Human Anatomy Test Preparation
Course Introduction
Human Anatomy is a foundational course that explores the structure and organization of the human body. Emphasizing both macroscopic and microscopic anatomy, the course examines major organ systems including the skeletal, muscular, nervous, cardiovascular, respiratory, digestive, and reproductive systems through lectures, laboratory dissection, and hands-on activities. Students gain a comprehensive understanding of anatomical terminology, physiological functions, and the interrelationships between form and function, preparing them for advanced studies in health, biology, and medicine.
Recommended Textbook
Laboratory Manual for Human Anatomy and Physiology Main Version 4th Edition by Terry
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63 Chapters
1044 Verified Questions
1044 Flashcards
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Page 2
R. Martin
Chapter 1: Scientific Method and Measurements
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the metric system, a gram (g)is a unit of mass.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) Knowing that there are 2.54 cm per inch, a person that is 5'5" in height would be ________ cm tall.
A)16.51
B)165.1
C)25.4
D)25.6
E)255.9
Answer: B
Q3) Which step of the scientific method involves forming a tentative explanation of information?
A)Hypothesis
B)Observations
C)Conclusion
D)Experiment
E)Data analysis
Answer: A
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Chapter 2: Body Organization, Membranes, and Terminology
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Sample Questions
Q1) A transverse plane can also be called a horizontal plane.
A)True
B)False Answer: True
Q2) The double-layered serous membrane that surrounds the organs of the abdominopelvic cavity is called the pericardium.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) Concerning the abdominopelvic regions, the ________ regions lie directly superior to the lumbar regions.
A)hypochondriac
B)hypogastric
C)epigastric
D)umbilical
E)iliac
Answer: A
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Chemistry of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) Acids have a pH of <7.0, and they contain a higher concentration of H+ ions than OHions.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) Many plant pigments can be used as colorimetric tests for changes in ________.
A)temperature
B)carbohydrate concentration
C)pH
D)water purity
E)sodium ion (Na+)concentration
Answer: C
Q3) A solution that has a high concentration of hydroxide (OH-)ions
A)has a low pH.
B)has a high concentration of hydrogen (H+)ions too.
C)is a basic (alkaline)solution.
D)is a neutral solution.
E)is an acidic solution.
Answer: C
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Care and Use of the Microscope
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Sample Questions
Q1) If a microscopic lens is not clean, after cleaning it with lens paper or a cotton swab and lens cleaner, it should be cleaned with hydrochloric acid.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What is the typical magnification provided by the eyepiece (ocular)lens system?
A)100x
B)10x
C)4x
D)1,000x
E)0x (the eyepiece lens system does not provide any magnification)
Q3) All of the following practices should be followed when making a wet mount, except
A)the specimen should be covered with a drop of water.
B)the wet specimen should be covered with a coverslip.
C)the specimen can be opaque and up to 1mm in thickness.
D)the microscope should not be tilted.
E)if using the oil immersion lens, open the iris diaphragm to illuminate the specimen.
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Chapter 5: Cell Structure and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following organelles are sometimes called "suicide sacs," because they are able to destroy the whole cell?
A)Ribosomes
B)Golgi apparatus
C)Lysosomes
D)Mitochondria
E)Centrioles
Q2) All of the organelles in the cell are membrane-bound.
A)True
B)False
Q3) All of the following are true of the centrioles, except
A)they are located within the centrosome.
B)they are part of the cytoskeleton.
C)they consist of microtubules.
D)they organize the mitotic spindle during cell division.
E)they are nonmembranous organelles.
Q4) The nuclear envelope is a double-layered membrane, like the plasma membrane.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 6: Movements Through Membranes
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the molasses experiment, after 30 minutes, the molasses level in the stem of the thistle tube had gone up.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is NOT an active process by which substances cross the plasma membrane?
A)Pinocytosis
B)Filtration
C)Active transport
D)Phagocytosis
E)All of these are active processes.
Q3) A 7% solution of glucose would be considered hypertonic to human cells.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Passive transport processes, such as diffusion, are also called physiological processes.
A)True
B)False
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Page 8
Chapter 7: Cell Cycle
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Sample Questions
Q1) During which phase of the cell cycle is the DNA duplicated?
A)The S phase of interphase
B)Cytokinesis
C)The G phase of interphase
D)Prophase
E)The G phase of interphase
Q2) Which of the following events occurs during the G phase of the cell cycle?
A)Completion of cell growth and production of enzymes
B)DNA replication
C)Synthesis of substances and materials that will be needed in the S phase
D)Separation of sister chromatids, and migration toward opposite sides of the dividing cell
E)Dispersal of the nucleolus and nuclear envelope
Q3) During which phase of the cell cycle do the chromosomes line up along the midline of the cell, and become attached to the spindle fibers?
A)Telophase
B)Prophase
C)Anaphase
D)Interphase
E)Metaphase
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Chapter 8: Epithelial Tissues
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Sample Questions
Q1) An epithelial tissue composed of several layers of tall, elongated cells would be called ________ epithelium.
A)stratified cuboidal
B)stratified columnar
C)transitional
D)simple columnar
E)stratified squamous
Q2) All of the following are characteristics of epithelial tissues, except
A)they are well-supplied with blood vessels.
B)the cells are densely packed, with little space between them.
C)they all contain a basement membrane on their underside.
D)they can be composed of a single layer or multiple layers of cells.
E)their apical surface faces the outside or an internal body surface.
Q3) Which type of epithelial tissue provides protection against respiratory infections, due to the presence of mucus and cilia?
A)Simple squamous
B)Pseudostratified columnar
C)Stratified columnar
D)Simple cuboidal
E)Stratified squamous
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Chapter 9: Connective Tissues
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which type of cell secretes the fibers and ground substance of connective tissue?
A)Fibroblasts
B)Platelets
C)Adipocytes
D)Mast cells
E)Leukocytes
Q2) Which of the following is NOT true of blood?
A)It helps to defend the body against disease.
B)It is identical to lymph.
C)It is a liquid connective tissue.
D)It transports substances that conduct clotting.
E)All of these are true of blood.
Q3) Which of the following types of connective tissue is avascular (contains no blood vessels)?
A)Bone
B)Reticular connective tissue
C)Adipose tissue
D)Cartilage
E)Areolar connective tissue
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Page 11
Chapter 10: Muscle and Nervous Tissues
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is NOT true of skeletal muscle?
A)Skeletal muscle is the only type of muscle tissue that is voluntary.
B)Skeletal muscle is the only type of muscle tissue that is multinucleated.
C)Skeletal muscle is responsible for posture, breathing, and heat production.
D)All skeletal muscles are attached directly to the bones of the skeleton by means of tendons.
E)All of these are true of skeletal muscle.
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a function of smooth muscle?
A)Peristalsis in visceral organs such as the small intestine and ureters
B)Changing the size of the pupil when the lighting conditions change
C)Causing "goose bumps" in response to cold temperature or fear
D)Causing the movements associated with airflow
E)Pumping of the blood through the heart
Q3) Which type(s)of muscle tissue is/are striated?
A)Skeletal only
B)Smooth only
C)Skeletal and cardiac
D)Skeletal and smooth
E)Cardiac only
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Page 12
Chapter 11: Integumentary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is NOT true of nail structure?
A)Cell division occurs in the cuticle.
B)The nail plate consists of the nail root, and nail body, and the free edge.
C)The nail bed consists of cells of the stratum basale.
D)The nail plate consists of dead cells of the stratum corneum.
E)All of these are true of nail structure.
Q2) Which of the following is NOT true of the stratum corneum?
A)It is only present in thick skin.
B)The cells of the stratum corneum are dead.
C)It consists of several layers of keratinized cells.
D)It is the outermost layer of the epidermis.
E)All of these are true of the stratum corneum.
Q3) Which structure of the hair follicle supplies the capillaries that provide the growing hair with oxygen and nutrients?
A)Hair papilla
B)Hair root
C)Hair shaft
D)Hair matrix
E)Hair bulb
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Page 13
Chapter 12: Bone Structure and Classification
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Sample Questions
Q1) Osteons are only found in compact bone.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following structures would NOT be found in the long bones of a mature adult?
A)Epiphyses
B)Epiphyseal plates
C)Red bone marrow
D)Epiphyseal lines
E)Diaphyses
Q3) A bone is considered to be a tissue of the skeletal system.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Chicken bones soaked in vinegar or hydrochloric acid overnight become flexible, because the acid dissolves the collagen fibers.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Each bone consists of either compact or spongy bone, but not both.
A)True
B)False
14
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Chapter 13: Organization of the Skeleton
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Sample Questions
Q1) The ribs are attached posteriorly to the ________.
A)vertebrae
B)sacrum
C)scapula
D)coccyx
E)sternum
Q2) The distal end of the humerus articulates with the A)carpals.
B)radius and ulna.
C)tibia and fibula.
D)tarsals.
E)phalanges.
Q3) A rounded bone process that functions as an articulation in a joint is called a ________.
A)facet
B)crest
C)meatus
D)condyle
E)fovea
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Page 15
Chapter 14: Skull
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Sample Questions
Q1) The skull is part of the appendicular skeleton.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The skull consists of 8 cranial bones and 14 facial bones.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following bones does not articulate with any other bone, but is attached to muscles of the tongue and larynx?
A)Sphenoid bone
B)Palatine bone
C)Vomer bone
D)Stapes
E)Hyoid bone
Q4) The sella turcica (Turkish saddle)is an important depression in the sphenoid bone, which provides bony protection for the pituitary gland.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 15: Vertebral Column and Thoracic Cage
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Sample Questions
Q1) What unique feature do thoracic vertebrae contain?
A)Spinous processes
B)Transverse foramina
C)Vertebral foramina
D)Rib facets
E)Transverse processes
Q2) The lateral projections on cervical, thoracic, and lumbar vertebrae are called
A)spinous processes.
B)pedicles.
C)transverse processes.
D)lateral process.
E)transverse foramina.
Q3) The vertebral column of most people contains ________ cervical vertebrae, ________ thoracic vertebrae, and ________ lumbar vertebrae.
A)5; 7; 12
B)6; 12; 4
C)7; 12; 5
D)5; 11; 5
E)12; 7; 5
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Chapter 16: Pectoral Girdle and Upper Limb
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Sample Questions
Q1) When the olecranon fossa of the humerus articulates with the olecranon process of the ulna, it allows a person to straighten the arm at the elbow.
A)True B)False
Q2) The intertubercular sulcus of the humerus is a passageway for a tendon of the Biceps brachii muscle.
A)True B)False
Q3) The heads of the radius and ulna are found on the proximal end of their respective bones.
A)True B)False
Q4) Which of the following is the most distal part of the ulna?
A)Olecranon process
B)Coronoid process
C)Radial notch
D)Trochlear notch
E)Head
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18
Chapter 17: Pelvic Girdle and Lower Limb
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Sample Questions
Q1) Anatomically, the thigh is considered to be the region from the
A)knee to the ankle.
B)hip to the ankle.
C)ankle to the toes.
D)hip to the knee.
E)ribs to the knee.
Q2) The 2 hip bones, sacrum, and coccyx form the pelvic girdle.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following structures is formed by parts of the ilium, ischium, and pubis?
A)Obturator foramen
B)Acetabulum
C)Pubic arch
D)Greater sciatic notch
E)Iliac fossa
Q4) Often when a person with osteoporosis "falls and breaks a hip," the fall actually occurs as a result of the hip fracture.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 18: Fetal Skeleton
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Sample Questions
Q1) By the time a human reaches young adulthood, the ________ make(s)up about one-half of the total body height.
A)lower limbs
B)head
C)trunk
D)head and neck
E)abdominal portion of the trunk
Q2) Since embryonic and fetal development progress from the cranial to the caudal areas of the body, the ________ of a 2-month embryo takes up about one-half of the total body height.
A)head
B)lower limbs
C)trunk
D)upper limbs
E)head and trunk
Q3) Intramembranous bones develop by replacement of a hyaline cartilage model with bone tissue.
A)True
B)False
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Joint Structure and Movements
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Sample Questions
Q1) Moving the parts of a joint farther apart, so the angle between them increases, is called
A)flexion.
B)adduction.
C)extension.
D)eversion.
E)abduction.
Q2) A freely movable joint is classified as a A)diarthrosis.
B)fibrous joint.
C)synarthrosis.
D)synovial joint.
E)amphiarthrosis.
Q3) Which of the following joints is/are capable of circumduction?
A)Elbow and knee
B)Shoulder and hip
C)Hip and knee
D)Shoulder, hip, elbow, and knee
E)Shoulder and elbow
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Page 21
Chapter 20: Skeletal Muscle Structure and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) In a motor unit, each neuron innervates (controls)a single muscle fiber.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The synaptic knob of a neuromuscular junction is the portion of the muscle fiber that contains receptor sites for neurotransmitters.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A particular muscle causes flexion of the lower limb at the knee. It is located on the posterior side of the thigh. Where would you expect to find its antagonist?
A)On the medial side of the thigh
B)On the anterior side of the thigh
C)On the lateral side of the thigh
D)On the posterior side of the thigh too
E)On any side of the thigh
Q4) A muscle can serve as an agonist in one action and an antagonist in another action. A)True
B)False
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22
Chapter 21: Electromyography: Biopac Exercise
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Sample Questions
Q1) The type of muscle tissue that was used for electromyography in this lab exercise is ________ muscle.
A)mononucleated
B)cardiac
C)non-striated
D)skeletal
E)smooth
Q2) Which of the following is NOT true of tonus?
A)It is a state of slight muscle contraction.
B)It occurs when a muscle is fully contracted.
C)During periods of tonus, the motor units take turns contracting.
D)It keeps the motor units healthy and ready to contract at any time.
E)All of these are true of tonus.
Q3) Temporal summation is used in the body to
A)decrease muscle contraction in muscle fibers, to prevent damage to the cells.
B)increase the amount of force generated by skeletal muscle fibers.
C)maintain constant tension in a muscle fiber every time it contracts.
D)activate nearby skeletal muscle fibers, when a muscle fiber is under constant stimulation.
E)accomplish all of these functions.
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Chapter 22: Muscles of the Head and Neck
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the muscles that move the hyoid bone and larynx are innervated by the facial nerve.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What is the function of medial and lateral excursion, movements of some of the muscles of mastication?
A)To close the mouth during chewing
B)To move the mandible side to side, to help grind food
C)To move the mandible forward
D)To open the mouth during chewing
E)To move the mandible backward
Q3) The muscles that move the head are found in the neck.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following is NOT true of the masseter muscle?
A)It originates on the zygomatic arch.
B)It is innervated by the facial nerve.
C)It inserts on the lateral portion of the mandible.
D)It closes the jaw by elevating the mandible.
E)All of these are true of the masseter muscle.
Page 24
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Chapter 23: Muscles of the Chest, Shoulder, and Upper
Limb
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Sample Questions
Q1) All muscles cross only one joint.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following muscles is NOT a flexor of the elbow?
A)Biceps brachii
B)Brachioradialis
C)Brachialis
D)Triceps brachii
E)All of these are flexors of the elbow.
Q3) The rotator cuff muscles all have insertions on the greater and lesser tubercles of the humerus.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Most of the muscles that move the forearm and hand are innervated by the ________ nerve(s).
A)ulnar
B)musculocutaneous
C)axillary
D)suprascapular
E)median and radial
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Chapter 24: Muscles of the Vertebral Column, Abdominal
Wall, and Pelvic Floor
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Sample Questions
Q1) The anterior portion of the perineum is called the A)anal triangle.
B)genital opening.
C)urogenital triangle.
D)external anal sphincter.
E)pelvic diaphragm.
Q2) Which muscles form the outermost layer of the layered abdominal wall muscles?
A)Internal oblique
B)External intercostal
C)Transversus abdominis
D)Rectus abdominis
E)External oblique
Q3) Which of the following correctly lists the erector spinae muscles, from lateral to medial?
A)Iliocostalis group, longissimus group, spinalis group
B)Semispinalis thoracis, semispinalis cervicis, semispinalis capitis
C)Spinalis group, longissimus group, iliocostalis group
D)Quadratus lumborum, semispinalis thoracis, iliocostalis group
E)Semispinalis capitis, semispinalis cervicis, semispinalis thoracis
Page 26
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Chapter 25: Muscles of the Hip and Lower Limb
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Sample Questions
Q1) Looking at the names of these muscles, which one would you expect to insert on the distal phalanges of toes 2-5?
A)Flexor digitorum longus
B)Tibialis anterior
C)Flexor hallucis longus
D)Extensor pollicis longus
E)Fibularis longus
Q2) Muscles that move the leg at the knee joint have origins on the A)tibia.
B)patella.
C)tibia or fibula.
D)femur or hip bone.
E)fibula.
Q3) The gluteus maximus, medius, and minimus muscles all have the same action (extension of the thigh at the hip).
A)True
B)False
Q4) Some of the muscles of the hip and lower limb cross more than one joint.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 26: Surface Anatomy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a bony feature of the lower torso?
A)Umbilicus
B)Serratus anterior
C)Linea alba
D)Rectus abdominis
E)Iliac crest
Q2) Palpation is accomplished by using a stethoscope, ruler, or X-ray machine.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is NOT an anterior surface feature?
A)Tibial tuberosity
B)Xiphoid process
C)Pectoralis major
D)Thenar eminence
E)All of these are anterior surface features.
Q4) External landmarks (surface anatomy)on the body not only allow for examination of surface features, but also offer an opportunity to locate certain internal structures.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 27: Nervous Tissue and Nerves
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Q1) What is found in the posterior root ganglion of a spinal nerve?
A)A cluster of sensory neuron cell bodies
B)A mass of axons of motor neurons
C)A cluster of cell bodies of interneurons
D)A cluster of motor neuron cell bodies
E)A mass of axons of interneurons
Q2) Sensory neurons are
A)always multipolar.
B)mostly unipolar, but some are bipolar.
C)always unipolar.
D)mostly multipolar, but some are bipolar.
E)always bipolar.
Q3) What is the function of ependymal cells?
A)They are the phagocytes of the brain.
B)They produce cerebrospinal fluid, and circulate it around the brain and spinal cord.
C)They produce the myelin sheath around axons of the peripheral nervous system.
D)They support the cell bodies of neurons in peripheral ganglia.
E)They produce the myelin sheath around axons of the central nervous system.
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29
Chapter 28: Meninges, Spinal Cord, and Spinal Nerves
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Q1) Which of the following is true of the subarachnoid space?
A)It contains cerebrospinal fluid, which cushions and nourishes the neurons of the spinal cord.
B)It lies between the dura mater and the arachnoid mater.
C)It is attached to the outer edge of the spinal cord.
D)It contains blood, which brings oxygen to the spinal cord neurons.
E)None of these is true of the subarachnoid space.
Q2) Which of the following nerves are the components of the large sciatic nerve?
A)Superior and inferior gluteal nerves
B)Pudendal and femoral nerves
C)Obturator and genitofemoral nerves
D)Obturator and femoral nerves
E)Tibial and common fibular nerves
Q3) The anterior roots of the spinal nerves contain motor neurons.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Spinal nerves are called mixed nerves because they contain both sensory and motor nerve fibers.
A)True
B)False
Page 30
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Chapter 29: Reflex Arc and Somatic Reflexes
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Sample Questions
Q1) When testing the biceps reflex, what is the proper area to tap with the reflex hammer?
A)In the middle of the biceps brachii muscle
B)On one of the biceps tendons in the shoulder area
C)On the tendon of the triceps brachii muscle in the elbow
D)Anywhere on the biceps brachii muscle
E)The biceps brachii tendon in the bend of the elbow
Q2) Which of the following is NOT true of the Babinski reflex?
A)It is a normal response in infants.
B)It is an abnormal response that occurs in some adults in the calcaneal reflex.
C)It involves dorsiflexion of the great toe and spreading of the toes.
D)In an adult, it may indicate damage to the corticospinal tracts of the central nervous system.
E)All of these are true of the Babinski reflex.
Q3) Which of the following nerves innervates the effectors of the patellar reflex?
A)Musculocutaneous nerve
B)Median nerve
C)Common fibular nerve
D)Femoral nerve
E)Tibial nerve
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Chapter 30: Brain and Cranial Nerves
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT true of the cranial nerves?
A)There are 12 pairs of cranial nerves.
B)They are part of the CNS.
C)Most arise from the brainstem.
D)Most, but not all, are mixed nerves.
E)All of these are true of the cranial nerves.
Q2) Which portion of the brainstem is responsible for the visual and auditory reflexes?
A)Pons
B)Cerebral peduncles
C)Mammillary bodies
D)Corpora quadrigemina
E)Medulla oblongata
Q3) Which of the following is NOT true of the ventricles of the brain?
A)They are blood-filled chambers.
B)They are all interconnected.
C)There are 2 lateral ventricles.
D)The fourth ventricle lies between the pons and the cerebellum.
E)All of these are true of the ventricles of the brain.
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Chapter 31: Reaction Time: Biopac Exercise
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Q1) In the statistical calculations in this experiment, the average reaction time for all subjects in each condition is called the group
A)variance.
B)median.
C)standard deviation.
D)mean.
E)mode.
Q2) The reaction time for involuntary reflex responses is typically shorter than the reaction time in voluntary reactions.
A)True
B)False
Q3) All reflex arcs contain an interneuron.
A)True
B)False
Q4) In a spinal reflex arc, the interneuron, if present, is found in the gray matter of the spinal cord.
A)True
B)False
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Page 33
Chapter 32: Electroencephalography I: Biopac Exercise
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Q1) Which of the following can NOT be assessed by an EEG?
A)Helps establish brain death
B)Helps determine whether an awake person is concentrating or drowsy
C)Helps assess the state of muscle contraction when a person is lifting objects of various weights
D)Helps to diagnose certain brain disorders
E)All of these can be assessed using an EEG.
Q2) An electroencephalogram (EEG)is a recording of an action potential from a single active neuron.
A)True
B)False
Q3) How is desynchronization of the alpha waves observed in the EEG, when a person with eyes closed suddenly opens them?
A)The amplitude of the alpha wave increases.
B)The frequency of the alpha wave increases.
C)The amplitude of the alpha wave decreases.
D)The frequency of the alpha wave decreases.
E)The alpha waves stop, as shown by an amplitude and a frequency of 0.
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Chapter 33: Dissection of the Sheep Brain
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Q1) The brains of mammals have many common structural features.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What is the function of the choroid plexuses?
A)They form a bridge between the cerebral hemispheres.
B)They are responsible for visual reflexes.
C)They are small nerve plexuses in the brain.
D)They produce cerebrospinal fluid.
E)They are responsible for auditory reflexes.
Q3) The corpus callosum is a transverse band of white matter that runs between the cerebral hemispheres.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Even though the human brain is larger than the sheep brain, the sheep brain has more gyri and sulci than the human brain.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 34: General Senses
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Q1) Areas of the body that are capable of precise tactile localization contain more abundant touch receptors than areas that are not.
A)True
B)False
Q2) An environmental temperature of 85°F would stimulate a ________, and a temperature of 180°F would stimulate a ________.
A)nociceptor; nociceptor
B)warm receptor; warm receptor
C)thermoreceptor; mechanoreceptor
D)warm receptor; nociceptor
E)mechanoreceptor; thermoreceptor
Q3) For tactile localization, the brain interprets information from touch receptor fields in the
A)primary motor cortex.
B)brainstem.
C)primary somatosensory cortex.
D)diencephalon.
E)cerebellum.
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Chapter 35: Smell and Taste
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Q1) Olfactory and gustatory receptors are both chemoreceptors.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In the absence of olfaction, the sense of gustation is diminished.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Both the primary olfactory cortex and the primary gustatory cortex are located in the temporal lobe of the cerebrum.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Taste receptors for the 5 different categories of taste sensations are evenly distributed on the tongue.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What type of cells are olfactory receptor cells?
A)Squamous epithelial cells
B)Columnar epithelial cells
C)Bipolar neurons
D)Cuboidal epithelial cells
E)Multipolar neurons
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Chapter 36: Eye Structure
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Q1) All of the following structures in the eye are black, due to the presence of melanin pigment, except
A)the choroid.
B)the ciliary body.
C)the retina.
D)the pigmented epithelium.
E)All of these eye structures are black, due to the presence of melanin pigment.
Q2) Vision is one of the special senses, because its receptors are found within complex sensory organs in the head.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which structure of the cow (or sheep)eye is not present in humans, and helps to reflect light back through the retina, to provide good night vision?
A)Tarsal gland
B)Trochlea
C)Blind spot
D)Tapetum fibrosum
E)Ora serrata
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Chapter 37: Visual Tests and Demonstrations
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Q1) A person with better than normal visual acuity may have a vision of
A)20/50
B)20/10
C)20/20
D)20/200
E)20/100
Q2) As people age, the lenses of the eye thicken and lose elasticity, a condition called A)hyperopia. B)emmetropia.
C)myopia.
D)hypoopia.
E)presbyopia.
Q3) The near point of accommodation increases with age. A)True B)False
Q4) During accommodation, it is normal for the eyes to diverge, to obtain a thorough view of the close object.
A)True B)False
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Chapter 38: Ear and Hearing
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Q1) What is the function of the pharyngotympanic tube?
A)To transmit sound waves to the tympanic membrane
B)To drain endolymph into the pharynx
C)To equalize the pressure on both sides of the eardrum
D)To drain perilymph into the pharynx
E)To transmit sound waves to the spiral organ
Q2) The S-shaped tube of the ear is called the
A)auditory tube.
B)membranous labyrinth.
C)external acoustic meatus.
D)bony labyrinth.
E)tympanic cavity.
Q3) Which of the following membranes acts as a rigid roof over the cilia of the hair cells of the spiral organ, causing the cilia to bend against it when sound waves are present?
A)Basilar membrane
B)Tympanic membrane
C)Cochlear membrane
D)Vestibular membrane
E)Tectorial membrane
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Page 40
Chapter 39: Ear and Equilibrium
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Q1) The crista ampullaris projects into the lumen of the bony labyrinth of the semicircular canal.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The inner ear houses the organs of both static and dynamic equilibrium.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In the vision and equilibrium test, it can be demonstrated that vision has very little to do with the sense of equilibrium, since unsteadiness does not increase when the eyes are closed while balancing on one foot.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Nystagmus is a normal response that occurs along with A)horizontal acceleration.
B)rotational movements.
C)linear acceleration.
D)vertical acceleration.
E)any of these movements.
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Chapter 40: Endocrine Structure and Function
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Q1) After ovulation, the remnants of the follicle become an endocrine structure called the
A)corpus albicans.
B)theca.
C)corpus luteum.
D)antrum.
E)tunica albuginea.
Q2) Which of the following is not true of the adrenal gland?
A)The zona fasciculata is the outermost layer of the cortex.
B)All of the hormones of the adrenal cortex are steroids.
C)The adrenal medulla secretes epinephrine and norepinephrine.
D)Aldosterone is a mineralocorticoid that is secreted by the adrenal cortex.
E)All of these are true of the adrenal gland.
Q3) What is a paracrine secretion?
A)A secretion that is released into the interstitial fluid and transported by the blood
B)A secretion that affects the cell that secreted it
C)A secretion that is released onto an internal body surface
D)A secretion that is released onto the skin
E)A secretion that affects neighboring cells
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Page 42
Chapter 41: Diabetic Physiology
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Q1) All of the following are possible symptoms of insulin shock except A)rapid heart rate.
B)hyperglycemia.
C)mental disorientation and/or anxiety.
D)impaired vision.
E)sweating.
Q2) Which of the following is not true of type 1 diabetes mellitus?
A)It is an autoimmune disease.
B)It accounts for 85-90% of all cases of diabetes mellitus.
C)Treatment for this disease requires insulin administration.
D)It normally begins early in life.
E)All of these are true of type 1 diabetes mellitus.
Q3) Which of the following hormones is not secreted by the pancreas?
A)Glucagon
B)Pancreatic polypeptide
C)Insulin
D)Somatostatin
E)All of these hormones are secreted by the pancreas.
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Chapter 42: Blood Cells
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Q1) If your differential white blood cell count contained 60% neutrophils, what could you conclude?
A)That you have an excess of neutrophils
B)That you might have a fungal infection
C)That you have a deficiency of neutrophils
D)That you might have an autoimmune disease
E)That you have a normal percentage of neutrophils
Q2) Which of the following is not true of monocytes?
A)They make up 3-9% of the white blood cells.
B)They are the largest blood cells in the circulating blood.
C)They are phagocytes, which engulf and destroy microorganisms and dead cells.
D)They are classified as granulocytes.
E)All of these are true of monocytes.
Q3) Besides bacterial infections, stress can be a cause of elevated neutrophils in the blood.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Most, but not all, of the formed elements are produced in the red bone marrow. A)True B)False
Page 44
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Chapter 43: Blood Testing
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Q1) During hemostasis, the final stage of blood coagulation involves
A)the conversion of prothrombin to thrombin.
B)the formation of a platelet plug.
C)the conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin.
D)blood vessel spasm.
E)the secretion of serotonin.
Q2) On the average, males have a slightly higher hematocrit than females.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The binding site for oxygen molecules in red blood cells is the globin portion of the hemoglobin molecules.
A)True
B)False
Q4) According to the oxygen dissociation curve for temperature, the higher the temperature, the higher the percent saturation of hemoglobin for any partial pressure of oxygen.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 44: Blood Typing
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Q1) Which of the following would always be (an)incompatible donor(s)for a transfusion recipient with type A blood?
A)Types B, AB, and O
B)Type O only
C)Types B and AB
D)Type B only
E)Type AB only
Q2) If you mixed a person's red blood cells with anti-B antibodies, and the red blood cells agglutinated, what could you conclude?
A)That the person's red blood cell membranes contain antigen B
B)That the person has type B blood
C)That the person has type AB blood
D)That the person's red blood cell membranes contain antigen A
E)That the person's blood is Rh+
Q3) A harmful reaction may occur in some cases, even when using the universal donor blood type for a transfusion.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 45: Heart Structure
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Q1) The visceral pericardium is the same layer as the epicardium.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Blood flowing out of the pulmonary veins flows into the ________ and then proceeds through the ________.
A)pulmonary trunk; right ventricle
B)right ventricle; pulmonary trunk
C)right atrium; tricuspid valve
D)left ventricle; aortic semilunar valve
E)left atrium; mitral valve
Q3) The fibrous pericardium surrounds the visceral and parietal layers of the serous pericardium.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following is not true of the pulmonary trunk?
A)It splits to become the right and left pulmonary arteries.
B)It emerges from the right ventricle of the heart.
C)It transports oxygen-rich blood.
D)It transports blood away from the heart.
E)All of these are true of the pulmonary trunk.
Page 47
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Chapter 46: Cardiac Cycle
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Q1) In the cardiac cycle, the atria relax while the ventricles are contracting.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In the ECG pattern, the P wave is soon followed by the P-Q segment, which represents
A)atrial systole.
B)ventricular diastole.
C)atrial repolarization.
D)atrial diastole.
E)ventricular systole.
Q3) The time required for the ventricles to contract is represented by the ________ of the ECG.
A)P-Q segment
B)QRS complex
C)T wave
D)P wave
E)S-T segment
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Chapter 47: Electrocardiography: Biopac Exercise
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Q1) Which portion(s)of the cardiac conduction system is/are found in the right atrium of the heart?
A)SA node and AV node
B)AV bundle and the bundle branches
C)Purkinje fibers
D)AV bundle
E)SA node
Q2) The results of the ECG with various leads (arrangements of positive and negative electrodes)are identical, so it does not matter which lead is used.
A)True
B)False
Q3) During the cardiac cycle, the left atrium and ventricle contract simultaneously, and then the right atrium and ventricle contract at the same time.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Typically, the heart rate increases during inspiration, and decreases during expiration.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 48: Blood Vessel Structure, Arteries, and Veins
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Q1) All of the following are true of the differences between arteries and veins except
A)veins have one-way valves, but arteries do not.
B)arteries have a thicker tunica media than veins.
C)veins collapse when empty, but arteries remain rounded.
D)veins have a thicker tunica externa than arteries.
E)All of these are true of the differences between arteries and veins.
Q2) Which of the following arteries is not a branch of the aortic arch?
A)Left common carotid artery
B)Left subclavian artery
C)Right common carotid artery
D)Brachiocephalic trunk
E)All of these are branches of the aortic arch.
Q3) Which of the following is not true of the tunica interna?
A)It contains an epithelial layer of stratified squamous epithelium.
B)It is the innermost layer of an artery or vein.
C)It provides a smooth lining adjacent to the lumen of the blood vessel.
D)It contains a basement membrane in both arteries and veins.
E)All of these are true of the tunica interna.
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Chapter 49: Pulse Rate and Blood Pressure
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Q1) When a person suddenly moves from a supine position to a standing position, the blood pressure increases.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What is the most significant factor in determining the peripheral resistance in a blood vessel?
A)Hematocrit
B)Blood vessel diameter
C)Blood viscosity
D)Blood vessel length
E)All of these factors contribute equally to the peripheral resistance in a blood vessel.
Q3) When measuring blood pressure with a sphygmomanometer, the pressure at which the first loud tapping sound is heard is recorded as the ________ pressure.
A)systolic
B)mean arterial
C)coronary
D)diastolic
E)pulse
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Chapter 50: Lymphatic System
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Q1) The largest vessels of the lymphatic system are the
A)lymphatic collecting vessels.
B)lymph nodes.
C)collecting ducts.
D)lymphatic capillaries.
E)lymphatic trunks.
Q2) Which of the following is/are not considered to be (an)organ(s)of the lymphatic system?
A)Spleen
B)Thymus
C)Lymph nodes
D)Tonsils
E)All of these are considered to be organs of the lymphatic system.
Q3) Bacteria on a splinter in your shoulder would be filtered by lymph nodes in the ________ region.
A)axillary
B)inguinal
C)thoracic
D)supratrochlear
E)cervical
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Chapter 51: Respiratory Organs
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Q1) The paranasal sinuses open into the nasopharynx.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In the bronchial tree, terminal bronchioles branch directly into
A)alveolar sacs.
B)respiratory bronchioles.
C)alveoli.
D)large bronchioles.
E)alveolar ducts.
Q3) The walls of alveoli and their associated capillaries both consist of simple squamous epithelium.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The exchange oxygen and carbon dioxide in the tissues is called
A)tissue respiration.
B)cellular respiration.
C)pulmonary ventilation.
D)internal respiration.
E)external respiration.
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Chapter 52: Breathing and Respiratory Volumes
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Q1) Which of the following structures of the respiratory system is not part of the conducting division?
A)Trachea
B)Major bronchioles
C)Bronchi
D)Respiratory bronchioles
E)Larynx
Q2) All of the following factors would be expected to increase a person's vital capacity except
A)being male instead of female.
B)getting older.
C)being taller.
D)getting regular exercise.
E)being in good general health.
Q3) Normal, quiet expiration does not require any muscle contraction; it is entirely a result of muscle relaxation and elastic recoil.
A)True
B)False
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54
Chapter 53: Spirometry: Biopac Exercise
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Q1) A respiratory capacity is the sum of two or more volumes.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Total lung capacity (TLC)cannot be measured with a spirometer.
A)True
B)False
Q3) If you exhaled normally into the environment, and then blew all of the air that you could into a balloon, the volume of air in the balloon would represent the A)functional residual capacity (FRC).
B)expiratory capacity (EC).
C)inspiratory reserve volume (IRV).
D)vital capacity (VC).
E)expiratory reserve volume (ERV).
Q4) The expiatory reserve volume (ERV)is a much larger volume than the inspiratory reserve volume (IRV).
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 54: Control of Breathing
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Q1) What type(s)of muscle tissue make(s)up the muscles of inspiration and expiration?
A)Both consist of skeletal muscle.
B)Inspiratory muscles consist of skeletal muscle, and expiratory muscles consist of smooth muscle.
C)Inspiratory muscles consist of smooth muscle, and expiratory muscles consist of skeletal muscle.
D)Both consist of smooth muscle.
E)Inspiratory muscles consist of skeletal muscle, and expiratory muscles consist of cardiac muscle.
Q2) Muscles of inspiration include all of the following except the A)external obliques.
B)pectoralis minor.
C)scalenes.
D)external intercostals.
E)All of these are muscles of inspiration.
Q3) During normal, quiet breathing, inspirations last longer than expirations.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 55: Digestive Organs
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Q1) The splenic flexure of the large intestine is on the left side of the body.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A hepatic triad contains branches of all of the following vessels except
A)the hepatic vein.
B)a bile ductule.
C)the hepatic artery.
D)the hepatic portal vein.
E)a hepatic triad contains branches of all of these vessels.
Q3) Dentin forms most of a tooth, and it is the hardest substance in the body.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Bile is produced by the liver and gallbladder.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The stomach absorbs a significant amount of digested food.
A)True
B)False
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Page 57
Chapter 56: Action of a Digestive Enzyme
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Q1) When an enzyme catalyzes a chemical reaction, it is consumed in the process, so it cannot be used repeatedly.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In the amylase activity experiment, Benedict's solution tests for the presence of A)triglycerides.
B)amino acids.
C)protein.
D)maltose.
E)starch.
Q3) Pancreatic amylase has the same action as salivary amylase.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Temperatures much higher than the optimum temperature denature enzymes, but colder temperatures do not.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 57: Metabolism
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Q1) The majority of energy expended by the body is heat.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Metabolism is the sum of all of the chemical reactions within cells that release energy.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Oxygen consumption is normally directly proportional to metabolic rate.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following is not true of the conditions used to measure basal metabolic rate?
A)The person is awake and relaxed.
B)The person has not exercised for at least an hour.
C)The person is in a brightly lit room with a cool temperature.
D)The person has not eaten for 12-14 hours.
E)All of these are true of the conditions used to measure basal metabolic rate.
Q5) Anabolic reactions release energy, while catabolic reactions use energy.
A)True
B)False
59
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Chapter 58: Urinary Organs
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Q1) What is the first process of urine formation?
A)Micturition
B)Tubular secretion
C)Active transport
D)Tubular reabsorption
E)Glomerular filtration
Q2) Which of the following is not a function of the kidney?
A)Regulation of blood pressure
B)Regulation of blood pH
C)Regulation of water and electrolyte concentrations in the blood
D)Secretion of renin and erythropoietin
E)All of these are functions of the kidney.
Q3) The kidneys are located inside the double-layered peritoneal membrane, just like most of the other organs of the abdominopelvic cavity.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The urethra transports urine from the kidney to the bladder via peristaltic waves.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 59: Urinalysis
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Q1) Diabetes mellitus might be indicated in all of the following urinalysis results except A)the presence of glucose.
B)an abnormal decrease in pH.
C)the presence of ketones.
D)the presence of hemoglobin.
E)All of these may indicate diabetes mellitus.
Q2) Temperature has no effect on the specific gravity of a urine sample.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Glucosuria can have either a pathological or a nonpathological cause.
A)True
B)False
Q4) All of the following are evaluated as "physical characteristics" in a urinalysis except A)volume of the urine.
B)sediment analysis.
C)transparency.
D)odor.
E)color.
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Chapter 60: Male Reproductive System
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Q1) As spermatogenic cells mature, they migrate from the outer edge of the seminiferous tubule toward the lumen.
A)True
B)False
Q2) During the later part of fetal development, the testes descend into the scrotum through the
A)epididymis.
B)ejaculatory duct.
C)urethra.
D)inguinal canal.
E)ureters.
Q3) Which of the following is not true of the corpora cavernosa?
A)They are cylinders of erectile tissue.
B)They have the ability to cause an erection, by engorging with blood and trapping the blood temporarily.
C)They completely surround the urethra in the penis.
D)They are surrounded by the tunica albuginea.
E)All of these are true of the corpora cavernosa.
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Chapter 61: Female Reproductive System
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Q1) All of the following are external genitalia of the female except the A)clitoris.
B)vagina.
C)labia minora.
D)vestibular glands.
E)labia majora.
Q2) On a microscopic slide of the ovarian cortex, we are likely to see follicles in different stages of development (primordial follicles, primary follicles, secondary follicles, and mature follicles).
A)True
B)False
Q3) Primordial follicles are formed during ________ in a female.
A)the period between puberty and menopause
B)prenatal development
C)the entire lifetime
D)prenatal development and childhood
E)the period between childhood and menopause
Q4) The fornices are thin folds of mucosa that partly close the vaginal orifice.
A)True
B)False
Page 63
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Chapter 62: Meiosis, Fertilization, and Early Development
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Q1) During which phase of meiosis do synapsis and crossing over occur?
A)Prophase I
B)Metaphase I
C)Telophase II
D)Prophase II
E)Anaphase I
Q2) The decidua basalis of the endometrium and the chorionic villi of the fetus grow together to form the
A)placenta.
B)blastocyst.
C)amnion.
D)ectoderm.
E)morula.
Q3) Which of the following is not true of the process of meiosis?
A)It can also be called oogenesis in the female and spermatogenesis in the male.
B)Meiosis begins with a diploid parent cell that contains 46 chromosomes.
C)Meiosis ends with the production of diploid gametes that contain 23 chromosomes.
D)Meiosis consists of a double division.
E)All of these are true of meiosis.
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Chapter 63: Genetics
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Q1) In familial hypercholesterolemia, homozygous people with the abnormal gene have extremely high cholesterol, while heterozygous people have somewhat high cholesterol. This type of inheritance is called A)complete dominance.
B)incomplete dominance.
C)multiple alleles.
D)codominance.
E)sex-linked inheritance.
Q2) A male with red-green colorblindness could have received the recessive gene for this condition from either parent.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Astigmatism, a condition in which a defect in the curvature of the cornea or lens produces areas of blurred vision, is an example of a recessive trait.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Carriers of a recessive trait are always heterozygous for that trait.
A)True
B)False
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