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Human Anatomy and Physiology is a foundational course that explores the structure and function of the human body. It covers key systems such as the musculoskeletal, nervous, cardiovascular, respiratory, digestive, endocrine, and reproductive systems, examining how they work individually and together to maintain homeostasis. The course integrates concepts of cell biology and genetics to explain physiological processes and responses to internal and external changes. Through lectures, laboratory exercises, and practical applications, students gain a comprehensive understanding of how anatomical structures support physiological functions and how these systems interact to sustain human life.
Recommended Textbook
Principles of Anatomy and Physiology 14th Edition by Gerard J. Tortora
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Q1) Which cavity is located inferior to the abdominal cavity?
A)vertebral canal
B)cranial cavity
C)abdominal cavity
D)pericardial cavity
E)pelvic cavity
Answer: E
Q2) Which plane divides the body into equal right and left halves?
A)frontal
B)midsagittal
C)transverse
D)oblique
E)coronal
Answer: B
Q3) Describe the differences between positive and negative feedback systems.
Answer: A positive feedback system will strengthen or reinforce a change in one of the body's controlled conditions while a negative feedback system will reverse a change in a controlled condition.
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Q1) A chemical compound that helps control the pH of a solution by adding or removing hydrogen ions is a(n)
A)electrolyte.
B)salt.
C)cation.
D)colloid.
E)buffer.
Answer: E
Q2) Which of the following describes the major significance of the element carbon in the human body?
A)ionized form makes body fluids acidic
B)constituent of water
C)forms backbone of all organic molecules
D)required to harden the structure of bones and teeth
E)ionized form is the part of hemoglobin that carries oxygen
Answer: C
Q3) Describe the structural characteristics of an amino acid.
Answer: Amino acids contain a central carbon atom with 1)a hydrogen atom,2)an amino group,3)an acidic carboxyl group,and 4)a side chain attached to it.
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Q1) The following is a particular sequence of codon on mRNA: ACU.What is the corresponding anti-codon for the tRNA?
A)UGA
B)UCA
C)TGA
D)TCA
E)AUC
Answer: A
Q2) What compound would a cell lacking ribosomes be unable to make?
A)lipids
B)nucleotides
C)proteins
D)carbohydrates
E)phospholipids
Answer: C
Q3) Briefly describe the fluid mosaic model.
Answer: The fluid mosaic model states that the molecular arrangement of the plasma membrane resembles an ever-moving sea of fluid lipids containing a mosaic of many different proteins.
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Q1) Which component of connective tissue is found between the cells and fibers,and functions to support and bind cells in the tissue together?
A)Matrix
B)Formed elements
C)Ground substance
D)Basement membrane
E)Plasma membrane
Q2) In which of the following types of membranes would you expect to find goblet cells?
A)mucous membrane
B)serous membrane
C)cutaneous membrane
D)synovial membrane
E)plasma membrane
Q3) Functional classification of exocrine glands is based on A)shape of the gland.
B)size of the gland.
C)how the gland release its secretory product.
D)how the gland synthesizes its secretory product.
E)All of these answer choices are correct.
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Q1) Which of the following terms refers to reddened,elevated,and itchy patches of skin commonly caused by emotional stress,physical trauma,or certain food allergies?
A)wart
B)hives
C)papule
D)cyst
E)eczema
Q2) Which of the following structures found in the skin plays an important role in thermoregulation?
A)Tactile epithelial cells (Merkel cells)
B)Sebaceous glands
C)Sweat glands
D)Nails
E)Fingerprints
Q3) Describe the structural characteristics of the epidermis that contribute to its ability to protect the surface of an animal.
Q4) Briefly describe the steps in epidermal wound healing.
Q5) Describe the structure and function of the different types of exocrine glands found in the skin
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Q1) Patient X has a tumor of the parathyroid glands that causes a hypersecretion of PTH from these glands.Predict the effect this hypersecretion would have on the skeletal system and on the secretion of calcitonin from the thyroid gland.
Q2) An archeologist and an anthropologist are studying two skeletons from an ancient tomb that had apparently been looted in an earlier time.Both skeletons are females and both are approximately the same height.However,the anthropologist is absolutely certain that one skeleton is the remains of someone from the privileged class while the other skeleton is the remains of a servant or slave. How could the anthropologist be so sure of the economic status of the individuals based solely on their skeletal remains?
Q3) Like other _____,bone tissue contains an abundant extracellular matrix that surrounds widely separated cells.
A)epithelial tissues
B)muscular tissues
C)nervous tissues
D)connective tissues
E)facial tissues
Q4) Briefly,explain how blood calcium level is regulated.
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Q1) The pituitary gland is contained in a depression found in this cranial bone.
A)Ethmoid
B)Sphenoid
C)Lacrimal
D)Temporal
E)Parietal
Q2) Which bone of the axial skeleton does NOT articulate with any other bone?
A)Vertebrae
B)Ethmoid
C)Sternum
D)Hyoid
E)Ilium
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a facial bone?
A)Vomer
B)Palatine
C)Lacrimal
D)Occipital
E)Mandible
Q4) Briefly describe the function of the fontanels.
Q5) Briefly describe the function of the paranasal sinuses.
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Q1) The medial and lateral condyles of the femur fit into what part of the patella?
A)Articular facets
B)Base of the patella
C)Tibiofemoral crest
D)Apex of the patella
E)None of these choices are correct.
Q2) Which of the structures listed below is NOT part of the knee joint?
A)Lateral condyle of the femur
B)Medial condyle of the femur
C)Lateral malleolus of the fibula
D)Condyles of the tibia
E)Patella
Q3) Which of the following bones is located in the posterior thorax between the levels of second and seventh vertebrae?
A)Sternum
B)Clavicle
C)Pelvis
D)Scapula
E)Sacrum
Q4) Name the bones that are included in each lower limb.
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Q1) Bending the trunk forward at the intervertebral discs is an example of what type of angular movement?
A)Flexion
B)Extension
C)Lateral flexion
D)Hyperextension
E)None of these choices
Q2) Bursae are saclike structures that are commonly found between bone and A)skin.
B)muscle.
C)ligaments.
D)tendons.
E)all the other answer selections.
Q3) The joint between the first rib and the manubrium of the sternum is classified as A)a synchondrosis.
B)a synarthrosis.
C)a cartilaginous joint.
D)All of these choices.
E)None of these choices.
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Q1) Which of the following are commonly used to produce ATP during skeletal muscle contraction?
A)creatine phosphate
B)anaerobic cellular respiration
C)aerobic cellular respiration
D)All of these choices are correct.
E)None of these choices are correct.
Q2) Which of the following statements does NOT accurately describe aerobic cellular respiration in skeletal muscles?
A)Pyruvic acid generated by glycolysis enters the mitochondria.
B)O2 is essential.
C)CO2 is produced as a waste product.
D)Lactic acid is continually produced.
E)Can be used to generate ATP from fats,proteins or carbohydrates.
Q3) List the four steps of the contraction cycle in order of occurrence.What is needed for these steps to continuously repeat?
Q4) What are the three ways that ATP can be produced in muscle fibers?
Q5) Compare and contrast the structural characteristics of the three different types of muscular tissue.
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Q1) Motion will occur in a muscle when the _____ supplied exceeds the _____.
A)effort,load
B)resistance,lever
C)load,effort
D)load,resistance
E)lever,effort
Q2) If one is stabbed on the lateral side of the abdomen,what abdominal muscles,in order from superficial to deep,will the knife go through?
A)rectus abdominis,external oblique,internal oblique
B)external oblique,internal oblique,transversus abdominis
C)transversus abdominis,rectus abdominis,external oblique
D)external oblique,transversus abdominis,rectus abdominis
E)internal oblique,transversus abdominis,external oblique
Q3) All of the following are muscles that move the eyeball EXCEPT
A)superior rectus.
B)lateral rectus.
C)inferior oblique.
D)internal oblique.
E)superior oblique.
Q4) Discuss the roles of agonists,antagonists,synergists,and fixators in movement.
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Q1) This type of neural circuit consists of a single presynaptic neuron synapsing with several postsynaptic neurons.
A)Diverging circuit
B)Converging circuit
C)Reverberating circuit
D)Parallel after-discharge circuit
E)Normal circuit
Q2) Describe the difference between spatial and temporal summation in a postsynaptic neuron.
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a function of the nervous system?
A)Sensory function
B)Integrative function
C)Motor function
D)All are functions of the nervous system
Q4) A polarized cell
A)has a charge imbalance across its membrane.
B)includes most cells of the body.
C)exhibits a membrane potential.
D)includes most cells of the body and exhibits a membrane potential.
E)All of these choices are correct.
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Q1) Which of the structures listed below contains cerebrospinal fluid?
A)Epidural space
B)Subarachnoid space
C)Dural space
D)Meninx
E)Pia mater
Q2) A severed obturator nerve will lead into paralysis of which region of the body?
A)Cervical
B)Thoracic
C)Lumbar
D)Thigh
E)Arms
Q3) The cell bodies of the sensory neurons that carry information from the periphery to the spinal cord are located in the A)anterior white commissure.
B)central canal.
C)lateral gray horn.
D)posterior root ganglion.
E)posterior gray horn.
Q4) Describe the gross external anatomy of the spinal cord.
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Q1) Damage to which portion of the limbic system results in loss of memory of recent events and difficulty committing anything new to memory?
A)amygdala
B)dentate gyrus
C)cingulate gyrus
D)hippocampus
E)septal nuclei
Q2) Cerebrospinal fluid carries small amounts of chemicals like glucose from the _____ to neurons and neuroglia.
A)interstitial fluid
B)bile
C)intracellular fluid
D)arachnoid space
E)blood
Q3) Describe the structural and functional relationship between the hypothalamus and the pituitary gland.
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Q1) Which of the following descriptions of a preganglionic neuron is NOT correct?
A)Has axons that exit the CNS in a cranial or spinal nerve.
B)Has myelinated axons.
C)Forms the first part of an autonomic motor pathway.
D)Has its cell body in the brain or spinal cord.
E)Forms gap junctions with postganglionic neurons in autonomic ganglia.
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a sympathetic prevertebral ganglion?
A)Celiac ganglion
B)Ciliary ganglion
C)Superior mesenteric ganglion
D)Inferior mesenteric ganglion
E)All are prevertebral ganglia
Q3) Which of the following types of neurons would normally have the shortest axon?
A)Somatic motor neurons
B)Preganglionic parasympathetic neurons
C)Postganglionic sympathetic neurons
D)Preganglionic sympathetic neurons
E)Somatosensory neurons.
Q4) Explain why the sympathetic division of the ANS has more widespread and longer-lasting effects than the parasympathetic division.
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Q1) What layer of the skin contains the cold thermoreceptors?
A)Stratum lucidum
B)Dermis
C)Stratum basale
D)Stratum corneum
E)Hypodermis
Q2) Which condition is a state of unconsciousness in which a person's responses to stimuli are reduced or absent?
A)narcolepsy
B)insomnia
C)sleep apnea
D)coma
E)amnesia
Q3) What are the three types of sensory receptors categorized based on their location and the origin of stimuli that activate them? What is the nature of the stimuli that cause their excitation?
Q4) You are sitting on a sunny Florida beach experiencing the sensation of warmth.Describe the anatomical structures and physiological events that allow you to perceive the warmth of the sun.
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Q1) During embryonic development,the external ear develops from a structure called the first
A)pharyngeal pouch.
B)pharyngeal cleft.
C)otic placodes.
D)otic vesicle.
E)rhombencephalon.
Q2) List and briefly describe the three processes that are used by the eye to form a clear image of object on the retina.
Q3) The smell receptors that actually bind the odorants and begin signal transduction are located on
A)olfactory hairs.
B)glial cells.
C)basal stem cells.
D)Bowman's glands.
E)gustatory receptor cells.
Q4) Differentiate between static and dynamic equilibrium.Describe the inner ear structures involved in receiving and transducing sensations involved in maintaining both types of equilibria.
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Q1) Which of the following conditions would result from hyposecretion of aldosterone?
A)Decreased heart rate
B)Decreased airway dilation
C)Dehydration
D)Decreased oxygen delivery to the brain
E)Metabolic acidosis
Q2) The amount of ADH that is secreted by the posterior pituitary glands varies with
A)blood osmotic pressure.
B)blood calcium levels.
C)blood oxygen levels.
D)blood glucose levels.
E)All of these choices.
Q3) Which of the following anterior pituitary hormones stimulates general body growth?
A)Growth hormone
B)Prolactin
C)Thyrotropin
D)Luteinizing hormone
E)Adrenocorticotropic hormone
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Q1) Explain the proposed role of hemoglobin in the regulation of blood flow and blood pressure.
Q2) Serum is
A)the same as plasma.
B)plasma without the clotting factors.
C)the same as lymph.
D)formed during the first step in blood clotting.
E)pulmonary interstitial fluid.
Q3) The process by which the formed elements of the blood develop is called A)hematospermia. B)hemopoiesis.
C)thrombocytosis.
D)hemostasis. E)polycythemia.
Q4) The hematocrit is a measure of the percentage of whole blood occupied by A)WBCs. B)platelets.
C)RBCs. D)plasma. E)plasma proteins.
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Q1) Define arrhythmia and discuss different categories of arrhythmias.
Q2) The membrane that surrounds and protects the heart is called the A)pericardium.
B)pleura.
C)myocardium.
D)mediastinum.
E)endocardium.
Q3) The apex of the heart is normally pointed
A)at the midline.
B)to the left of the midline.
C)to the right of the midline.
D)is different for males and females
E)posteriorly.
Q4) Which of the following type of muscle contains the largest number of mitochondria per cell?
A)Smooth muscle
B)Skeletal muscle
C)Cardiac muscle
D)All the muscle types contain approximately the same number.
E)Mitochondria are not found in muscle cells.
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Q1) Which of the following would be a normal response of the cardiovascular system to a decreased frequency of action potentials arising from the baroreceptors?
A)Increased systemic vascular resistance
B)Increased parasympathetic stimulation
C)Decreased heart rate
D)Decreased stroke volume
E)Decreased cardiac output
Q2) All of the following changes are commonly observed in the cardiovascular system in response to aging EXCEPT
A)decreased cardiac output.
B)increased compliance of the aorta.
C)loss of cardiac muscle strength.
D)decline in maximum heart rate.
E)increased systolic blood pressure.
Q3) What is a portal vein? Describe the hepatic portal circulation.
Q4) Describe the vessel wall characteristics of the five main types of blood vessels that blood travels through from the time it leaves the left ventricle until it returns to the right atrium.
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Q1) Which of the following is an effect of stress on the immune system?
A)Increased activity of T lymphocytes
B)Increased activity of B lymphocytes
C)Activation of the immune system
D)Inhibition of the immune system
E)Increased production of antibodies
Q2) Which of the following is not considered an organ of the immune system?
A)Spleen
B)Lymph node
C)Red bone marrow
D)Thymus
E)Pancreas
Q3) Which anti-microbial substances promote cytolysis,phagocytosis and inflammation?
A)Transferrins
B)Perforins
C)Complement proteins
D)Defensins
E)Interferons
Q5) Describe the barriers used in innate defense. Page 24
Q4) Describe how lymphatic capillaries are one-way only vessels.
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Q1) Describe the neural,chemical,and physical changes that increase the rate and depth of ventilation during exercise.
Q2) Which of the following is a forced exhalation against the closed rima glottidis as may occur during periods of straining while defecating?
A)sobbing
B)coughing
C)crying
D)hiccupping
E)Valsalva maneuver
Q3) When blood pH drops,the amount of oxyhemoglobin _____ and oxygen delivery to the tissue cells _____.
A)Increases,increases
B)Increases,decreases
C)Decreases,increases
D)Decreases,decreases
E)Does not change,does not change
Q4) Describe the inward forces of elastic recoil,and explain why the lungs do not normally collapse during expiration.
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Q1) Which cell secretes the hormone that promotes production of hydrochloric acid?
A)Neck cell
B)Chief cell
C)G cell
D)Chyme cell
E)Parietal cell
Q2) Describe the structural characteristics of the small intestine that enhance its function as the major absorber of nutrients.
Q3) Which digestive aid,produced by the stomach,begins digestion by denaturing proteins?
A)Bicarbonate ion
B)mucus
C)Bile
D)Hydrochloric acid
E)Water
Q4) Explain why food does not normally go up into your nasal cavity or down into your lungs when you swallow-even if you are standing on your head when you swallow.
Q5) Describe the structures and functions of the enteric nervous system.
Q6) Describe the role of the liver in protein metabolism.
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Q1) Which process describes the synthesis of triglycerides?
A)Gluconeogensis
B)Lipogenesis
C)Phosphorylation
D)Glycolysis
E)Lipolysis
Q2) Which of the following is a derivative of riboflavin?
A)NAD
B)FAD
C)Lactic acid
D)Pyruvic acid
E)ADP
Q3) Which mineral is the most abundant mineral in the body?
A)Calcium
B)Sodium
C)Magnesium
D)Phosphorus
E)Iron
Q4) Why are 10 of the amino acids in the human body designated as essential amino acids?
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Q1) This transports urine from the kidney to the bladder.
A)Urethra
B)Ureter
C)Descending nephron loop
D)Renal hilus
E)None of these choices
Q2) This is the formation of a new glucose molecule.
A)glycolysis
B)gluconeogenesis
C)glucosamine
D)glucose
E)calcitriol
Q3) This is smooth dense irregular connective tissue that is continuous with the outer coat of the ureter.
A)adipose capsule
B)renal capsule
C)renal hilus
D)renal cortex
E)renal medulla
Q4) Discuss the importance of countercurrent flow to the functioning of the nephron.
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Q1) Which imbalance results when systemic arterial blood HCO<sub>3</sub><sup>-</sup> levels drop significantly (below 22 mEq/liter)?
A)Metabolic alkalosis
B)Metabolic acidosis
C)Respiratory acidosis
D)Respiratory alkalosis
E)None of these choices
Q2) Buffer systems,exhaling carbon dioxide and excretion by the kidneys,are all
A)Ways to balance interstitial fluid
B)Means of balancing blood volume
C)Ways of controlling H<sup>+</sup> levels in the body
D)Ways to make ions
E)Ways to increase blood volume
Q3) Which of the following occurs when water loss is greater than water gain?
A)Dehydration
B)Evaporation
C)Precipitation
D)Insensible loss
E)None of these choices

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Q1) Describe the functions of testosterone.
Q2) Which ligament arises from the pubic symphysis in males?
A)Fundiform ligament
B)Broad ligament
C)Suspensory ligament
D)Ejaculatory ligament
E)Perineum ligament
Q3) Which of the following is a fungal disease of the reproductive system?
A)Syphilis
B)Gonorrhea
C)Candidiasis
D)Genital Herpes
E)Chlamydia
Q4) Menarche is the
A)first menses
B)permanent cessation of menses
C)first sign of sperm production
D)time of first ovulation
E)type of vaginal contraceptive
Q5) Describe the positive feedback loop involved in ovulation.
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Q1) Which of the following is the connection between the placenta and the embryo?
A)Amnion
B)Chorion
C)Umbilical cord
D)Placenta
E)Capillary beds
Q2) Which of the following is a noninvasive prenatal test?
A)AFP
B)CVS
C)Amniocentesis
D)All of these
E)None of these
Q3) Which of the following structures is(are)produced from the endoderm?
A)Cartilage
B)Dermis of the skin
C)Kidneys and ureters
D)Internal and external ear
E)Gametes
Q4) Distinguish between genotype and phenotype and explain how the environment may affect each.
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