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Human Anatomy and Physiology is a foundational course that explores the structure and function of the human body. Students will learn about the organization of the body from cells and tissues to organs and systems, examining how these components work together to maintain health and homeostasis. The course covers major systems such as the skeletal, muscular, nervous, circulatory, respiratory, digestive, and reproductive systems, emphasizing both anatomical features and physiological processes. Through laboratory exercises, diagrams, and clinical examples, students gain a comprehensive understanding of how the human body operates and adapts to internal and external challenges.
Recommended Textbook
The Human Body in Health and Illness 3rd Edition by Barbara L. Herlihy
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27 Chapters
1314 Verified Questions
1314 Flashcards
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Q1) Which area appears only on the anterior part of the body?
A) popliteal
B) umbilical
C) lumbar
D) occipital
Answer: B
Q2) Which area appears only on the posterior part of the body?
A) gluteal
B) patellar
C) umbilical
D) sternal
Answer: A
Q3) The foot is located ____________ to the leg.
A) proximal
B) superior
C) superficial
D) distal
Answer: D
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Q1) What is the energy-transferring molecule?
A) H
B) ATP
C) Ca<sup>2+</sup>
D) NaCl
Answer: B
Q2) Zinc,selenium,cobalt,and iodine are all
A) trace elements.
B) compounds.
C) radioactive.
D) isotopes of hydrogen.
Answer: A
Q3) Which of the following illustrates antacid activity?
A) NaCl --> Na + Cl
B) HCl --> H + Cl
C) Mg(OH) + HCl --> MgCl + H O
D) KCl ---> K + Cl
Answer: C
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Q1) A beaker is divided into two compartments by a semipermeable membrane.Compartment A contains a 20% NaCl solution while compartment B contains a 50% NaCl solution.The membrane is permeable to both water and Na and Cl-.At equilibrium,the
A) volume in compartment A will be greater than the volume in compartment B.
B) volume in compartment B will be greater than the volume in compartment A.
C) concentrations and volumes will be the same in both compartments.
D) the concentration of salt is greater in compartment A than in compartment B.
Answer: C
Q2) Which structure puts the finishing touches on and packages the protein for export from the cell?
A) mitochondrion
B) Golgi apparatus
C) lysosome
D) nucleolus
Answer: B
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Q1) Gluconeogenesis
A) increases blood cholesterol.
B) increases urea synthesis.
C) increases blood glucose.
D) causes hypoglycemia.
Q2) In G?,the cell is
A) resting.
B) undergoing mitosis.
C) duplicating DNA.
D) making mRNA.
Q3) Which of the following forms most ATP?
A) glycolysis
B) conversion of glucose to glycogen
C) aerobic catabolism of glucose
D) catabolism of glucose to lactic acid
Q4) Which of the following is least related to lactic acid?
A) glycolysis
B) Krebs cycle
C) anaerobic
D) cytoplasmic
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Q1) This group includes single-cell animal-like microbes such as amebas.
A) bacilli
B) arthropods
C) viruses
D) protozoa
Q2) An abscess is
A) an example of a systemic infection.
B) always viral in origin.
C) an example of a mycotic infection.
D) an example of a localized infection.
Q3) Typhoid Mary harbored the Salmonella pathogen in her A) urine (kidneys).
B) respiratory secretions (lungs).
C) nasal secretions (nose).
D) bile (gallbladder).
Q4) Rocky Mountain spotted fever is most effectively treated with an A) antiviral drug.
B) anthelmintic drug.
C) antibiotic drug.
D) antifungal drug.

Page 7
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Sample Questions
Q1) Identify the type of cell that conducts an action potential or electrical signal.
A) astrocyte
B) glial cell
C) neuron
D) ependymal cell
Q2) This type of tissue allows for the rapid diffusion of oxygen from the alveoli in the lungs to the blood.
A) osseous
B) fascia
C) simple squamous epithelium
D) synovial membrane
Q3) Which of the four major tissue types is able to regenerate and repair quickly when injured?
A) nervous
B) muscle
C) epithelial
D) connective
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Sample Questions
Q1) Ceruminous glands
A) secrete vernix caseosa.
B) are sebaceous glands.
C) secrete wax in the outer ear.
D) are responsible for the summer tan.
Q2) Radiation,conduction,convection,and evaporation are terms that are concerned with
A) heat loss.
B) skin color.
C) sweat glands.
D) exocrine secretions.
Q3) Which of the following substances makes the skin water-resistant?
A) melanin
B) iron pigments
C) keratin
D) carotene
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Q1) Osteons are found primarily
A) within the medullary cavity.
B) in the diaphysis.
C) on the outer surface of the articular cartilage.
D) within the epiphyseal disc.
Q2) The acetabulum
A) receives the head of the femur.
B) is the crest part of the iliac crest.
C) is located anterior to the symphysis pubis.
D) is a depression in the scapula.
Q3) Which bone structure is most concerned with hematopoiesis?
A) diaphysis
B) bone marrow
C) articular cartilage
D) epiphyseal disc
Q4) Which word(s)best reflect(s)the function of the epiphyseal disc?
A) blood cell formation
B) phagocytosis
C) secretion of synovial fluid
D) longitudinal growth
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Q1) This muscle lies along the posterior surface of the upper arm;it extends the forearm and is used to bear weight in crutch walking.
A) biceps brachii
B) biceps femoris
C) deltoid
D) triceps brachii
Q2) Actin is
A) located within the neuromuscular junction.
B) contractile protein that is called a thin filament.
C) called the thick filament.
D) stored within the sarcoplasmic reticulum.
Q3) The gastrocnemius and the soleus are commonly called the
A) swimmer's muscles.
B) toe dancer's muscles.
C) muscles of mastication.
D) trumpeter's muscles.
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Q1) The medulla oblongata descends as the A) diencephalons.
B) hypothalamus.
C) cerebellum.
D) spinal cord.
Q2) What is the name of the motor speech area located in the frontal lobe?
A) the brain stem
B) the pons
C) Broca's area
D) the diencephalon
Q3) Endorphins are
A) natural morphine-like substances that can reduce anxiety and induce a sense of well-being.
B) energy sources much like ATP.
C) secreted by the choroid plexus and circulated within the subarachnoid space.
D) waste products generated by depolarizing neurons.
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Q1) The gag reflex is mediated by this nerve.
A) optic nerve
B) oculomotor nerve
C) cranial nerve VIII
D) glossopharyngeal nerve
Q2) Which of the following is located within the spinal cavity?
A) cauda equina
B) cervical plexus
C) brachial plexus
D) vagus nerve
Q3) What nerve is damaged by an ototoxic drug?
A) cranial nerve II
B) cranial nerve III
C) cranial nerve VIII
D) cranial nerve X
Q4) At which structure are spinal nerves grouped and sorted?
A) a ganglion
B) a nucleus
C) a plexus
D) the cauda equina

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Q1) Which of the following is least associated with monoamine oxidase (MAO)?
A) enzyme that degrades norepinephrine
B) found within all cholinergic nerve terminals
C) associated with sympathetic activity
D) associated with adrenergic fibers
Q2) What is another term for thoracolumbar outflow? 12-PAGE 2
Test Bank
A) vagal discharge
B) parasympathetic nervous system
C) sympathetic nervous system
D) limbic system
Q3) Which of the following is an effect of postganglionic parasympathetic discharge?
A) slowed heart rate
B) increased blood pressure
C) dilation of the pupil of the eye
D) stronger contraction of the heart
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Q1) Which group is incorrect?
A) special senses:hearing,sight,smell,taste,balance,pain,pressure
B) errors of refraction:myopia,farsightedness,astigmatism,presbyopia
C) structures of the inner ear:semicircular canals,vestibule,cochlea
D) ossicles:malleus,incus,stapes
Q2) Which of the following best describes pupillary dilation?
A) miosis
B) refraction
C) amblyopia
D) mydriasis
Q3) The superior rectus muscle
A) causes miosis.
B) causes mydriasis.
C) moves the eyeball.
D) regulates accommodation.
Q4) The conjunctiva
A) covers the cornea.
B) is a mucous membrane.
C) contains blood vessels that nourish the retina.
D) secretes aqueous humor.
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Q1) Portal capillaries carry releasing hormones from the brain to the A) neurohypophysis.
B) pancreas.
C) anterior pituitary gland.
D) posterior pituitary gland.
Q2) The islets of Langerhans
A) are cells found in the adenohypophysis.
B) secrete insulin and glucagon.
C) secrete steroids.
D) secrete releasing hormones.
Q3) Which of the following hormones are found within the hypophyseal hypothalamic portal capillaries?
A) gonadotropins
B) releasing hormones
C) catecholamines
D) mineralocorticoids
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Q1) Prothrombin,thrombin,and fibrinogen
A) form the platelet plug.
B) activate factor VIII (antihemophilic factor).
C) are involved in coagulation.
D) are responsible for agglutination.
Q2) This type of blood is called the universal donor.
A) O
B) AB
C) A
D) B
Q3) The word icterus refers to
A) infection.
B) bleeding.
C) jaundice.
D) fever.
Q4) Which of the following is necessary for prothrombin synthesis?
A) heparin
B) calcium
C) hemophilic factor
D) vitamin K
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Q1) The pericardium is a part of the
A) myocardium.
B) diaphragm.
C) epicardium.
D) endocardium.
Q2) The Purkinje fibers
A) open valves.
B) pull on the cusps of the valves.
C) conduct electrical signals throughout the ventricles.
D) close valves.
Q3) Which group is incorrect?
A) semilunar valves:pulmonic,aortic
B) structures that carry oxygenated blood:pulmonary veins,left ventricle,aorta
C) layers of the heart:epicardium,myocardium,endocardium
D) abnormal heart rates:tachycardia,bradycardia,normal sinus rhythm
Q4) What are ventricles "doing" during atrial contraction?
A) pumping blood into the great vessels
B) closing their AV valves
C) relaxing
D) opening their semilunar valves

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Q1) Systole and diastole describe the function of the A) pericardium.
B) SA node.
C) myocardium.
D) mediastinum.
Q2) Most of the symptoms of acute left-sided heart failure are
A) relieved by morphine.
B) cured by an antibiotic.
C) respiratory in nature (e.g.,dyspnea,orthopnea).
D) confined to the lower extremities as in pedal edema.
Q3) Vagal stimulation on the heart
A) increases the force of myocardial contraction.
B) increases the amount of blood that flows into the heart from the vena cava.
C) causes tachycardia.
D) slows the heart rate.
Q4) What term refers to the amount of blood pumped by the ventricle in one beat?
A) cardiac output
B) blood volume
C) hematocrit
D) stroke volume

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Q1) Which artery is most often used to evaluate the pulse?
A) carotid
B) brachial
C) femoral
D) radial
Q2) If the ductus arteriosus fails to close after birth,blood shunts from the aorta to the
A) pulmonary artery.
B) pulmonary veins.
C) coronary artery.
D) vena cava.
Q3) This blood vessel name means "slumber." If pressure is exerted over this vessel,the patient may lose consciousness.
A) carotid artery
B) portal vein
C) subclavian vein
D) aorta
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Q1) Which term refers to drugs that cause vasodilation and reduce vascular resistance?
A) diuretics
B) antihypertensive drugs
C) inotropic drugs
D) sympathomimetic drugs
Q2) With which word/phrase is afterload most associated?
A) heart rate
B) arteriolar vasoconstriction
C) (+)inotropic effect
D) venous return
Q3) These blood vessels have very thin walls and are called the exchange vessels.
A) arterioles
B) veins
C) capillaries
D) arteries
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Q1) Which of the following conditions is most likely to cause a platelet deficiency?
A) lymphedema
B) a hyperactive spleen
C) lymphadenopathy
D) infectious mononucleosis
Q2) Where does lymph originally come from?
A) spleen
B) thoracic duct
C) interstitial spaces
D) lymph nodes
Q3) These structures are located near the opening of the nasal cavity in the upper throat and are also called the adenoids.
A) palatine tonsils
B) thymus glands
C) lingual tonsils
D) pharyngeal tonsils
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Q1) An allergen is a(n)
A) antibody.
B) macrophage.
C) lymphokine.
D) antigen.
Q2) IgE,IgA,IgM,and IgG are
A) antigens.
B) interferons.
C) antibodies.
D) complement proteins.
Q3) What is the term that refers to the level of antibodies in your blood?
A) T cell count
B) titer
C) white blood cell count
D) hematocrit
Q4) Which cells secrete a lymphokine that stimulates both T and B cells?
A) platelets
B) killer T cells
C) erythrocytes
D) helper T cells
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Q1) Which of the following is most likely to cause hypoxia?
A) Kussmaul respirations
B) hyperventilation
C) medullary depression
D) brain stem stimulation
Q2) Boyle's law states the relationship between volume and A) O2.
B) CO2.
C) pressure.
D) H2O.
Q3) The lungs are located within the A) mediastinum.
22-PAGE 2
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B) dorsal cavity.
C) spinal cavity.
D) thoracic cavity.
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Q1) The hepatic flexure does not involve the
A) ascending colon.
B) esophagus.
C) transverse colon.
D) large intestine.
Q2) A drug that blocks vagal activity
A) slows GI motility and reduces GI secretions.
B) increases the secretion of bile.
C) speeds up peristalsis.
D) causes diarrhea.
Q3) Which of the following refers to the roof of the mouth?
A) uvula
B) tonsil
C) frenulum
D) palate
Q4) The appendix
A) is located in the right upper quadrant.
B) can rupture and cause peritonitis.
C) is attached to the sigmoid colon.
D) is located in the dorsal cavity.
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Q1) The urinary bladder
A) contains only skeletal muscle.
B) receives urine from two urethras.
C) causes diuresis in response to ADH deficiency.
D) causes micturition when the detrusor muscle contracts and the internal sphincter relaxes.
Q2) Renal failure causes anemia because of A) a lack of erythropoietin.
B) gross hematuria.
C) uremia-induced hemolysis.
D) uremia-induced hypokalemia.
Q3) Which of the following is caused by a deficiency of erythropoietin?
A) oliguria
B) anemia
C) albuminuria
D) cystitis
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Q1) Most diuretics increase urine production by blocking the effects of this cation.
A) calcium
B) bicarbonate
C) chloride
D) sodium
Q2) Which ion determines pH?
A) sodium
B) hydrogen
C) bicarbonate
D) potassium
Q3) Respiratory rate is most sensitive to the effects of this ion.
A) Na
B) K
C) H
D) Cl-
Q4) Which of the following forms the greatest extracellular fluid compartment?
A) lymph
B) interstitial
C) plasma
D) transcellular
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Q1) The luteal phase of the ovarian cycle
A) is responsible for menstruation.
B) is responsible for the uterine secretory phase.
C) elevates plasma levels of estrogen,progesterone,and hCG.
D) precedes the LH surge.
Q2) An elevation of plasma levels of estrogen and progesterone
A) stimulates the release of gonadotropins.
B) prevents the release of FSH and LH.
C) transforms the corpus luteum into the corpus albicans.
D) causes menstruation.
Q3) The embryo
A) refers to baby-to-be from week 3 to week 8.
B) is the single-cell fertilized ovum.
C) lives most of its life in the fallopian tube.
D) refers to the fetus during the second trimester.
Q4) Which structure is the major producer of testosterone?
A) corpus luteum
B) testes
C) anterior pituitary gland
D) adrenal medulla

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Q1) Which of the following is most related to human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)?
A) milk production
B) breasts
C) corpus luteum
D) anterior pituitary gland
Q2) How is a child with X and Y chromosomes best described?
A) as having Down syndrome
B) as hemophiliac
C) as immature
D) as male
Q3) In addition to acting as an exchange site between the mother and fetus,the placenta also secretes
A) estrogen and progesterone.
B) amniotic fluid.
C) vernix caseosa.
D) colostrum.
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