

Human Behavior
Exam Questions
Course Introduction
This course explores the multifaceted nature of human behavior from a psychological, biological, and social perspective. Students will examine the underlying factors that influence how individuals think, feel, and act in various contexts, including the roles of genetics, environment, learning, and culture. Emphasis is placed on theories of motivation, emotion, development, personality, cognition, and group dynamics. Through lectures, case studies, and interactive activities, students will gain a deeper understanding of why people behave as they do and how human behavior can be studied scientifically and applied across disciplines.
Recommended Textbook
Psychology Modules for Active Learning 13th Edition by Dennis Coon
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82 Chapters
14792 Verified Questions
14792 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/3631

Page 2

Chapter 1: Introduction
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220 Verified Questions
220 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Good test-taking strategies for multiple-choice tests include which of the following?
A)When you are forced to guess,you should choose the longest answer.
B)When you are forced to guess,choose the letter you've used the least.
C)Don't change your answers on a multiplechoice test.
D)Read rapidly and skip items you are unsure about and return to them later.
Answer: D
Q2) George has fallen short of his learning goals,so he adjusts how he budgets his time and changes his learning environment to deal with distractions.Regarding his learning,George has taken _______ action.
Answer: corrective
Q3) Marc tends to work only under pressure,skips classes,and gives false reasons for his late work.He often feels frustrated and ashamed of his last-minute efforts.According to your textbook,Marc most likely has a tendency to A)procrastinate.
B)be a self-regulated learner.
C)use spaced practice rather than massed practice.
D)overlearn the class material to the point of confusion.
Answer: A
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Chapter 2: How to Study Psychology
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218 Verified Questions
218 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Sofia is taking a test with questions that ask her to "compare and contrast" and to "analyze and evaluate." Sofia is taking a(n) ______ test.
Answer: essay
Q2) According to the authors of your textbook,which of the following would be considered a GOOD study strategy?
A)overlearning
B)recopying lecture notes
C)outlining Chapter s
D)group study sessions
Answer: A
Q3) In class,you relate the new information you learn regarding the cognitive development of young children to experiences that you had while babysitting.You are exhibiting
A)egocentrism.
B)transference.
C)self-projection.
D)self-reference.
Answer: D
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4
Chapter 3: Introducing Psychology: Psychology, Critical Thinking, and Science
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Sample Questions
Q1) The psychological goal of understanding behavior is achieved when
A)control over behavior is made possible.
B)a careful description of behavior is made.
C)psychologists can explain why a behavioral phenomenon occurs.
D)empirical evidence is obtained.
Answer: C
Q2) In order to permit scientific study,covert behaviors are
A)estimated.
B)not included in the analysis.
C)prevented from interfering with the experiment.
D)operationally defined in terms of overt behavior.
Answer: D
Q3) When people read their horoscopes,they often believe these flattering descriptions of themselves,a tendency referred to as
A)the Barnum effect.
B)astrologer's dilemma.
C)the confirmation bias.
D)uncritical acceptance.
Answer: D

Page 5
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Chapter 4: Introducing Psychology: Psychology Then and Now
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following psychologists wrote an influential book on animal behavior,titled The Animal Mind,and was also the first woman to be awarded a Ph.D.in psychology?
A)Margaret Washburn
B)Francis Sumner
C)Inez Beverly Prosser
D)Jane Goodall
Q2) Dr.Ables has constructed trait profiles of individuals who show success in school and on the job.Dr.Ables is most likely a ______ psychologist.
A)cognitive
B)learning
C)perception
D)personality
Q3) Which psychologist realized that he could study the overt behavior of animals by simply observing the relationship between stimuli and an animal's responses?
A)John B.Watson
B)Wilhelm Wundt
C)Abraham Maslow
D)Max Wertheimer

Page 6
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Chapter 5: Introducing Psychology: the Psychology Experiment
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Sample Questions
Q1) A study at the U.S.Air Force Academcy Preparatory School demonstrated that students' performances can be affected by teachers' expectations.These results are best explained by the fact that
A)studies in the field are more unpredictable than those in the laboratory.
B)naturalistic observation pointed out differences not controlled by a laboratory experiment.
C)the teachers subtly communicated their expectations to the students,which created a self-fulfilling prophecy.
D)the two groups were really not equal in their ability at the start of the experiment.
Q2) Sometimes a researcher subtly communicates his or her expectations to the subjects,who in turn make the prediction occur.This subtle communication by the researcher of his or her expectations is known as the __________ bias.
Q3) A simple experiment has two groups of subjects called the
A)dependent group and the independent group.
B)extraneous group and the independent group.
C)before group and the after group.
D)control group and the experimental group.
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Page 7

Chapter 6: Introducing Psychology: Non-Experimental
Research Methods
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Sample Questions
Q1) My cat knows when I am upset and comes and comforts me.In psychology this is an example of
A)psychological personification.
B)the observer effect.
C)the biopsychology effect.
D)the anthropomorphic error.
Q2) Each of the students in your American government class will be stopping people in the mall to ask them a series of ten questions regarding their voting preference in the upcoming election.Your government class is using the __________method.
Q3) Researchers conducting web-based research have trouble controlling who actually answers their on-line questionnaires,which places limits on their research due to the possibility of
A)researcher bias.
B)research participant bias.
C)biased samples.
D)the Barnum effect.
Q4) Regarding the strength of the relationship,a correlation coefficient of -.92 would indicate a _______ negative relationship.
Page 8
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Chapter 7: Psychology in Action: Thinking Critically About the Media
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Sample Questions
Q1) Psychic advisers promoted in TV commercials tend to make use of the human tendency to consider personal descriptions accurate if they are stated in general terms,which is called the
A)anthropomorphic error.
B)halo effect.
C)courtesy bias.
D)Barnum effect.
Q2) You meet a young lady who giggles after every sentence she says.You conclude that she is a very happy person,but you later find that her giggling is due to nervousness in meeting new people.This story suggests that it is important to distinguish between
A)individual cases and generalizations.
B)correlation and causation.
C)control groups and experimental groups.
D)observation and inference.
Q3) At least ten testimonials or case examples are required in order to validate the claim of a product or treatment.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 8: Brain and Behavior: Neurons and the Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The process by which nerve impulses conducted down the axons of neurons coated with myelin jump from gap to gap in the myelin layer is called a(n) _______ conduction.
Q2) Acetylcholine,norepinephrine,dopamine,and GABA are examples of A)neurotransmitters.
B)negative after-potentials.
C)synaptic ions.
D)neurilemmas.
Q3) The somatic system carries messages to and from the A)internal organs and glands.
B)parasympathetic system.
C)sense organs and skeletal muscles.
D)sympathetic system.
Q4) After a nerve impulse occurs,the neuron is temporarily less likely to fire because A)the cell is still above its resting level.
B)potassium ions flow out of the neuron while the membrane gates are open.
C)acetylcholine acts as an inhibitor.
D)a positive after-potential has occurred.
Q5) The cell body of a neuron is also called the _______.
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Chapter 9: Brain and Behavior: Brain Research
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Sample Questions
Q1) Scientists destroyed a tiny area of a cat's limbic system by inserting a tiny electrode into this target area and then passing an electric current through the electrode.The technique used is known as A)ESB.
B)neural induction.
C)deep lesioning.
D)FMRI.
Q2) Regarding the technology used to study the brain,which of the following statements is FALSE?
A)Both PET scans and functional MRIs provide images of activity throughout the brain.
B)Experimentally,fMRI images have been used to tell if a person is lying.
C)PET and fMRI brain scans show that most people use only 10 percent of their brain capacity.
D)Researchers are creating digital three-dimensional brain maps that show both brain structures and their accompanying psychological functions.
Q3) Describe how Daniel Langleben is using a brain scanning technique to detect lying.
Q4) Describe and compare the two main structural imaging techniques.
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Chapter 10: Brain and Behavior: Hemispheres and Lobes of the Cortex
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Sample Questions
Q1) Velishea has severe epileptic seizures that cannot be controlled by medication.Therefore,her doctor suggests that a surgery might help.The surgery would involve
A)cutting the corpus callosum.
B)removing the hippocampus.
C)stimulating the brain's pleasure centers.
D)severing the connection between the prefrontal lobe and the hypothalamus.
Q2) A person exhibiting spatial neglect will have difficulty
A)making speech sounds.
B)understanding speech.
C)moving their right leg and arm.
D)attending to one side of their visual field.
Q3) Successfully negotiating a maze,sculpting pottery,or painting a watercolor is a function of the
A)corpus callosum.
B)left hemisphere.
C)right hemisphere.
D)temporal lobe.
Q4) The increased size and wrinkling of the cerebral cortex in higher animals is referred to as _______.
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Chapter 11: Brain and Behavior: Sub-Cortex and Endocrine System
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167 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which hormone tends to arouse the body and is associated with fear?
A)melatonin
B)epinephrine
C)norepinephrine
D)estrogen
Q2) All of the following are problems associated with the pituitary gland,EXCEPT for A)acromegaly.
B)virilism.
C)dwarfism.
D)giantism.
Q3) At age 33,Kate Adamson had a stroke that caused catastrophic damage to her brainstem.She was totally paralyzed and barely able to breathe but was still fully awake and aware.Kate Adamson was experiencing what is known as A)Broca's aphasia.
B)spatial neglect.
C)locked-in syndrome.
D)neurogenic agnosia.
Q4) Sam has enlarged hands and feet with his larger facial bones creating very prominent facial features.Sam most likely has a condition known as _______.
Page 13
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Chapter 12: Psychology in Action: Handedness
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65 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Regarding handedness,which of the following statements is FALSE?
A)A small minority of lefties owe their hand preferences to birth traumas,such as prematurity,low birth weight,and breech birth.
B)Left-handed persons have a significantly lower incidence of allergies and learning disorders than right-handed persons.
C)People with mixed handedness may be at risk for more immune-related diseases than persons who are consistently left-handed.
D)Collectivist cultures where left-handedness is viewed as especially negative have about half the proportion of left-handed persons as individualist cultures.
Q2) Nic tends to gesture more with his right hand when he talks.Nic probably processes language
A)in his right hemisphere.
B)in his left hemisphere.
C)more inefficiently than if he gestured with his left hand.
D)in both hemispheres,since a majority of people do not have a dominant hemisphere for language processing.
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Chapter 13: Human Development: Heredity and Environment
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206 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) A child is born with low birth weight,a small head,facial malformations,and other bodily defects and has an added risk of developing emotional,behavioral,and mental disabilities.The child most likely has
A)albinism.
B)fetal alcohol syndrome.
C)cystic fibrosis.
D)congenital problems due to the mother's heavy marijuana use.
Q2) If you slam a door (making a loud noise),an infant is likely to be startled and show the _______ reflex.
Q3) Regarding teratogens and birth defects,which of the following statements is FALSE?
A)Radiation,lead,and pesticides are considered teratogens.
B)Cystic fibrosis,PKU,and hemophilia are considered teratogens.
C)Pregnant women do have direct control over many teratogens.
D)Repeated heavy drinking during pregnancy is the most common cause of birth defects in the United States.
Q4) Muscular control spreads in a developmental pattern from the center of the body to the extremities,according to the __________ pattern.
Page 15
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Chapter 14: Human Development: Emotional and Social Development in Childhood
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Sample Questions
Q1) In which ethnic culture do the parents act as home-based teachers who encourage hard work,moral behavior,and achievement;who teach their children that their behavior can bring either pride or shame to the family;and who encourage their children to set aside their own desires when the greater good of the family is at stake?
A)Asian-American
B)African-American
C)Hispanic
D)Arab-American
Q2) Research indicates that children in high-quality daycares tend to have better relationships with their mothers and fewer behavior problems.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A baby's emotional needs for love and trust are every bit as important as obvious needs for food,water,and physical care.These emotional needs of the infant are known as _______ needs.
Q4) Discuss early emotional development,including the age and order in which the emotions and the social smile emerge and the most common emotions expressed by infants,according to Bridges and Izard.
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Human Development: Language and Cognitive Development in Childhood
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Sample Questions
Q1) In talking to an infant,an adult may use exaggerated or musical voice inflections during a type of speech known as
A)semantic transformations.
B)phonetic prompting.
C)parentese or motherese.
D)syntactical expressions.
Q2) Which of the following methods was used by Baillargeon to test for the mental capacities of infants?
A)Infants reached out to touch new or unusual pictures.
B)Infants showed surprise at seeing an impossible event occur during a magic show.
C)Infants cried when confronted by a stranger.
D)Infants looked longer at colorful patterns than at black-and-white patterns.
Q3) Between the ages of seven and 15 years,children become increasingly adept at using language as the peak synaptic growth occurs in which areas of the brain?
A)thalamus and hypothalamus
B)temporal and parietal lobes
C)limbic system
D)occipital lobes and cerebellum
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Chapter 16: Human Development: Adolescence and
Adulthood
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Sample Questions
Q1) It is important for parents to allow toddlers to do things for themselves since overprotecting them or ridiculing their efforts may cause toddlers to lack confidence in their abilities and become overly dependent on their parents.These conflicts are part of Erikson's psychosocial stage known as
A)initiative versus guilt.
B)autonomy versus shame and doubt.
C)industry versus inferiority.
D)generativity versus stagnation.
Q2) Which of the following psychologists is known for developing a theory of moral development?
A)Lev Vygotsky
B)Erik Erikson
C)Lawrence Kohlberg
D)Harry Harlow
Q3) Jasmine does not copy other students' homework nor does she cheat on tests because she does not want to receive a zero on the homework or test.Jasmine is exhibiting Kohlberg's moral development level known as _____.
Q4) One cost of early maturation during adolescence is that it may force premature _____ formation.
Page 18
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Chapter 17: Psychology in Action: Well-Being and Happiness
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Sample Questions
Q1) According to psychologist Diener and his associates,subjective well-being occurs when people are generally satisfied with their lives and
A)have a great deal of financial wealth.
B)are relatively famous or recognized for their accomplishments.
C)have had few health issues throughout their lives.
D)have frequent positive emotions and few negative emotions.
Q2) Less educated people tend to be a little happier than the people who are more educated.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Regarding happiness and marital status,which of the following statements is FALSE?
A)Married people report greater happiness than separated or divorced people.
B)Single people report greater happiness than married people.
C)Happy people are more likely to get married and stay married.
D)Most people get a small boost in happiness immediately after getting married,but eventually return to about the same level of happiness they had before they were married.
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Page 19

Chapter 18: Sensation and Perception: Sensory Processes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Being able to focus on the traffic signals among all the neon signs and lights illustrates
A)sensory gating.
B)selective attention.
C)control biasing.
D)physiological nystagmus.
Q2) As you focus on your cell phone conversation while driving,you miss the road sign where you needed to make a turn and drive 20 miles out of the way.This is an example of A)psychokinesis.
B)inattentional blindness.
C)retinal disparity.
D)an apparent-distance illusion.
Q3) Describe the "seatofthepants phenomenon," "the cocktail party effect," and inattentional blindness,and explain how they are all related to the "bottleneck" of selective attention.
Q4) The type of sensation you experience depends on which brain area is activated with this process referred to as sensory __________.
Q5) Light sensations caused by pressure applied to the eye are referred to as _____.
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Chapter 19: Sensation and Perception: Vision
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Sample Questions
Q1) Bifocal lenses are used to correct
A)near vision.
B)distance vision.
C)presbyopia.
D)both near vision and distance vision.
Q2) Numbering about 120 million in each eye,which receptor cells allow us to see in dim light and are responsible for our seeing black and white images?
A)phosphenes
B)rods
C)cones
D)stereocilia
Q3) Like high-resolution digital sensors that are made of many small pixels,the tightly packed cones in which part of the eye produce the sharpest images?
A)iris
B)pupil
C)cornea
D)fovea
Q4) The "hole" in the retina where the optic nerve leaves the eye forms an area known as the _____.
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Chapter 20: Sensation and Perception: The Other Senses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Devices that have recently been invented to correct hearing loss caused by damage to the hair cells are called
A)Hunter's notches.
B)stimulation implants.
C)conduction patches.
D)cochlear implants.
Q2) Regarding conductive hearing losses,which of the following statements is FALSE?
A)Conductive losses can sometimes be overcome by the use of hearing aids.
B)Conductive losses may be caused by immobilization of the auditory ossicles.
C)Conductive losses may result from damage to the eardrum.
D)Conductive losses are often caused by listening to very loud sounds for a prolonged period of time.
Q3) The vestibular sense helps keep us from
A)eating too much.
B)starving to death.
C)being blinded by the sun.
D)falling over.
Q4) Explain how sound travels from the pinna to the auditory nerve and to the brain,naming each part of the ear and its function along the way.
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Chapter 21: Sensation and Perception: Perceptual
Processes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Brightness constancy occurs in part because
A)of failures in the visual system to deal with illumination changes.
B)the proportion of light an object reflects is constant.
C)brightness is a perceptual hypothesis.
D)of all of these.
Q2) Which of the following would most likely be tested using a visual cliff?
A)size constancy
B)figure-ground perception
C)depth perception
D)shape constancy
Q3) Even if you only have one eye,you would still be able to drive a car or ride a bicycle.The ability to still engage in tasks that require depth perception shows that A)most depth cues are monocular in nature.
B)stereoscopic vision is only slightly better for judging depth than is accommodation.
C)depth perception in a one-eyed individual is limited,not absent.
D)pictorial depth cues are even more important than other depth cues.
Q4) An initial guess regarding how to organize and perceive a stimulus pattern is known as a(n) _______.
Page 23
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Chapter 22: Sensation and Perception: Perception and Objectivity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Creative people habituate more slowly than average.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In a tilted mystery house at an amusement park,objects appear to roll uphill.This illusion is most likely caused by our
A)sensory adaptation.
B)sensory localization.
C)perceptual habits.
D)bottom-up processing.
Q3) Regarding eyewitness testimony,which of the following statements is TRUE?
A)Most victims do not have an adequate weapon focus.
B)Victims certain of their testimony are usually more accurate.
C)Eyewitness testimony is generally very accurate.
D)Perception rarely provides an instant replay of events.
Q4) The San bushmen,who live in a "round" culture,experience the MüllerLyer illusion in exactly the same way as Americans,who live in a "square" culture,experience it.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Describe five ways that one's perceptual accuracy can be enhanced.
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Chapter 23: Psychology in Action: Extrasensory Perception
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Sample Questions
Q1) The purported ability to communicate directly with another person's mind is called A)clairvoyance.
B)telepathy.
C)precognition.
D)psychokinesis.
Q2) Many of J.B.Rhine's ESP experiments made use of a deck of 25 cards,each bearing one of five symbols.These cards are known as __________ cards.
Q3) Events that seem to defy accepted scientific laws are known as _______.
Q4) You have been asked to play a "psychic" at the Halloween carnival at your son's school.A customer enters,and you begin by making general statements about this person.You would then expand on anything the person responds to in a positive way as shown by his or her facial expressions,body language,or tone of voice.The technique you are using is known as
A)cold reading.
B)mediumship.
C)clairvoyance interpretation.
D)dishabituation.
Q5) The purported ability to predict future events is called _______.
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Chapter 24: Consciousness: States of Consciousness
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Sample Questions
Q1) Mesmer's strange "treatments" are related to hypnosis because they actually relied on
A)animal magnetism.
B)a deep sleep or trance-like state of consciousness.
C)the power of suggestion.
D)intentional fraud and deception.
Q2) Whether a person can be hypnotized or not depends mainly on
A)the skill of the hypnotist.
B)the willingness of the person to be hypnotized.
C)the intelligence level of the person to be hypnotized.
D)how well the person and hypnotist can fake the "hypnosis."
Q3) Ben is walking through the desert with a quiet and receptive mind,so that he has lost all self-consciousness and is open to all aspects of his surroundings,such as the smell of the air and the feel of the sand beneath his feet and the sun on his face and arms.Ben is practicing
A)concentrative meditation.
B)mindfulness meditation.
C)self-hypnosis.
D)lucid dreaming.
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Page 26

Chapter 25: Consciousness: Sleep and Dreams
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Sample Questions
Q1) Sleep is characterized by all of the following EXCEPT for A)being an innate biological rhythm.
B)being necessary for life in humans.
C)giving way temporarily in times of great danger.
D)being a total loss of consciousness.
Q2) In Rhonda's dream,she was picking up sea shells on a beach.Rhonda's therapist interprets this dream as meaning that Rhonda is feeling a strong need to be protected and sheltered.This therapist's interpretation would be considered which type of content?
A)NREM
B)lucid
C)manifest
D)latent
Q3) Sleep spindles are short bursts of brain activity generated by the A)amygdala.
B)thalamus.
C)reticular formation.
D)corpus callosum.
Q4) Lowering body and brain activity and metabolism during sleep may help conserve energy and lengthen life,according to the _______ theories of sleep.
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Chapter 26: Consciousness: Psychoactive Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following drugs is NOT considered a narcotic?
A)GHB
B)codeine
C)heroin
D)oxycodone
Q2) The reduction in the body's response to a drug which may accompany drug use is called
A)withdrawal.
B)drug addiction.
C)psychological dependence.
D)drug tolerance.
Q3) Regarding alcohol and women,which of the following statements is FALSE?
A)Alcohol is absorbed slower and metabolized more quickly by women's bodies.
B)Women get intoxicated from less alcohol than men do.
C)Women who drink are more prone to liver disease,osteoporosis,and depression.
D)Each extra drink per day adds seven percent to a woman's risk of breast cancer.
Q4) Adderall and Ritalin,two popular "study drugs," that are used to treat attention deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD)are both mixtures of _______.
Q5) Marijuana,LSD,mescaline,and psilocybin are classified as _______.
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Chapter 27: Psychology in Action: Exploring and Using Dreams
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Sample Questions
Q1) Dr.Otto Loewi,a winner of a Nobel prize,dreamed the same dream three nights in a row regarding his research. On the third night,he
A)scribbled down on a pad what he had dreamed.
B)went straight to his laboratory and performed the crucial experiment.
C)rejected the experiment in the dream and was able to eventually solve the problem through waking fantasy.
D)used Freud's techniques involving symbolization to forecast the completion of his research and his own death one year later.
Q2) In order for you to be able to periodically review your past dreams,it is recommended that you record your dreams in chronological order within a permanent dream .
Q3) According to Freud,the dream process in which important emotions are redirected toward safe or seemingly unimportant images is
A)secondary elaboration.
B)condensation.
C)displacement.
D)symbolization.
Q4) Describe Sigmund Freud's four dream processes and give an example of each.
Page 29
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Chapter 28: Conditioning and Learning: Types of Learning
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Sample Questions
Q1) The programmed instruction that is called drill-and-practice is also known as A)REBT.
B)EMDR.
C)CAI.
D)AFT.
Q2) Typical TV viewers are exposed to massive doses of media violence,which tend to promote the development of aggression due to A)observational learning.
B)increased frustration.
C)positive transfer.
D)negative transfer.
Q3) If you give an attractive classmate a ride home,you may make mental notes about how to get to his or her house,even if a date is only a remote future possibility.This illustrates
A)classical conditioning.
B)shaping.
C)latent learning.
D)discovery learning.
Q4) Learning is a relatively permanent change in behavior due to _______.
Q5) Classical and operant conditioning are the two types of _______ learning.
30
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Chapter 29: Conditioning and Learning: Classical Conditioning
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Sample Questions
Q1) Training in which the conditioned response is established and strengthened is referred to as _______.
Q2) In 1920,which psychologist classically conditioned a young child named Little Albert to fear rats?
A)Ivan Pavlov
B)Albert Bandura
C)B.F.Skinner
D)John B.Watson
Q3) Which of the following is a dependable,inborn stimulus-and-response connection?
A)reflex
B)operant
C)expectancy
D)cognitive map
Q4) For optimal conditioning,the minimum delay between the CS and US should be
A)a half second to five seconds.
B)15 to 30 seconds.
C)40 to 50 seconds.
D)one to two minutes.
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Q5) In Pavlov's experiment,the dog's salivation to the food is referred to as the _______ response.

Chapter 30: Conditioning and Learning: Operant
Conditioning
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Q1) Richard tells his new joke to three different people,and each one of them laughs.Because telling the joke led to laughter,which Richard enjoys,Richard will be more likely to tell this joke to other people.This situation illustrates
A)classical conditioning.
B)vicarious conditioning.
C)the law of association.
D)the law of effect.
Q2) Preschoolers Jordan and Dennis were throwing sticks at other students on the playground,so their teacher made them sit on the sidewalk for five minutes,taking them away from the fun activities on the playground.Their teacher was using A)negative reinforcement.
B)aversive conditioning.
C)positive punishment.
D)negative punishment.
Q3) A team coach who scolds and benches a player for poor performance is using A)aversive conditioning.
B)modeling.
C)negative reinforcement.
D)punishment.
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Chapter 31: Conditioning and Learning: Reinforcement and Punishment
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Q1) Brian's parents use frequent and severe physical punishment for his misbehaviors at home.Which of the following is most likely to be true?
A)Brian is a quiet,model child at school.
B)Brian often gets into trouble for fighting at school.
C)Brian is a compliant child but makes poor grades.
D)The amount of physical punishment at home will have no effect on Brian's behavior at school.
Q2) Printed money has little or no value of its own,but you can exchange it for food,water,lodging,and other necessities.Thus,money would be considered a type of _______ reinforcer.
A)token
B)unconditional
C)higher-order
D)negative transfer
Q3) Often influencing human behaviors are learned desires for attention and approval,which are considered secondary reinforcers,and are called _______ reinforcers.
Q4) Time-out is an example of negative punishment,which is also called _______.
Q5) Describe three problems that occur as punishment increases in severity.
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Chapter 32: Psychology in Action: Behavioral
Self-Management
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Q1) A formal agreement stating behaviors to be changed and consequences that apply is known as a(n) _______.
Q2) The key to any self-management program is
A)self-recording because it provides feedback.
B)social support because it provides positive reinforcement needed.
C)punishment because it helps you decrease the unwanted behavior.
D)adjusting your schedule because it is important to be flexible.
Q3) Most nights Ian comes home from work,turns on the TV,and eats a whole bag of cookies or chips.He then takes a shower and changes clothes.By supper time,he has lost his appetite.Ian realizes he is substituting junk food for supper.For instance,he could shower immediately when he gets home or avoid turning on the TV until after supper. Ian will be utilizing the strategy that involves
A)breaking up response chains.
B)cues and antecedents.
C)alternate responses.
D)extinction.
Q4) The first step in a behavioral self-management plan is to establish goals.
A)True
B)False

Page 34
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Chapter 33: Memory: Memory Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) False memories occur because elaborative processing makes us vulnerable to A)eidetic memories.
B)redintegration.
C)encoding failure.
D)source confusion.
Q2) The critical factor determining whether information will move from short-term memory to long-term memory is its A)length.
B)complexity.
C)meaning.
D)diversity.
Q3) One of the many reasons for getting an education is because A)longterm memory is almost "filled up" by age 25 so it is important to "fill it up" with important information.
B)long-term memory is stored mainly by sound (phonetically),and most education is transmitted orally in lectures.
C)the more you know,the easier it becomes to add new information to one's longterm memory.
D)it prevents the procedural long-term memories from being lost due to disuse.
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Chapter 34: Memory: Forgetting
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Q1) In the experiment,a rat was administered an electroconvulsive shock (ECS)after receiving a painful shock to its feet.The ECS
A)caused proactive interference for the memory of the shock to its feet.
B)caused retrograde amnesia for the memory of the shock to its feet.
C)caused redintegration and enhanced memory of the shock to its feet.
D)did not increase or decrease memory but did increase pain sensitivity.
Q2) While surfing the Internet,you see an interesting website you wish to visit.So you begin typing in the URL and realize that you have already forgotten it.This fading of your short-term memory for the URL is due to the process known as A)suppression.
B)disuse.
C)consolidation.
D)memory decay.
Q3) One of the major psychological defenses we use against emotional threats involves an unconscious forgetting known as A)repression.
B)suppression.
C)redintegration.
D)elaborative processing.
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Chapter 35: Memory: Exceptional Memory and Improving Memory
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Q1) Explain the differences in mental images and eidetic imagery.
Q2) Which of the following involve visual images which are clear enough to be "scanned" for at least 30 seconds,are "projected" out in front of a person,and can best be "seen" on a blank surface?
A)eidetic images
B)mental images
C)flashbulb memories
D)mnemonic images
Q3) Which of the following statements would be considered good advice to improve memory for your college studies?
A)Once you have learned material well enough to remember it once without error,you should stop studying to prevent overlearning the material.
B)It is imporant to use massed practice to study for every test.
C)It is best to take a test on an empty stomach in order to prevent an upset stomach.
D)Use recitation as you study to practice retrieving information.
Q4) To learn college-level information,you must mentally reflect and look for connections between the information you are learning and your existing knowledge,a strategy known as _______.
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Chapter 36: Psychology in Action: Mnemonics
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Sample Questions
Q1) "Taking a mental walk" involves associating topics with the images of objects found along the walk.This mnemonic technique was first used by
A)Ancient Greek orators.
B)European musicians.
C)Renaissance painters.
D)English scholars,such as John Locke.
Q2) If you are attempting to learn a list of terms with no meaningful relationship among these terms,you should remember that mnemonic techniques
A)will be ineffective in learning these terms.
B)will be superior to rote learning.
C)tend to improve implict memories rather than explicit memories.
D)tend to improve procedural memories rather than semantic memories.
Q3) Which type of mnemonic could help a person to remember a list of 20 or more items on their shopping list?
A)acrostics
B)forming a chain
C)the keyword method
D)bizarre images
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Chapter 37: Cognition and Intelligence: Imagery, Concepts, and Language
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Q1) A young child tells his grandmother that "he goed to town." The child's application of the normal past tense to the irregular verb "to go" illustrates that the child is attempting to use
A)transformation rules.
B)the semantic differential.
C)disjunctive concepts.
D)a morpheme shift.
Q2) If the connotative meaning of the word "jazz" was found using rating scales,we have utilized the
A)conjunctive conceptualization continuum.
B)relational term differential.
C)prototypical mean.
D)semantic differential.
Q3) Animal communication can be called a true language because it meets the criterion that a language must be productive.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The basic speech sounds of a language are called morphemes.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 38: Cognition and Intelligence: Problem Solving
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Q1) When people are presented with the problem of getting the five dollar bill without moving the stack of objects placed on top of it,they are usually unable to solve the problem because of the taboo that one should not destroy money,which would be considered a learned barrier to problem solving.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Regarding barriers to problem solving,the fear of making a fool of oneself or of making a mistake would be a(n) __________ barrier.
Q3) "Try to identify how the current state of affairs differs from the desired goal,and then find steps that will reduce the difference." This advice describes a A)syllogism.
B)heuristic.
C)prototype.
D)dimension of the semantic differential.
Q4) Regarding barriers to problem solving,a cook who doesn't have any clean mixing bowls and fails to see that he could use a frying pan as a bowl is exhibiting a(n) _______ barrier.
Q5) Describe and give an example of each of the four barriers to problem-solving.
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Chapter 39: Cognition and Intelligence: Creative Thinking and Intuition
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Sample Questions
Q1) Thought that is intuitive,haphazard,associative,or personal is termed _______ thought.
A)inductive
B)deductive
C)logical
D)illogical
Q2) Scores on the Rorschach inkblot test include a consideration of how unusual a person's responses are.This aspect of the test is similar to a measure of creativity known as A)fluency.
B)flexibility.
C)originality. D)logic.
Q3) According to Soman and other researchers,increased stress,cognitive overload,and confusion about the possibilities are some of the reasons that people A)exhibit functional fixedness.
B)are able to think divergently.
C)have difficulty making complex choices. D)resort to algorithmic thinking.
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Chapter 40: Cognition and Intelligence: Intelligence
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Q1) A psychologist who gives you a list of test items when you ask him or her for a definition of intelligence is providing you with a(n) _______ definition of intelligence.
Q2) Jonathan has an intellectual disability.He is unable to read books or to read music and has had no music lessons.However,he is able to play any song on the piano if he hears it once on the radio.Jonathan would best be described as having A)a schizotypal personality.
B)Turner's syndrome.
C)savant syndrome.
D)pseudo-giftedness.
Q3) Zelda is being administered the Processing Speed section of the Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale (WAIS-IV).Which of the following subtests is a part of this section?
A)block design
B)coding
C)arithmetic
D)digit span
Q4) Will has a mental age of nine and a chronological age of ten.Will's IQ is _______.
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Chapter 41: Psychology in Action: Enhancing Creativity
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Sample Questions
Q1) You are asked the following tricky question,"If there are 12 onecent candies in a dozen,how many twocent candies are there in a dozen?" To answer this question correctly,you must
A)utilize a mental set.
B)define the problem narrowly.
C)actively challenge your assumptions.
D)look for analogies within the problem.
Q2) In order to arrive at a creative solution to a problem,it is often useful to A)get to the specifics of the problem quickly.
B)define the problem as narrowly as possible.
C)break mental sets and challenge assumptions.
D)discard as many impractical suggestions as quickly as possible.
Q3) Which of the following tends to inhibit creativity in the initial stages?
A)defining problems broadly
B)allowing time for incubation
C)worrying about the correctness of solutions
D)exposing oneself to a wide variety of information
Q4) Exposing yourself to a wide variety of information is a good way to encourage creativity,which requires _______ thinking.
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Chapter 42: Motivation and Emotion: Overview of Motives and Emotions
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the motivational sequence,any action,glandular activity,or other identifiable behavior is called a(n)
A)goal.
B)expectation.
C)incentive.
D)response.
Q2) Jet lag results when travelers experience a lack of synchronization between the local time of the place they have traveled to and their A)ASC's.
B)sensation-seeking patterns.
C)circadian rhythms.
D)opponent processes.
Q3) A glass of industrial sludge removed from a polluted river would probably not be desirable to you,even though you were very thirsty,because the glass of sludge is A)high in incentive value.
B)high in motivation.
C)low in incentive value.
D)low in stimulus motives.
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Chapter 43: Motivation and Emotion: Motivation in Detail
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Sample Questions
Q1) For most normal daily activities,arousal is
A)zero.
B)low.
C)moderate.
D)high.
Q2) Jack has always suffered from test anxiety.This semester he began studying for his first psychology test over a week before the scheduled test.This overpreparation will most likely cause Jack to
A)have less test anxiety and score higher on the test.
B)have slightly more test anxiety and score lower on the test.
C)create excessive worry,but will not change his performance on the test.
D)feel extreme panic to the point of "going blank" on the test.
Q3) When you are running on the track team in the "50Yard Dash," your arousal level should be
A)at a zero level.
B)higher than normal.
C)maintained at a moderate level.
D)lower than normal.
Q4) The period during which female animals are sexually receptive is called "heat" or
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Chapter 44: Motivation and Emotion: Emotion in Detail
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Q1) According to Schachter's theory of emotion,the specific emotion that an aroused person experiences depends on the
A)generation of activity in the cortex simultaneously with physiological arousal.
B)specific pattern of physiological arousal.
C)person's temperament.
D)cognitive factors present during physiological arousal.
Q2) Regarding facial expressions,which of the following statements is FALSE?
A)A facial blend is a mixture of two or more basic expressions.
B)The face can produce thousands of different expressions,which makes it the most expressive part of your body.
C)The basic emotional expressions appear to be fairly universal.
D)A frown is the most universal and easily recognized facial expression of emotion.
Q3) Kinesics refers to the study of A)body language.
B)how memories are encoded through movement.
C)the autonomic arousal during emotional states.
D)profiling the criminal mind.
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Chapter 45: Psychology in Action: Emotional Intelligence
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Sample Questions
Q1) Negative emotions tend to broaden our focus,while positive emotions tend to narrow our focus.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Concerning emotional intelligence,which of the following statements is FALSE?
A)In many of life circumstances,emotional intelligence is as important as IQ.
B)Poor emotional skills can lead to problems in marriage and parenting to poor physical health and can even ruin careers.
C)For children and teenagers,having poor emotional skills can contribute to depression,eating disorders,unwanted pregnancy,aggression,violent crime,and poor academic performance.
D)Emotionally intelligent people are less agreeable than people with low emotional skills because they are always trying to impress others.
Q3) Emotions that create an urge to play,to be creative,to explore,and to savor life are our _______ emotions.
A)unconscious
B)negative
C)positive
D)suppressed
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Chapter 46: Human Sexuality: Sexual Development and Orientation
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Q1) What appear to be shifts in orientation usually occur for all of the following reasons EXCEPT
A)homosexual people realizing they have been untrue to themselves.
B)the person being basically bisexual.
C)the person being raised by gay or lesbian parents.
D)homosexuals marrying members of the opposite sex due to societal pressures.
Q2) For both genetic females and males,hormonal problems before birth may produce an individual who has ambiguous sexual anatomy,a condition referred to as a(n) _______ person.
A)transsexual
B)intersexual
C)bisexual
D)homosexual
Q3) The anti-miscarriage drug progestin and a problem known as congenital adrenal hyperplasia may cause a developing female to
A)develop Turner's syndrome.
B)become masculinized.
C)develop Klinefelter's syndrome.
D)reach puberty as early as six years of age.
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Q4) Your predominance of androgens or estrogens determines your _______ sex.

Chapter 47: Human Sexuality: Gender Development,
Androgyny, and Gender
Variance
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Q1) Studies of other cultures indicate that A)gender roles are consistent from one society to another.
B)one's innate skills have the greatest impact on the development of gender roles. C)gender roles do not occur naturally,but rather are constructed. D)none of these statements are true.
Q2) Regarding research on the effects of sexual arousal and testosterone levels on behavior,which of the following statements is FALSE?
A)Most men,including those with high testosterone levels,manage to keep their sexual impulses and aggressiveness within acceptable limits.
B)Testosterone supplements can help men with low testosterone levels to think more clearly.
C)In a study,the men correctly predicted that being sexually aroused would influence their sexual choices.
D)Older men and women with too little testosterone have a greater risk of developing Alzheimer's disease.
Q3) The researcher who created a sex role inventory that consists of 20 "masculine" traits,20 "feminine" traits,and 20 "neutral" traits was _______.
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Chapter 48: Human Sexuality: Sexual Behavior, Response, and Attitudes
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Q1) Regarding the human sex drive,which of the following statements is FALSE?
A)A man's sex drive is related to the amount of androgens,especially testosterone supplied by the testes.
B)When a man chats with a woman he finds attractive,his testosterone levels actually increase.
C)The sex drive in women is related to estrogen levels,but also to androgens in her bloodstream.
D)The sex drive of women is weaker than men's because of the smaller amounts of androgens she produces.
Q2) Regarding current trends in the sexual behavior among young people,which of the following statements is FALSE?
A)Casual sex is often viewed as easier than facing the challenges of romantic attachment and finding a lifelong partner.
B)More than half of all college students have been friends with benefits.
C)The traditional focus on intercourse is fading in favor of oral sex and is occurring at younger ages.
D)Friends with benefits is a more casual sexual script than the sexual script known as the hook-up script.
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Chapter 49: Psychology in Action: Sexual Problems
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Q1) Marcia is repelled by the prospect of having sex with another person.The thought of engaging in intercourse causes her panic and revulsion.Marcia has a(n)
A)orgasm disorder.
B)sexual aversion.
C)conversion disorder.
D)paraphilia.
Q2) Tom has an excess of sexual desire in which he has persistent and intense sexual fantasies,urges,and behaviors, which are very troubling to him.Tom's sex addiction will most likely be diagnosed as a(n)disorder.
A)primary erectile
B)secondary erectile
C)hypersexual
D)premature ejaculation
Q3) Constructive expression of anger requires that you try to "mind read" what your partner is thinking during arguments.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 50: Personality: Overview of Personality
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is NOT an objective personality test?
A)the 16 PF
B)Thematic Apperception Test
C)Guilford-Zimmerman Temperament Survey
D)Allport-Vernon Study of Values
Q2) A person's unique and enduring behavior patterns define his or her _______.
Q3) Which two of the following theories view human nature as being neutral?
A)psychoanalytic and behaviorist
B)psychoanalytic and humanistic
C)behaviorist and humanistic
D)trait and social learning
Q4) The MMPI-2 has scales that
A)detect attempts by test takers to "fake good" or "fake bad."
B)uncover defensiveness or tendencies to exaggerate shortcomings and troubles.
C)can identify substance abuse,eating disorders,family problems,and an inability to function in a job.
D)can do all of these.
Q5) Differentiate between the terms self-concept and self-esteem,and describe how they are related,and then explain the differences in the basis of self-esteem in Eastern and Western cultures.
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Chapter 51: Personality: Trait Theories
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Q1) When college students were asked to describe someone they knew well,they mentioned an average of 12 central traits.
A)True
B)False
Q2) You describe your friend Noel as outgoing and friendly,conscientious,even-tempered,and curious.You have just rated his personality based on
A)the five-factor model.
B)the MMPI-2.
C)Hans Eysenck's dimensions.
D)Dollard and Miller's critical situations theory.
Q3) Brian,who is intelligent and creative,would most likely score high on the dimension of the Big Five personality model known as _______.
Q4) Regarding his college work,Toby tends to be disorganized,is frequently late to class,and often fails to turn in his assignments;thus,would most likely score low on the Big Five trait of conscientiousness.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 52: Personality: Psychoanalytic and Humanistic
Theories
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Sample Questions
Q1) According to Freud,a male child's failure to resolve the Oedipal conflict would interfere with the development of a A)competitive lifestyle.
B)phallic personality.
C)strong id.
D)conscience.
Q2) According to Freud,the rational,problemsolving executive part of one's personality is called the _______.
Q3) According to Rogers,conditions of worth often lead to a denial of one's true feelings and experiences,which prevent a person from developing a(n)
A)positive self-regard.
B)conscience.
C)ego ideal.
D)ideal self.
Q4) According to Carl Rogers,a very unrealistic self-image is characteristic of the A)phenomenal field.
B)incongruent person.
C)self archetype.
D)oral-dependent person.

54
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Chapter 53: Personality: Behavioral and Social Learning
Theories
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Sample Questions
Q1) According Julian Rotter,whether you choose to work harder to attain a better grade after failing a test will depend
A)on your trait of conscientiousness.
B)more on expected reinforcement than actual past reinforcement.
C)on extrinsic motivation rather than intrinsic motivation.
D)on how you view yourself in comparison to other students.
Q2) In personality development,humanistic and behavioral theories stress the importance of
A)learning and life experiences.
B)fixations within the psychosexual stages.
C)temperamental differences.
D)inherited biological predispositions.
Q3) Often when twins who were separated at birth are reunited,they tend to focus on all of their similarities,while ignoring their differences.This is an example of A)the Barnum effect.
B)the confirmation bias.
C)uncritical acceptance.
D)functional fixedness.
Q4) The study of inherited behavioral traits and tendencies is called _______.
Page 55
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Chapter 54: Psychology in Action: Understanding Shyness
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Q1) Greg who is shy has decided that he will not pretend anymore to be someone he's not in social situations.He also tells himself that even people who are very socially skillful are never successful 100 percent of the time,so he shouldn't get so upset when a social encounter goes badly.These beliefs will most likely result in Greg
A)continuing to be shy since these are unrealistic beliefs.
B)reducing his shyness because of these productive beliefs.
C)increasing both his public and private self-consciousness.
D)increasing his evaluation fears and social anxiety.
Q2) Shyness is considered to be
A)a personality trait.
B)a personality type.
C)related to a "sensing" temperament.
D)a character flaw.
Q3) Regarding the shy personality,which of the following statements is FALSE?
A)Shy people tend to be wrapped up in their own feelings and thoughts.
B)Shyness is linked with public self-consciousness.
C)Shy people's social anxiety leads to awkwardness and inhibition.
D)The shy person's anxiety often causes her or him to misperceive others in social situations.
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Page 56

Chapter 55: Health, Stress, and Coping: Health Psychology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Regarding stress and stress reactions,which of the following statements is FALSE?
A)A stress reaction begins with the same autonomic nervous system (ANS)arousal that occurs during emotion.
B)Stress can occur due to both positive and negative events.
C)Stress can be a major behavioral risk factor if it is prolonged or severe.
D)Stress is almost always bad for you and should be avoided at all costs.
Q2) Programs which typically include practice in stress reduction,self-protection,decision-making,self-control,and social skills are called life skills training.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following describes the body's reaction to stressful situations as a series of three stages?
A)mind-body connection
B)general adaptation syndrome
C)locus of control model
D)defense mechanism strategy
Q4) Behaviors that increase the chances of disease,injury,or premature death are called _______ factors.
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Chapter 56: Health, Stress, and Coping: Stress, Frustration, and Conflict
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279 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) A specific condition or event in the environment that challenges or threatens a person is called a(n) _______.
Q2) Secondary appraisal refers to the stage in emotional adjustment during which
A)the means of meeting a threat is chosen.
B)one decides if a situation is relevant or irrelevant.
C)one decides if a situation is threatening or not.
D)vague feelings of anxiety begin.
Q3) Wanting to quit smoking but not wanting to to through withdrawal is an example of a(n) _______ conflict.
A)approach-approach
B)avoidance-avoidance
C)approach-avoidance
D)multiple approach-avoidance
Q4) Any response that is made with the intent of harming a person or an object is referred to as
A)aggression.
B)assertion.
C)circumvention.
D)sublimation.
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Chapter 57: Health, Stress, and Coping: Defenses, Helplessness, and Depression
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Q1) Melissa has started a new job as a bank teller.The first day,she makes a mistake counting back money to a customer and takes a longer than average time to do every task she is given.She decides that "she is stupid" and will never be able to do this job,so she quits.Melissa would not have quit her job so quickly if she had attributed her failure to
A)the first day jitters.
B)her general lack of preparation for professional work.
C)her immaturity.
D)the other employees being hostile towards her.
Q2) In the learned helplessness experiments,dogs learned to passively submit to shocks through a procedure in which the experimenters
A)flashed a signal light before each shock so the dog freezes with fear.
B)forcibly dragged the dog to the shock department.
C)administered several shocks while preventing escape.
D)placed a barrier so the dog must leap to escape the shocks.
Q3) According to Seligman,learned helplessness results because people learn that they are powerless to avoid punishment.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 58: Health, Stress, and Coping: Stress and Health
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Q1) Stress increases one's susceptibility to disease because it affects the body's _______ system.
Q2) During final exams each year,Janet gets a bad case of bronchitis.The stress of final exams has done all of the following EXCEPT
A)lowered Janet's immunity.
B)caused her body to release substances that decreased inflammation.
C)activated her body's selfprotective response,which will prolong the infection and delay healing.
D)increased her susceptibility to disease.
Q3) Ben is described as highly competitive and achievement-oriented but often angry and hostile when things do not go his way.Ben would be described as having a(n) _______ personality.
Q4) Hardy personalities are strong in
A)commitment,finding ways of turning whatever they are doing into something that seems interesting and important.
B)control and are less likely to see themselves as victims of circumstances.
C)challenge and find fulfillment in continual growth.
D)all of these.
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Page 60

Chapter 59: Psychology in Action: Stress Management
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Q1) Regarding social support,which of the following statements is FALSE?
A)People with close,supportive relationships have better immune responses and better health.
B)Women tend to make better use of social support than men do.
C)Support from family and friends serves as a buffer to cushion the impact of stressful events.
D)The sharing of good news tends to provoke envy in others and decrease social support.
Q2) Exercising for stress management is most effective when it is done
A)daily for as little as 30 minutes a day,even in 10 to 20-minute sessions.
B)daily for at least one to two hours,with any less being ineffective.
C)three times a week for at least one hour each time.
D)on weekends and only when you are relaxed as well.
Q3) The tension-release method is another name for the procedure known as guided imagery.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Self-critical thoughts that increase anxiety and lower performance are called _______.
Q5) Stress triggers bodily effects,upsetting thoughts,and ineffective _______.
Page 61
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Chapter 60: Psychological Disorders: Normality and Psychopathology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Discuss five ways of defining abnormality and the shortcomings of each,and describe the core feature of all abnormal behavior.
Q2) Which of the following is a sleep-wake disorder?
A)encopresis
B)kleptomania
C)narcolepsy
D)dysthymia
Q3) The failure of hospital staff to detect the fake patients in David Rosenhan's studies can be attributed to the A)acting ability of the pseudopatients.
B)generally low quality of training of hospital staff members.
C)effects of labeling and context.
D)fact that pseudopatients were so heavily drugged.
Q4) Which of the following is an outdated term that people use loosely to refer to problems involving excessive anxiety?
A)neurosis
B)insanity
C)psychosis
D)depersonalization

62
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Chapter 61: Psychological Disorders: Psychosis, Delusional Disorders,
and Schizophrenia
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Q1) People with schizophrenia tend to have difficulty focusing on one item of information at a time and are often overwhelmed by a jumble of thoughts,sensations,images,and feelings because of this impaired "sensory filter" in their brains.Thus,many symptoms of schizophrenia appear to be due to problems in A)selective attention.
B)long-term potentiation.
C)convergent thinking.
D)implicit processing.
Q2) "I'm a man 36 years of age.That,of course,gives me the 'capacity of the flag itself' and,therefore,gives me the 'capacity of the President of the United States of America.'" This statement shows the presence of which type of delusion?
A)delusions of grandeur
B)delusions of reference
C)delusions of influence
D)somatic delusions
Q3) A person who does not have hallucinations and whose persecutory delusions are about experiences that could occur in real life would most likely be diagnosed with the delusional disorder known as _______.
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Chapter 62: Psychological Disorders: Mood Disorders
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Q1) The mild depression that occurs only during the fall and winter months is related to the release of the hormone

Q2) In the most severe cases of depression and/or mania,the person may even lose touch with reality and display psychotic symptoms.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Women are 50 percent more likely to experience depression than men,with the main reason for this difference being
A)sex-linked traits.
B)hormonal levels.
C)differences in the size of the corpus callosum and the amygdala.
D)social and environmental conditions.
Q4) Seasonal depressions are related to more of which of the following being secreted by the pineal gland during the winter?
A)dopamine
B)acetylcholine
C)melatonin
D)serotonin
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Chapter 63: Psychological Disorders: Anxiety-Based
Disorders and Personality Disorders
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Q1) Which of the following would NOT be considered anxiety-related disorders?
A)obsessive-compulsive and related disorders
B)somatic symptom disorders
C)delusional disorders
D)dissociative disorders
Q2) Susan was unable to explain or remember her frequent escapades,strange clothing,or phone calls from people she claimed she did not know.While in a therapy session,Susan's demeanor changed and she became Jan,who stated that Susan was a bore and did not know anything.Susan's psychologist thinks that Susan may be suffering from
A)schizophrenia.
B)a dissociative fugue.
C)a dissociative identity disorder.
D)a bipolar disorder.
Q3) Whenever Jim has fearful thoughts,he starts naming the U.S.states.This irrational act of naming the U.S.states would be called a(n)
A)obsession.
B)phobia.
C)compulsion.
D)fugue state.

Page 65
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Chapter 64: Psychology in Action: Suicide
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Q1) After her long-time boyfriend "dumped" her for another girl,Ana became enraged and only thought of revenge.Although Ana had been an excellent student,she no longer seemed to take interest in her studies and told her friends that it didn't matter whether she took the college entrance exam or not.She wouldn't go out with her friends anymore or even respond to her best friends' texts.Her parents said she just stayed in her room and did not seem to have any purpose in life anymore.These factors were warning signs for
A)the emergence of a delusional disorder.
B)the development of a dissociative identity disorder.
C)chronic hypomania.
D)a suicide attempt.
Q2) Which of the following ethnic groups currently has the highest rate of suicide in the United States?
A)European Americans
B)Native Americans
C)African Americans
D)Hispanic Americans
Q3) White males 65 years and older are at particular risk for committing suicide.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 65: Therapies: Treating Psychological Distress
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Q1) Psychodrama assumes that
A)people can learn to recognize the parent,adult,and child roles in their personality.
B)insights from acted-out sessions transfer to real-life situations.
C)participants learn to spot insincerity by adopting artificial roles.
D)participants delve deep into their own personalities by watching staged interactions.
Q2) When contemporary psychodynamic therapists actively provoke emotional reactions,their patients tend to
A)lower their defenses and gain insight.
B)actively begin the process toward self-actualization.
C)make courageous choices and find the meaning they have lost in their lives.
D)become aware of their incongruence and strive toward becoming "whole."
Q3) A therapy in which a person can act out or directly experience problems and which often produces insights that might not occur from merely talking about an issue is A)positive psychology.
B)group therapy.
C)interpersonal therapy.
D)behavior therapy.
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Chapter 66: Therapies: Humanistic and Cognitive Therapies
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Q1) Confrontation in which clients are challenged to examine their values and choices and to take responsibility for the quality of their existence is a key aspect of A)psychoanalysis.
B)existential therapy.
C)client-centered therapy.
D)systematic desensitization.
Q2) Regarding the focus of their therapy,traditional psychoanalysts tend to focus on
A)transference,while client-centered therapists focus on resistance.
B)resistance,while client-centered therapists focus on transference.
C)unconscious conflicts,while client-centered therapists focus on conscious thoughts and feelings.
D)conscious thoughts and feelings,while client-centered therapists focus on unconscious conflicts.
Q3) Who is most often associated with the development of Gestalt therapy?
A)Fritz Perls
B)Carl Rogers
C)Abraham Maslow
D)Victor Frankl
Q4) Rational-emotive behavior therapy was developed by _______.
Page 68
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Chapter 67: Therapies: Behavior Therapies
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Q1) The advantages of token economies include which of the following?
A)giving clients an incentive to change
B)holding individuals responsible for maladaptive habits and actions
C)returning many "hopelessly" intellectually disabled,mentally ill,or delinquent individuals to productive lives
D)doing all of these
Q2) Jake is being trained in how to utilize therapies based on classical and operant conditioning.Jake is most likely training to become a A)psychoanalyst.
B)behavior therapist.
C)humanistic psychotherapist.
D)Gestalt therapist.
Q3) Virtual reality exposure has been used to create immersive distracting environments for helping patients reduce the experience of pain.
A)True
B)False
Q4) An approach that utilizes classical conditioning in helping individuals suppress an undesirable response by associating it with uncomfortable stimuli is called _______ therapy.
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Chapter 68: Therapies: Medical Therapies
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Q1) Anxiolytics are generally used to
A)improve the mood of depressed patients.
B)calm agitated patients.
C)prevent hallucinations.
D)mimic the effects of psychosis for research purposes.
Q2) For those with major mental disorders,hospitalization is often used as therapy because it is
A)a venue to conduct psychotherapy.
B)a sanctuary that provides diagnosis,support,refuge,and therapy.
C)a free place to stay without the financial pressures of the real world.
D)an opportunity to engage in immunotherapy.
Q3) Which of the following is NOT one of the three major types of drugs used in pharmacotherapy?
A)anxiolytics
B)antidepressants
C)major tranquilizers
D)narcoleptics
Q4) The use of drugs to treat psychopathology is called drug therapy,or _______.
Q5) Gayle receives treatment at a mental hospital during the day but returns home at night through an approach known as __________.
Page 70
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Chapter 69: Psychology in Action: Self-Management and Seeking Professional Help
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Sample Questions
Q1) Jacob is attempting to control his kleptomania by repeatedly and vividly imagining himself being arrested, handcuffed,taken to jail,and facing his wife's anger and his son's disappointment.Jacob is using
A)escape learning,a form of insight therapy.
B)avoidance therapy,a form of REBT.
C)imagery rehearsal,a form of existential therapy.
D)covert sensitization,a form of behavior therapy.
Q2) You place a rubber band around your wrist.Every time you catch yourself engaging in negative selftalk,"pop" the rubber band as mild punishment.This technique is known as
A)covert sensitization.
B)thought-stopping.
C)desensitization.
D)implosion.
Q3) The therapist's most basic tool,which ultimately determines the success of the therapy,is the
A)therapist's extensiveness training in counseling and/or psychotherapy.
B)therapeutic relationships established between the client and therapist.
C)type of psychological perspective utilized by the therapist.
Page 71
D)level of dependence that the client develops with the therapist.
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Chapter 70: Social Psychology: Social Behavior and Cognition
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Sample Questions
Q1) After vowing to walk each afternoon after work rather than watching TV,you do walk each afternoon for two weeks but soon revert back to watching TV because of A)a long-standing habit.
B)the lack of high expectations.
C)the evaluation of your actions by others.
D)chance conditioning.
Q2) The actorobserver bias refers to the tendency to assign external causes to other people's behavior and internal causes to our own behavior.
A)True
B)False
Q3) All groups have unspoken rules of conduct,which establish acceptable behavior in most situations and are referred to as social __________.
Q4) Finding something attractive or unattractive,desirable or undesirable is the basis for the belief component of an attitude.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The process of making inferences about behavior is known as _______.
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Chapter 71: Social Psychology: Social Influence
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Q1) Quietly "putting up with" unacceptable conditions without protest is referred to as A)coercion.
B)conformity.
C)obedience.
D)passive compliance.
Q2) In the sidewalk experiment,various numbers of people stood on a busy New York City street and,on cue,began looking at a sixth-floor window across the street.Soon many of the people walking on the street stopped and looked up at the window.This experiment illustrates
A)groupthink.
B)social influence.
C)the fundamental attribution error.
D)cognitive dissonance.
Q3) Research has shown that deep character flaws were the reason that the Nazi soldiers obeyed their commanders and helped slaughter more than six million people in concentration camps.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A special type of conformity to the demands of an authority is known as _______.
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Chapter 72: Social Psychology: Pro-Social Behavior
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Q1) The halo effect,which is the tendency to overgeneralize a favorable impression of a person,is most related to which factor in interpersonal attraction?
A)physical attractiveness
B)reciprocity
C)physical proximity
D)similarity
Q2) Regarding the experiment in which smoke was blown into a room,which of the following statements is FALSE?
A)The results of the experiment lend support to the idea that people in crowds usually keep their eyes to themselves.
B)The students working in groups initially kept their eyes on their questionnaires and avoided looking at the smoke.
C)When the students working in groups noticed the smoke,they looked to other people for clues as to what was happening.
D)The students working alone in the room were more likely to wait before responding to the smoke.
Q3) We are encouraged to help others who have helped us because of the norms of
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Chapter 73: Social Psychology: Antisocial Behavior
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Q1) In a study,women who were reminded before math and finance tests that "women are not good at math"
A)scored higher on the math and finance tests.
B)scored lower on the math and finance tests.
C)exhibited high levels of cognitive dissonance.
D)exhibited extreme dogmatism regarding this stereotype.
Q2) Alcohol causes relaxation and raises one's threshold to engage in aggression.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Regarding bullying,which of the following statements is FALSE?
A)Bullying can be verbal or physical.
B)To be considered bullying,the aggression must be a direct,"in your face" type of encounter.
C)Bullying is a worldwide phenomenon and occurs among all age groups and in all settings.
D)Childhood bullying can have long-term consequences for the mental health of both bullies and their victims.
Q4) When people,who have an authoritarian personality,think their ethnic,national,or religious group is superior to others,they are displaying _______.
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Chapter 74: Psychology in Action: Multiculturalism
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Q1) Stereotypes make the social world more manageable because placing people in categories almost always causes them to appear more similar than they really are.
A)True
B)False
Q2) When Carrie meets people from different ethnic groups,she tries to focus on the person and not the label attached to him or her.To combat stereotypes,Carrie is using
A)just-world beliefs.
B)ethnocentrism.
C)individuating information.
D)fundamental attribution.
Q3) Giving equal status,recognition,and acceptance to different ethnic and cultural groups is referred to as
Q4) When looking at the concept of "race," it is impossible to biologically determine a given person's race.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 75: Applied Psychology: Industrialorganizational Psychology
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Q1) Regarding self-managed teams,which of the following statements is FALSE?
A)Self-managed teams are voluntary discussion groups that come up with suggestions for improvement that are sent to the management for approval.
B)Workers in self-managed teams are much more likely to feel that they are being treated fairly at work.
C)Self-managed teams can typically choose their own methods of achieving results,as long as they are effective.
D)Self-managed teams tend to make good use of the strengths and talents of individual employees.
Q2) Which of the following was known for developing an approach for improving worker efficiency that came to be known as scientific management?
A)Fredrick Taylor
B)Douglas McGregor
C)Irving Janis
D)John Holland
Q3) Scientific management is also called Theory Y leadership.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 76: Applied Psychology: Environmental Psychology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Regarding territorial behavior,which of the following statements is FALSE?
A)Territorial behavior can involve temporary ownership of a space,such as a spot on the beach or a seat at the movies.
B)Sports teams show territorial behavior by playing better on their own home territory than on the other team's field.
C)Burglars are more likely to break into houses that have lots of obvious territorial markers.
D)Graffiti is an obvious form of territorial marking.
Q2) Noise pollution is stressful or intrusive noise made by A)machinery.
B)animals.
C)humans.
D)all of these.
Q3) As we speak,if I move my chair from in front of your desk to the side,I am attempting to move from social distance to a closer _______ distance.
A)intimate
B)personal
C)public
D)familial
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Page 78

Chapter 77: Applied Psychology: the Psychology of
Education, Law, and Sports
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Q1) Sports psychologists have found that children are most likely to benefit from participation in sports when
A)competition is emphasized.
B)an emphasis on winning is minimized.
C)perfection and excellence are stressed.
D)a large number of extrinsic rewards are used.
Q2) Regarding jurors on a death qualified jury,which of the following statements is FALSE?
A)They tend to be made up disproportionately of people with low incomes and low levels of education.
B)They are more likely to read criminal intent into a defendant's actions.
C)They are more likely to favor conviction than other juries.
D)They are more likely to be white males with conservative and authoritarian attitudes.
Q3) Motor skill is to a motor program as
A)a series of actions is to a mental model.
B)a mental model is to a series of actions.
C)the athletic talent is to the execution of an athletic talent.
D)the execution of an athletic talent is to the athletic talent.
Q4) Discuss four problem areas regarding jury deliberations.
Page 79
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Chapter 78: Psychology in Action: Human Factors
Psychology
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Q1) Regarding the environment of a space station,which of the following statements is FALSE?
A)There should be some flexibility in the use of living and work areas.
B)The lack of any noise on a space station is a significant stressor for many astronauts.
C)It is beneficial for astronauts to have some privacy with most preferring solitary pastimes,such as reading,writing,or watching movies.
D)Eating at least one meal together each day can help keep crew members working as a social unit.
Q2) Human factor psychologists are involved with
A)making machine displays easy to perceive and controls easy to use.
B)making optimal use of a person's skills on the job through testing and placement.
C)increased efficiency on the job through Theory Y leadership techniques.
D)all of these.
Q3) The vistas of Earth below may be magnificent,but a person confined to a space habitat circling the Earth for months will most likely experience the problem of sensory
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Page 80

Chapter 79: Behavioral Statistics
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Q1) Dr.Rodriquez discovers that the more education people have,the more money they tend to earn.Dr.Rodriquez has illustrated a(n) _______ correlation.
Q2) Five hundred students out of the 4,000 students at Meridian Community College are surveyed regarding their views on extracurricular activities available on campus.These 500 students would be considered the population in this survey.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Experiments allow us to
A)determine causation.
B)nullify a z-score.
C)demonstrate percent of variance.
D)verify extraneous variables.
Q4) Direct measurement has shown such characteristics as height,memory span,and intelligence to be distributed approximately along a normal curve.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The Jones have five children aged 3,5,7,10 and 12.The median age of the Jones children is _______.
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Chapter 80: Life After School
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Q1) On the tests Gayle took in her psychology class,she was able to demonstrate her familiarity with the history of psychology as well as the major concepts,schools of thought,and theories in psychology.According to the Guidelines for the Undergraduate Psychology Major,which of the following competencies has Gayle most fully demonstrated?
A)knowledge base of psychology
B)critical thinking skills in psychology
C)information and technological literacy
D)values in psychology
Q2) To get a sense of the diversity of psychologists' interests,students reading Psychology: Modules for Active Learning, (13th Edition)should look at Table 3.3 in Module 3 or scan the Table of Contents.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Psychology majors can become student members of the American Psychological Association as well as other national psychology organizations.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The discussion of these topics develops psychology students' _______ skills.
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Chapter 81: Understanding Descriptive and Inferential
Statistics for Psychological Research
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279 Verified Questions
279 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following provide an estimate of how often experimental results could have occurred by chance alone?
A)coefficients of correlation
B)random selections
C)graphical statistics
D)tests of statistical significance
Q2) Which of the following is NOT an example of a correlational study?
A)Will a new reading curriculum increase reading comprehension test scores made by third graders?
B)Is the chance of having a heart attack related to having a hostile personality?
C)How is wealth related to happiness?
D)Is there an association between childhood exposure to the Internet and IQ at age 20?
Q3) Describe the function of the measures of variability;name and define two of these measures.
Q4) On a normal curve,the percent of all cases found between a z-score of +1 and a z-score of -1 is _______ percent.
Q5) A bar graph of a frequency distribution is known as a(n) _______.
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Chapter 82: The Competencies of the Undergraduate
Psychology Major
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Sample Questions
Q1) The colloquia is
A)the first part of a research report or a dissertation.
B)the internship that senior psychology majors must participate in to graduate.
C)a specialized division of the American Psychological Association involving student members.
D)a departmental activity that involves talks by guest speakers,often from other universities.
Q2) Gaining knowledge of inferential statistics from reading Module 79 and independent and dependent variables from Module 4 of Psychology: Modules for Active Learning, (13th Edition)will help students to
A)utilize intuitive thinking in their chosen career.
B)perceive the world through a more subjective perspective.
C)develop their experiential cognition and make better decisions when on the job.
D)be more literate consumers of primary literature in their chosen career.
Q3) List the ten major goals that college psychology programs try to meet in teaching their students,according to the APA's Guidelines for the Undergraduate Psychology Major,and discuss how these goals are met through the five sets of skills emphasized throughout Psychology: Modules for Active Learning, (13th Edition).
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