Human Anatomy for Health Sciences Test Bank
Course Introduction
Human Anatomy for Health Sciences provides a comprehensive overview of the structure and function of the human body, focusing on key anatomical systems relevant to health science professions. The course covers the integumentary, skeletal, muscular, nervous, endocrine, cardiovascular, respiratory, digestive, urinary, and reproductive systems, emphasizing the interrelationships among body systems and the clinical relevance of anatomical features. Students gain foundational knowledge through lectures, laboratory experiences, and practical applications designed to prepare them for further studies in medicine, allied health, and related fields.
Recommended Textbook
The Human Body in Health and Illness 6th Edition by Barbara Herlihy
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2281 Verified Questions
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Chapter 1: Introduction to the Human Body
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following describes pain that is located immediately below the shoulder blade?
A)Cervical
B)Lumbar
C)Flank pain
D)Subscapular
Answer: D
Q2) The lung is located in the thoracic cavity.What is the relationship of the lung to the head?
A)Inferior
B)Deep
C)Anterior
D)Superior
Answer: A
Q3) The plantar region is
A)located in the upper extremities.
B)the bottom of the foot.
C)proximal to the knee.
D)the groin.
Answer: B
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Chapter 2: Basic Chemistry
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following increases the speed of a chemical reaction but is itself not used up in the chemical reaction?
A)An isotope
B)A cation
C)A catalyst
D)ATP
Answer: C
Q2) NaCl,table salt,is called a(n)
A)anion.
B)electrolyte.
C)cation.
D)ion.
Answer: B
Q3) What do the following have in common: Pb,plumbism,and plumber? All terms refer to
A)persons who work with pipes.
B)toxic effects of a trace element.
C)toxic cations.
D)lead.
Answer: D
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Chapter 3: Cells
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Sample Questions
Q1) A beaker is divided into two compartments by a semipermeable membrane.Compartment A contains a 20% NaCl solution and compartment B contains a 50% NaCl solution.The membrane is permeable to both water and Na and Cl-.At equilibrium,the
A)volume in compartment A will be greater than the volume in compartment B.
B)volume in compartment B will be greater than the volume in compartment A.
C)concentrations and volumes will be the same in both compartments.
D)concentration of salt is greater in compartment A than in compartment B.
Answer: C
Q2) If a cell is placed in a hypotonic solution such as water,the cell will A)crenate.
B)shrink.
C)swell and burst.
D)differentiate.
Answer: C
Q3) Prophase,metaphase,anaphase,and telophase
A)are stages of cytokinesis.
B)occur during G .
C)are concerned with the synthesis of DNA and the doubling of the chromosomes.
D)are stages of mitosis.
Answer: D
Page 5
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Chapter 4: Cell Metabolism
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Sample Questions
Q1) Glycogen is a(n)
A)alcohol,an end-product of fat digestion.
B)indigestible polysaccharide also called cellulose.
C)polysaccharide that is the storage form of glucose.
D)plant starch.
Q2) Which of the following is not a lipid or lipoid substance?
A)Steroids
B)Vitamins A,D,E,and K
C)Prostaglandins
D)Ammonia
Q3) Which of the following is descriptive of cholesterol?
A)Protein
B)Functions as an enzyme
C)Can be synthesized by the liver
D)Primary sequence and peptide bonds
Q4) This substance is composed of glycerol and three fatty acids.
A)Glycogen
B)Polypeptide
C)Steroid
D)Triglyceride
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Chapter 5: Microbiology Basics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is most related to the rusty nail infection?
A)Clostridium
B)Mycotic
C)Viral
D)Parasitic
Q2) Which of the following is called the acid-fast bacillus?
A)Staphylococcus aureus
B)Salmonella typhi
C)Mycobacterium tuberculosis
D)Clostridium tetani
Q3) With regard to infectious disease,arthropods most often act as A)parasites.
B)causative organisms of disease. C)vectors.
D)fomites.
Q4) Cocci,bacilli,and curved rods are classified as A)viruses.
B)pathogens.
C)bacteria.
D)parasites.
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Tissues and Membranes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the four major tissue types is able to regenerate and repair quickly when injured?
A)Nervous
B)Muscle
C)Epithelial
D)Connective
Q2) Fibro-,elastic,and hyaline are
A)striated epithelia.
B)found exclusively in the lungs where they function in gas exchange.
C)types of cartilage.
D)formed by osteocytes.
Q3) Simple squamous,pseudostratified,simple cuboidal,and stratified squamous
A)form tendons and connect muscle to bone.
B)form ligaments and connect bone to bone.
C)form continuous sheets and function in secretion,transport,and protection.
D)are types of nervous tissue.
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Chapter 7: Integumentary System and Body Temperature
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is descriptive of the epidermal layer?
A)It is nourished by blood vessels in the dermal layer.
B)It sits on the subcutaneous layer.
C)It sits inferior to the stratum germinativum.
D)It contains the cutaneous blood vessels,free nerve endings,tactile receptors,and arrector pili muscles.
Q2) Keratin is
A)found only in the hypodermis.
B)carried to the stratum corneum by the dermal blood vessels.
C)a protein that hardens and makes an epidermal cell water resistant.
D)pigment that makes the skin dark when exposed to the sun.
Q3) The hair follicle is
A)the part of the hair that is above the surface of the skin.
B)composed of epithelial cells.
C)composed of dead and keratinized cells.
D)that which we brush,blow dry,curl,and iron.
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Chapter 8: Skeletal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not a bone of the vertebral column?
A)Atlas
B)Sacrum
C)Coccyx
D)Coxal bone
Q2) Which group is incorrect?
A)Spinal curvatures: cervical,thoracic,lumbar,sacral
B)Abnormal curvatures of the spine: scoliosis,kyphosis,lordosis
C)Types of ribs: true,false,floating
D)Types of freely movable joints: hinge,ball-and-socket,and suture
Q3) Which of the following word(s) is (are) related to the ribs?
A)Acetabulum
B)True,false,and floating
C)Supination and pronation
D)Fontanels
Q4) Which bone is formed by the ischium,ilium,and pubis?
A)Sacrum
B)Cranium
C)Coxal bone
D)Breastbone
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Muscular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which flat muscle covers the forehead and raises the eyebrows (for a "surprised" look)?
A)Frontalis
B)Zygomaticus
C)Masseter
D)Buccinator
Q2) Which large muscle or muscle group extends the thigh at the hip?
A)Sartorius
B)Hamstring
C)Rotator cuff
D)Latissimus dorsi
Q3) "Pumping iron" is most likely to cause
A)atrophy.
B)contracture formation.
C)hypertrophy.
D)muscular dystrophy.
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Chapter 10: Nervous System: Nervous Tissue and Brain
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following best describes the arachnoid mater?
A)Limbic system
B)Meninges
C)Blood-brain barrier
D)Cranium
Q2) The surface of the cerebrum is folded into elevations that resemble speed bumps; these speed bumps are called
A)fissures.
B)sulci.
C)foramen.
D)convolutions,or gyri.
Q3) What is the name of the space between the axon of one neuron and the dendrite of a second neuron?
A)Vesicle
B)Cell body
C)Synapse
D)Node of Ranvier
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Chapter 11: Nervous System: Spinal Cord and Peripheral Nerves
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Sample Questions
Q1) Unlike most cranial nerves,this cranial nerve innervates organs in the thorax and abdominopelvic cavity.
A)Glossopharyngeal
B)Phrenic
C)Vagus
D)Trigeminal
Q2) Sensory information is carried by the cochlear branch of CN VIII to the A)primary auditory cortex.
B)occipital lobe.
C)temporal lobe.
D)More than one of the above are true.
Q3) Which of the following is true of CNs III,IV,and VI? All
A)are sensory and send information to the primary visual cortex.
B)stimulate the levator palpebrae superioris to raise the eyelid.
C)send information to the occipital lobe.
D)move the eyeballs.
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Chapter 12: Autonomic Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is an effect of postganglionic parasympathetic discharge?
A)Slowed heart rate
B)Increased blood pressure
C)Dilation of the pupil of the eye
D)Stronger contraction of the heart
Q2) Vagal discharge activates
A)muscarinic receptors.
B)alpha1-adrenergic receptors.
C)Beta -adrenergic receptors.
D)the paravertebral ganglia.
Q3) Which neurotransmitter is secreted by a cholinergic fiber?
A)Adrenaline
B)Epinephrine
C)Acetylcholine
D)Norepinephrine
Q4) Paravertebral ganglia
A)are part of the craniosacral outflow.
B)"drive" the vagus nerve.
C)are located within the organs of innervation.
D)are also called the sympathetic chain ganglia.
14
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Chapter 13: Sensory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The four rectus muscles and two oblique muscles
A)determine pupillary size.
B)move the eyeball.
C)are innervated by CNs III,IV,and VI.
D)More than one of the above are true.
Q2) Which cerebral lobe is concerned primarily with vision?
A)Precentral gyrus
B)Postcentral gyrus
C)Occipital
D)Corpus callosum
Q3) The malleus,incus,and stapes are called (the)
A)organ of Corti.
B)hearing receptors.
C)ossicles.
D)cartilage.
Q4) Mydriasis
A)refers to pupillary dilation.
B)is a response to muscarinic activation.
C)occurs when the circular muscle of the iris constricts.
D)reduces the amount of light that enters the eye.
15
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Chapter 14: Endocrine System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is most responsive to treatment with thyroxine?
A)Diabetes mellitus
B)Hyperglycemia
C)Myxedema
D)Graves' disease
Q2) Which of the following are concerned with "sugar,salt,and sex"?
A)Epinephrine,norepinephrine,and adrenaline
B)Glucagon,insulin,and thymosin
C)ICSH,FSH,and LH
D)Glucocorticoid,mineralocorticoid,and androgen
Q3) What is the most critical need for the child with newly diagnosed cretinism?
A)Thyroidectomy
B)Administration of a radioactive cocktail of 131I (radioactive iodine)
C)Replacement dose of thyroid hormones
D)Replacement dose of calcitonin
Q4) Which of the following is true of the hypothalamus?
A)Secretes releasing hormones into the portal capillaries
B)Composed of glandular tissue
C)Called the adenohypophysis
D)Connected to the neurohypophysis by the portal capillaries
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Blood
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following best characterizes the effects of hemophilia?
A)High fever
B)Infection
C)Jaundice
D)Bleeding
Q2) A secondary polycythemia is most often due to
A)hyperventilation.
B)chronic hypoxemia.
C)hypoglycemia.
D)glucosuria.
Q3) Which of the following is necessary for prothrombin synthesis?
A)Heparin
B)Calcium
C)Hemophilic factor
D)Vitamin K
Q4) Which type of anemia is associated with myelosuppression?
A)Folic acid deficiency
B)Aplastic
C)Hemolytic
D)Sickle cell
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Chapter 16: Anatomy of the Heart
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Sample Questions
Q1) Referring to the ECG,the P wave represents
A)atrial contraction.
B)ventricular relaxation.
C)atrial depolarization.
D)atrial repolarization.
Q2) What event causes the pulmonic valve to open?
A)The P wave
B)An increase in the pressure within the right ventricle
C)"Lubb-dupp"
D)Contraction of the chordae tendineae
Q3) Which of the following must precede ventricular contraction?
A)Ventricular systole
B)"Lubb-dupp"
C)Ventricular depolarization
D)Closing of the AV valves
Q4) Which of the following is part of the blood flow through the heart?
A)Left atrium
B)Left anterior descending artery
C)Circumflex artery
D)Right coronary artery
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Chapter 17: Function of the Heart
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Sample Questions
Q1) With which term is afterload most associated?
A)Preload
B)End-diastolic volume
C)Resistance
D)Hypoxemia
Q2) Digoxin exerts a (-) chronotropic effect and (+) inotropic effect.Which of the following describes these effects?
A)Slows heart rate and decreases cardiac output
B)Increases heart rate and increases systemic vascular resistance
C)Decreases heart rate and decreases stroke volume
D)Decreases heart rate and strengthens myocardial contraction
Q3) Which of the following describes Starling's law of the heart?
A)An increase in venous return to the ventricles causes an increase in cardiac output.
B)An increase in preload increases cardiac output.
C)A decrease in preload decreases cardiac output.
D)All of the above are true.
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Chapter 18: Anatomy of the Blood Vessels and Special
Circulations
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Q1) Through which blood vessel does blood not flow on its way from the aortic arch to the kidney?
A)Thoracic aorta
B)Descending aorta
C)Ascending aorta
D)Renal artery
Q2) Through which blood vessel does blood not flow on its way from the inferior vena cava to the right internal carotid artery?
A)Pulmonary artery
B)Right brachiocephalic artery
C)Vertebral artery
D)Right common carotid artery
Q3) Through which blood vessel does blood flow on its way from the right jugular vein to the coronary arteries?
A)Inferior vena cava
B)Portal vein
C)Right subclavian vein
D)Aortic arch
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Chapter 19: Functions of the Blood Vessels
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Sample Questions
Q1) If a child with nephrotic syndrome loses large amounts of albumin in the urine (albuminuria),
A)plasma oncotic pressure decreases and edema develops.
B)capillary hydrostatic pressure increases,causing edema.
C)plasma oncotic pressure increases,thereby "pulling" fluid into the capillary,causing poor skin turgor.
D)lymph flow decreases.
Q2) Which of the following is most likely to induce carotid sinus syncope?
A)Development of hypovolemic (low blood volume) shock,as in hemorrhage
B)Exertion of pressure over the carotid sinus (tight collar)
C)Administration of nitroglycerine (a vasodilator drug)
D)Administration of a diuretic for hypertension
Q3) If plasma oncotic pressure exceeds capillary pressure,
A)more fluid is filtered from the capillary into the interstitium.
B)more fluid moves into the capillary from the interstitium.
C)plasma proteins diffuse from the capillary into the interstitium.
D)blood volume decreases.
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Chapter 20: Lymphatic System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is least characteristic of the pharyngeal tonsils?
A)Lymphoid organs
B)Called adenoids
C)Protect body from infection
D)Most commonly removed by tonsillectomy
Q2) What is the term that refers to the removal of the palatine tonsils?
A)Appendectomy
B)Lymph node resection
C)Adenoidectomy
D)Tonsillectomy
Q3) The thoracic duct
A)filters lymph into the subclavian veins.
B)receives lymph from large lymphatic vessels that drain the left side of the body.
C)functions like a heart that pumps lymph throughout the body.
D)is a collection of lymph nodes.
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Chapter 21: Immune System
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Q1) Which of the following is most related to the placental transfer of antibodies from the mother to the fetus?
A)Naturally acquired active immunity
B)Naturally acquired passive immunity
C)Artificially acquired active immunity
D)Artificially acquired passive immunity
Q2) Which of the following best describes an abscess?
A)Blood-free serous fluid
B)Walled-off area of dead cells and their secretions
C)A systemic infection
D)Spread of infected cells to the brain
Q3) Which of the following words means "fever producing"?
A)Thermoregulation
B)Pathogenic
C)Febrile
D)Pyrogenic
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Chapter 22: Respiratory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which nerve innervates the diaphragm?
A)Intercostal nerve
B)Sciatic
C)Phrenic
D)Cranial nerve XI
Q2) Bronchiolar constriction is most likely to cause
A)pneumothorax.
B)pulmonary edema.
C)wheezing.
D)laryngitis.
Q3) Which structure has the thinnest wall?
A)Trachea
B)Bronchi
C)Larynx
D)Alveoli
Q4) The Hering-Breuer reflex
A)prevents overinflation of the lungs.
B)is a chemical reflex; no nerves are involved.
C)is important only in disease states.
D)is concerned only with sneezing and coughing.
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Chapter 23: Digestive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Chyle is found in the
A)portal vein.
B)stomach.
C)lacteals.
D)pancreas.
Q2) Which of the following is (are) true of cholecystokinin (CCK)?
A)Secreted by the walls of the duodenum in response to the presence of fat
B)Stimulates the LES to relax
C)Stimulates the pancreas to secrete insulin
D)All of the above
Q3) This structure is located between the pylorus and the jejunum.
A)Stomach
B)Duodenum
C)Cecum
D)Esophagus
Q4) The sphincter of Oddi,ampulla of Vater,and cystic duct
A)drain into the portal vein.
B)are biliary structures.
C)carry pancreatic enzymes to the duodenum.
D)connect the pylorus to the duodenum.
Page 25
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Chapter 24: Urinary System
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Q1) Glucose is not normally excreted in the urine because
A)glucose cannot be filtered.
B)all filtered glucose is reabsorbed.
C)glucose is used up by the metabolizing nephron units.
D)glucose is converted to ammonia in the distal tubule and excreted as urea.
Q2) Which of the following words best describes the function of the urinary bladder?
A)Filtration
B)Storage
C)Reabsorption
D)Buffering of H+
Q3) The "urine-making" structure of the kidney is the
A)urinary bladder.
B)nephron unit.
C)trigone.
D)renal pelvis.
Q4) The juxtaglomerular apparatus
A)secretes angiotensin in response to a decline in blood pressure.
B)is located within the walls of the collecting ducts.
C)secretes aldosterone.
D)is a blood pressure regulating structure.
Page 26
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Chapter 25: Water, Electrolyte, and Acidbase Balance
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Q1) Which of the following is an example of metabolic acidosis with a respiratory compensation?
A)Morphine overdose and diuresis
B)Persistent vomiting and hypoventilation
C)Ketoacidosis and Kussmaul respirations
D)Hypocalcemic tetany and hyperventilation
Q2) This anion is an important part of a major buffer pair and therefore plays an important role in acid-base regulation.
A)Na+
B)Bicarbonate
C)HCO -
D)Both B and C are true
Q3) A change of pH from 7.40 to 7.25
A)is indicative of expanded blood volume.
B)is indicative of alkalosis.
C)reflects an increase in the amount of H+ in the blood.
D)is within normal limits.
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Chapter 26: Reproductive Systems
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Q1) An elevation of plasma levels of estrogen and progesterone
A)stimulates the release of gonadotropins.
B)prevents the release of FSH and LH.
C)transforms the corpus luteum into the corpus albicans.
D)causes menstruation.
Q2) Which of the following is most likely to cause sterility in the female?
A)Benign prostatic hypertrophy
B)Cystitis
C)Repeated bouts of gonorrhea
D)Torn hymen
Q3) Which of the following is true of the fimbriae of the fallopian tubes?
A)They carry the fertilized ovum into the uterus.
B)They sweep the ovum into fallopian tubes at ovulation.
C)They help the sperm move from the uterus into the fallopian tubes.
D)They are hormone-secreting cells that help maintain the pregnant state.
Q4) The broad ligament supports the A)prostate gland.
B)testes.
C)breasts.
D)uterus.
Page 28
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Chapter 27: Human Development and Heredity
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Q1) What is the outer extraembryonic membrane that forms finger-like projections called villi and helps form the placenta?
A)Amnion
B)Chorion
C)Umbilicus
D)Trophoblast
Q2) From week 3 to week 8,the baby-to-be is called a(n)
A)zygote.
B)morula.
C)fetus.
D)embryo.
Q3) Which of the following is divided into trimesters?
A)Conception
B)Fertilization
C)Pregnancy
D)Ovulation
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