dorsal stream
B)primary visual cortex
C)periaqueductal gray
D)temporal lobe
Q2) What differs in the visual perception of a human dichromat and a human trichromat?
A)colour vision
B)general acuity
C)night vision
D)peripheral vision
Q3) What is the range of human hearing?
A)5 to 50 Hz
B)10 to 100 Hz
C)20 to 20,000 Hz
D)10,000 to 100,000 Hz
Q4) Using appropriate examples, show how perceptual experiences can be subjective.
Q5) Use appropriate examples from everyday situations to illustrate the basic concepts from signal-detection theory.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which structure of the eye focuses light rays onto the retina?
A)pupil
B)optic disk
C)cornea
D)lens
Q2) Which structure of the eye changes size in order to help regulate the amount of light entering the inner areas of the eye?
A)retina
B)pupil
C)lens
D)cornea
Q3) Which aspect of vision is not associated with the action of cones?
A)daytime vision
B)peripheral vision
C)high visual acuity
D)colour vision
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which EEG brain-wave patterns are found in stage 1 sleep?
A)theta
B)REM
C)synchronisitic
D)alpha
Q2) Renaude is hooked up to an electroencephalograph (EEG) in a sleep lab. As the researcher watches the printout from the EEG, sleep spindles begin to appear. What can the researcher conclude about Renaude's state of consciousness, based on this information?
A)She has just entered stage 2 sleep.
B)She is currently in REM sleep.
C)She has just entered stage 1 sleep.
D)She is still awake, but is relaxed and drowsy.
Q3) Javier has just taken a drug. He finds that his perceptions are altered and he feels like his sensory awareness has increased. Which of the following drugs has he most likely taken?
A)heroin
B)mescaline
C)barbiturates
D)alcohol
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Q1) Which of the following is true of the treatments that Erick and Pauline have chosen?
A)Meditation will have no real effects, and drug treatment will make things only worse.
B)Both treatments may be effective in the short term, but meditation is most likely to have a longer-term effect.
C)Neither treatment will be effective at first, but both will have cumulative effects if Erick and Pauline stick with them.
D)Meditation will have good short-term effects, but drug treatment will have a lasting effect.
Q2) Which of the following best reflects the term "insomnia"?
A)chronic problems in getting adequate sleep
B)chronic difficulties in remaining asleep
C)chronic difficulties in falling asleep
D)occasional problems in getting adequate sleep
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Q1) Provide specific, everyday examples (for instance, from child-rearing) of the following operant-conditioning phenomena: positive reinforcement, negative reinforcement, and punishment.
Q2) How are new conditioned responses created in higher-order conditioning?
A)They are built on the foundation of innate unconditioned responses.
B)They are conditioned by repeatedly pairing them with discriminative stimuli.
C)They are facilitated by sensory adaptation.
D)They are built on the foundation of previously established conditioned responses.
Q3) What is the initial stage of learning a response called?
A)acquisition
B)contiguity
C)conditioning
D)extinction
Q4) Which of the following is likely true about a long delay between a response and its reinforcer?
A)The long delay allows time for a complex stimulus to be processed.
B)The reinforcer becomes more salient, and thus more effective.
C)Conditioning proceeds more slowly.
D)It becomes more likely that stimulus generalization will occur.
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Q1) According to the cognitive explanation of classical conditioning, what is true of a "good" CS?
A)It accurately predicts the presentation of the UCS.
B)It is presented immediately after the UCS.
C)It has been paired with the UCS many times.
D)It is novel or intense.
Q2) When Jeff compliments Marnie, she sometimes gives him a big kiss. What is this pattern of reinforcement called?
A)primary reinforcement
B)continuous reinforcement
C)secondary reinforcement
D)intermittent reinforcement
Q3) What is a schedule of reinforcement?
A)a description of whether positive or negative reinforcement is in use
B)a specific pattern of presentation of reinforcers over time
C)a pattern of resistance to extinction
D)the reinforcement of closer and closer approximation of a desired response
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Q1) Sometimes when you think about a word, it triggers your recall of related words. What is this tendency called?
A)conceptual hierarchy response
B)elaborative rehearsal
C)spreading activation in a semantic network
D)clustering
Q2) Hugh is studying for his geography test. He is in a hurry, so he focuses on the main points of the text and skips all of the examples that the authors provide to illustrate each main point. Which of the following is true for this case?
A)Hugh is using an efficient study strategy, because examples often cause students to become confused about key issues.
B)Hugh's strategy is ineffective and he will probably not retain many of the main ideas that he reads.
C)Hugh is chunking to create fewer storage units, and this should aid his later recall of the information.
D)Hugh is using deep processing, which should produce a very durable memory for the material.
Q3) Outline some strategies that can be used to improve everyday memory.
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Q1) On your way to your psychology class, you pass a newsstand where a tabloid headline reads "Brazen Starlet Seduces Pop Star." When you get to class, your professor is doing a demonstration about memory and asks you to complete a series of word stems. Although most of your class completes the stem br____ with "bread" or "broke," you complete it as "brazen." You don't actually recall reading that word, and you're not sure why it popped into your mind. What does this example illustrate?
A)implicit memory
B)declarative memory
C)explicit memory
D)procedural memory
Q2) Joseph can't recall his old phone number now that he has learned his new phone number. What leads to this type of forgetting?
A)proactive interference
B)negative interference
C)retroactive interference
D)positive interference
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Sample Questions
Q1) You and your friend just met a woman at the bookstore, and she recommended a very good book to you. You guess, based on her appearance and demeanor, that she is a teacher. Your friend suggests that she is a teacher and also a writer. What should you think about your friend's suggestion?
A)Your friend has used an availability heuristic to decide that the woman must be a writer as well as a teacher.
B)It's a very good idea, because being a teacher increases the likelihood that she is also a writer.
C)Your friend has used the conjunction fallacy, assuming that the odds of two events occurring together are more likely that the odds of either event happening alone.
D)Your friend has just used the representativeness heuristic to arrive at a conclusion.
Q2) At about what age do babies start babbling?
A)birth
B)1 month
C)3 months
D)6 months
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Questions
Q1) Darcy enjoys a day at the racetrack and doesn't really care if she ends up with a little more or little less money at the end of the day. What most likely influences Darcy's decision to go to the racetrack?
A)expected value
B)subjective utility
C)unexpected value
D)objective utility
Q2) If you are asked to come up with one word that is typically paired with taxi, screw and cattle (the answer is 'driver'), what sort of problem are you solving?
A)problems of probability
B)problems of inducing structure
C)problems of transformation
D)problems of arrangement
Q3) What is the system of rules that specifies how words can be arranged into sentences in a language?
A)semantics
B)symbolic structure
C)morpheme structure
D)syntax
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Sample Questions
Q1) Eli works at an advertising agency and he is one of the first people they call in when they are brainstorming for a new campaign. He has the unique ability to generate hundreds of creative suggestions that no one else seems to think of. What is Eli is skilled in?
A)convergent thinking
B)transformational logic
C)field dependence
D)divergent thinking
Q2) In the first half of the 20th century, a strong current of racial and class prejudice supported the idea that IQ tests measured innate ability and that "undesirable" groups scored poorly because of their genetic inferiority. Which of the following themes of your text does this development best reflect?
A)Psychology evolves in a sociocultural context.
B)Behaviour is determined by multiple causes.
C)Psychology is theoretically diverse.
D)Psychology is empirical.
Q3) In what ways do you think sociohistorical context may have influenced the investigation of creativity?
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Q1) What are test norms?
A)information about where a score on a test ranks in relation to other scores
B)the measurement consistency of a test
C)the percentage of people who score at or below the score one has obtained
D)uniform procedures used in the administration and scoring of a test
Q2) In the Featured Study concerning racial stereotypes and test performance, when students believed a test analyzed problem-solving strategies, what happened to the performance of African-American students?
A)It was similar to the performance of white students.
B)It was significantly higher than the performance of white male students.
C)It was significantly lower than the performance of white students.
D)It was significantly lower than the performance of white female students.
Q3) Which group should you study in order to get the best evidence about the role of genetic factors in intelligence?
A)adopted children and their biological parents
B)children raised in poverty, and middle-class children
C)people born in different generations since the 1930s
D)identical and fraternal twins
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Q1) Compare and contrast sexual motivation with the basic motives of hunger and thirst. How well do the concepts of drive and homeostasis contribute to understanding sexual motivation?
Q2) Irene is listening to a romance novel on her MP3 player while she is on her daily walk. Although she is not walking especially fast, she finds that as she listens to one of the love scenes in the novel her respiration rate and heart rate increase. She is also experiencing vaginal moistness. Which phase is Irene experiencing based on the phases described by Masters and Johnson?
A)plateau
B)excitement
C)resolution
D)orgasmic
Q3) Evolutionary theorists propose that there are only a few innate primary emotions. What do they use to explain the great variety of emotions that people describe?
A)suppressing natural reactions to stimuli
B)forming new associations to original cues
C)blends of primary emotions and variations in intensity
D)learning new reactions later in life
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Q1) What are the two primary situational factors that influence achievement behaviour?
A)the incentive value of success and the individual's achievement motivation
B)the probability of success and probability of failure
C)the probability of success and the individual's achievement motivation
D)the probability of success and incentive value of success
Q2) Bob is overweight and a chronic dieter. According to the dietary restraint proposal, how is Bob likely to be characterized?
A)a restrained eater
B)a variable set-point individual
C)a fixed set-point individual
D)physically inactive
Q3) According to evolutionary theory, what is more valued in a potential mate by men, rather than women?
A)ambition
B)youthfulness
C)intelligence
D)social status
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Q1) Ten-year-old Sherry watches as you flatten one of two equal-sized balls of clay into a pancake. Sherry says they both still have the same amount of clay. What does Sherry understand?
A)seriation
B)hierarchical classification
C)conservation
D)inductive reasoning
Q2) At what age does an infant typically first exhibit separation anxiety?
A)one to two weeks
B)one to two months
C)around one year
D)six to eight months
Q3) Which of the following pieces of evidence supports a more modern understanding of maturation?
A)Even babies who are born deaf will babble.
B)Children who are carried everywhere will walk later than average.
C)Children who were born premature are at risk for a variety of cognitive difficulties.
D)Development follows a cephalocaudal trend.
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Q1) Which of the following statements is FALSE?
A)Females tend to be more sensitive to nonverbal communication than males.
B)Females tend to score higher on measures of visual-spatial abilities than males.
C)Males tend to exhibit slightly better mathematical abilities than females.
D)Females tend to exhibit slightly better verbal skills than males.
Q2) At which level of moral development do individuals tend to use a personal code of ethics to guide their moral reasoning and behaviour?
A)concrete
B)conventional
C)postconventional
D)preconventional
Q3) In order to determine whether a new teaching method is effective for children who struggle with math, you design a study where you implement the method with a group of 6-year olds, a group of 8-year olds, and a group of 10-year olds. What type of study is this?
A)naturalistic observation
B)longitudinal
C)experimental
D)cross-sectional
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Q1) How many personality traits did Raymond Cattell suggest that humans have?
A)5
B)10
C)16
D)27
Q2) When Patricia is overly nice to her coworker, what would Freud suggest is her defence mechanism?
A)repression
B)projection
C)reaction formation
D)rationalization
Q3) Rashad thinks of himself as an outgoing, sociable person. All his friends would agree; most of them think he is one of the most friendly, upbeat people they have ever met. Which of the following is true of Rashad, according to Carl Rogers?
A)He is high in self-monitoring.
B)He is high in self-efficacy.
C)He experiences congruence.
D)He experiences incongruence.
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Q1) If she is using the defence mechanism of projection, what would be true of a mother who actually hates her son?
A)She acts in an extremely critical way toward her son.
B)She believes that her son hates her.
C)She acts in an extremely loving way toward her son.
D)She hates her daughter.
Q2) Which personality test was originally designed to aid in the diagnosis of psychological disorders?
A)NEO Personality Inventory
B)Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory (MMPI)
C)The Sixteen Personality (16PF) Questionnaire
D)Thematic Apperception Test (TAT)
Q3) Which of the following levels appears in Kenrick's revision of Maslow's hierarchy of needs, but does not appear in the original version?
A)physiological needs
B)parenting needs
C)aesthetic needs
D)esteem needs
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Q1) What does Lacey snapping at her coworkers illustrate?
A)approach-avoidance conflict
B)avoidance-avoidance conflict
C)the coping mechanism known as aggression
D)the coping mechanism known as displacement
Q2) Marcy exhibits effective problem-focused coping and seeks the help of others when necessary. Which of the following terms best describes Marcy?
A)optimist
B)pessimist
C)Type A personality
D)Type B personality
Q3) Two blockbuster movies are opening on the same weekend, and Andrea is having trouble deciding which movie to see first. What type of conflict is Andrea experiencing?
A)risk-aversion
B)avoidance-avoidance
C)avoidance-approach
D)approach-approach
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Q1) Which situation illustrates typical effects of cumulative hassles?
A)A soldier develops PTSD after being involved in combat.
B)A teenager won't go to school because of constant bullying.
C)A man takes a leave of absence from work to undergo treatment for a chronic illness.
D)A woman becomes irritable and unproductive because of constant interruptions at work.
Q2) Which type of conflict tends to be most unpleasant and highly stressful?
A)approach-approach
B)attack-avoidance
C)approach-avoidance
D)avoidance-avoidance
Q3) James has an important job interview tomorrow morning and he obviously wants to do a good job of selling himself to the interviewer. What is James most likely experiencing?
A)conflict
B)pressure
C)change
D)frustration
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Q1) What was the greatest strength of the research methods, compared to many other studies about correlates of depression, in the Featured Study on negative thinking and depression?
A)It used a control group.
B)It used a prospective design.
C)It used participants who were not currently medicated.
D)It used a double-blind procedure.
Q2) Blair has gone in for a psychiatric assessment. She meets all the criteria for Major Depressive Disorder. Blair also tells the clinician that, just before her symptoms began, her husband moved out and she lost her job. Using the DSM-IV, where would these pieces of information be recorded?
A)Axis I and Axis II
B)Axis II and Axis X
C)Axis I and Axis IV
D)Axis II and Axis III
Q3) What is the category of disorders that includes autism?
A)psychotic disorders
B)pervasive developmental disorders
C)personality disorders
D)dissociative disorders
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Q1) Sean has difficulty making decisions, and when he finally makes a decision he worries about whether it was the right decision. He constantly worries about his courses, future, girlfriend, and getting a summer job. Recently Sean has had heart palpitations and muscular tension. Which of the following disorders are Sean's symptoms most consistent with??
A)obsessive-compulsive disorder
B)generalized anxiety disorder
C)panic disorder
D)hypochondriasis
Q2) What disorder seems to be more common among individuals who come from homes where discipline is erratic or ineffective and where they experienced physical abuse and neglect?
A)bipolar disorder
B)schizophrenia
C)borderline personality disorder
D)antisocial personality disorder
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Q1) What are the two most common problems among those who seek psychotherapy?
A)excessive anxiety and depression
B)loneliness and boredom
C)low self-esteem and irrational thinking
D)marital conflicts and a sense of emptiness
Q2) What was the basis for Carl Rogers's client-centred therapy?
A)behaviourist tradition
B)psychoanalytic tradition
C)humanistic tradition
D)cognitive tradition
Q3) What does cognitive therapy emphasize?
A)modifying maladaptive behaviours
B)reliving of traumatic childhood experiences
C)increasing the client's self-awareness and self-acceptance
D)recognizing and changing negative thought patterns
Q4) What is the most widely prescribed class of psychiatric drugs?
A)antidepressant drugs
B)antipsychotic drugs
C)antianxiety drugs
D)neuroleptics
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Q1) Critics suggest that the public is not fully aware of the negative effects of psychiatric drugs due to influence by the pharmaceutical industry. Which of the following areas is most problematic in terms of the industry's influence on our awareness of negative drug effects?
A)training of physicians who prescribe psychiatric drugs
B)marketing of psychiatric drugs
C)publicity concerning psychiatric drugs
D)publication of research concerning psychiatric drugs
Q2) Laura is encouraged by her therapist to talk about absolutely anything that comes to her mind. Over the course of each session as her train of thought wanders, she usually talks about a variety of topics. From time to time, her therapist comments on her statements. Which technique does this reflect?
A)free association
B)resistance
C)dream analysis
D)unconditional positive regard
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247 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Based on results of a study using functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI), when people are presented with photos of people from other races, what tends to occur?
A)the amygdala is activated, especially in those who hold racist views
B)cortical activity seems to be suppressed in most people
C)the frontal lobes are activated in older individuals
D)the hippocampus and visual cortex are more active than usual
Q2) Joe has been calling Jill each evening and talking with her every day at lunch, but now he is deeply despondent because she is out of town. Which type of love is Joe experiencing?
A)companionate
B)communal
C)passionate
D)sexual infatuation
Q3) Which of the following qualities will make the source of persuasive communication mostlikely to be perceived as credible?
A)redundancy
B)dissimilarity to the receiver
C)vested interest
D)trustworthiness
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT one of the major components of an attitude?
A)cognitive
B)affective
C)behavioural
D)perceptual
Q2) Milgram's research was criticized as being flawed because subjects in a psychology experiment generally expect to obey the requests of the researcher. Thus, critics said the results could not be generalized to the real world. How did Milgram respond to this criticism?
A)He admitted his procedure was flawed and his results were not relevant to the real world.
B)He argued that his research could be generalized to the real world since in the real world people also generally expect to obey the requests of others in positions of authority.
C)He admitted his procedure was flawed, but he still believed his results were relevant to the real world.
D)He argued that his research could be generalized to the real world since he employed a dependent variable.
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Q1) What is the term used to describe a distribution of scores that is not symmetrical and many scores pile up at the low end of the scale?
A)normal distribution
B)negatively skewed distribution
C)positively skewed distribution
D)significant distribution
Q2) What is a frequency polygon?
A)a line figure that presents data from a frequency distribution
B)a graph that represents a symmetrical or bell-shaped curve
C)a graph in which paired scores for each subject are plotted as single points
D)a bar graph that presents data from a frequency distribution
Q3) Which statistic tells you how much variability exists in a distribution of scores?
A)standard deviation
B)central tendency
C)frequency distribution
D)correlation coefficient
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Q1) According to your text, what are "essential skills"?
A)those that make it possible to learn all other needed skills
B)those that are synonymous with common sense
C)those developed as part of a university degree
D)basic programming and customer service abilities
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a key feature of organizational culture?
A)Culture develops through the need to maintain effective working relationships with employees.
B)An organization's culture can be traced to its founders.
C)Culture often develops out of an organization's experience with the external environment.
D)Organizations rely on teams rather than individuals to conduct daily affairs.
Q3) According to Pinder (1998), what is work motivation?
A)the cognitive focus on work that is a result of the perceived benefits achieved from work
B)the quality that is found in those individuals referred to as "self-starters"
C)factors that initiate work and determine the direction, intensity, and duration of work
D)the effort expended to meet job requirements (which may include additional training)
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Q1) How can you evaluate how "current" the information is on the website?
A)Because there is no good way to estimate how current the material is, you can't really be sure that the information you've accessed is up to date.
B)If there are any references that refer to articles published before 1990, the information is no longer useful.
C)Look for the date that the site was created, and how many "hits" it has received.
D)All links should be active, and there should be a range of references to current or recent publications.
Q2) Which of the following is NOT an important criterion when evaluating materials on the Internet?
A)Who is the publisher or sponsor of the website?
B)What is the quality of the online presentation?
C)How popular is the site, or how many "hits" has it received?
D)What is the identity and qualification of the author?
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