Human Anatomy and Physiology Study Guide Questions
Course Introduction
Human Anatomy and Physiology is a foundational course that explores the structure and function of the human body. Students will study major organ systems, including the muscular, skeletal, nervous, circulatory, respiratory, digestive, urinary, and reproductive systems. The course emphasizes the relationships between anatomical structures and physiological processes, highlighting how the body maintains homeostasis and responds to internal and external changes. Through a combination of theoretical knowledge and practical laboratory experiences, students gain a comprehensive understanding of the human bodys organization, mechanisms of function, and the interconnectedness essential for sustaining life.
Recommended Textbook
The Human Body in Health and Illness 3rd Edition by Barbara L. Herlihy
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Chapter 1: Introduction to the Human Body
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which region is included within the right upper quadrant (RUQ)?
A) umbilical
B) hypogastric
C) right iliac
D) right hypochondriac
Answer: D
Q2) The head is located ___________ to the chest.
A) anterior
B) inferior
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C) deep
D) superior
Answer: D
Q3) This plane divides the body into right and left halves.
A) sagittal
B) coronal
C) transverse
D) frontal
Answer: A
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Chapter 2: Basic Chemistry
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which pH is considered neutral?
A) 7.35
B) 7.45
C) 7.00
D) 14.0
Answer: C
Q2) An atom has 1 proton,0 neutrons,and 1 electron;its isotope has
A) 2 electrons and 0 neutrons.
B) 2 protons and 2 neutrons.
C) 1 proton and 1 neutron.
D) 2 protons and 0 neutrons.
Answer: C
Q3) [H ] refers to
A) an isotope of hydrogen.
B) heavy hydrogen.
C) hydrogen bonding.
D) hydrogen ion concentration.
Answer: D
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Chapter 3: Cells
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Sample Questions
Q1) Pinocytosis
A) is a passive process.
B) requires a pressure gradient as its driving force.
C) refers to cellular drinking.
D) is a form of exocytosis.
Answer: C
Q2) Which of the following is found on the rough endoplasmic reticulum?
A) ribosomes
B) cilia
C) lysosomes
D) DNA
Answer: A
Q3) Which of the following is most associated with the ribosome?
A) ATP production
B) intracellular housecleaning
C) glycogen storage
D) protein synthesis
Answer: D
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Chapter 4: Cell Metabolism
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is most related to glycolysis?
A) Krebs cycle
B) mitochondria
C) lactic acid
D) aerobic
Q2) Which of the following carries the individual amino acids from the cytoplasm to the ribosome for assembly into a protein?
A) DNA
B) tRNA
C) mRNA
D) ATP
Q3) Which of the following are joined together by peptide bonds?
A) amino acids
B) monosaccharides
C) lipids
D) steroids
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Chapter 5: Microbiology Basics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Influenza is best described as a(n)
A) localized infection.
B) allergic reaction.
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C) bacterial infection.
D) systemic infection.
Q2) Which of the following is least descriptive of staphylococci?
A) grapelike arrangement
B) bacterial
C) Gram (+)
D) underlying cause of rheumatic fever
Q3) Which of the following is most related to the "rusty nail" infection?
A) clostridium
B) mycotic
C) viral
D) parasitic
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Chapter 6: Tissues and Membranes
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Sample Questions
Q1) This type of tissue allows for the rapid diffusion of oxygen from the alveoli in the lungs to the blood.
A) osseous
B) fascia
C) simple squamous epithelium
D) synovial membrane
Q2) Which of the following is most related to bone?
A) epithelial tissue
B) plasma
C) adipose
D) hard intercellular matrix
Q3) Which of the following is most descriptive of a bed sore?
A) decubitus ulcer
B) sarcoma
C) malignant neoplasm
D) metastatic
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Chapter 7: Integumentary System and Body Temperature
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is associated with tanning?
A) sudoriferous glands
B) apocrine glands
C) arrector pili muscles
D) melanocytes
Q2) Ceruminous glands
A) secrete vernix caseosa.
B) are sebaceous glands.
C) secrete wax in the outer ear.
D) are responsible for the summer tan.
Q3) Which action is most likely to lower body temperature?
A) shivering
B) vasoconstriction
C) cyanosis
D) vasodilation
Q4) A person sweats and becomes flushed while exercising in order to
A) decrease heat production.
B) keep the heat in the core or center of the body.
C) lose heat.
D) prevent hypothermia.
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Chapter 8: Skeletal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The maxilla
A) is the cheekbone.
B) is a cranial bone.
C) contains the upper teeth.
D) articulates with the temporal bone at the TMJ.
Q2) The zygomatic bone
A) is a cranial bone.
B) articulates with the mandible.
C) holds the upper teeth.
D) is called the cheekbone.
Q3) Which word(s)best reflect(s)the function of the epiphyseal disc?
A) blood cell formation
B) phagocytosis
C) secretion of synovial fluid
D) longitudinal growth
Q4) At which joint do the scapula and upper arm bone meet?
A) humeroulnar
B) radiocarpal
C) glenohumeral
D) sternoclavicular
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Muscular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) This large muscle extends the thigh at the hip.
A) sartorius
B) hamstring
C) rotator cuff
D) latissimus dorsi
Q2) The rectus,transversus,internal oblique,and the external oblique refer to
A) smooth muscles.
B) abdominal muscles.
C) breathing muscles.
D) muscles that are located on the back and work synergistically with the latissimus dorsi.
Q3) Which of the following "muscle words" refers to chest?
A) rectus
B) latissimus
C) vastus
D) pectoralis
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Chapter 10: Nervous System: Nervous Tissue and Brain
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the name of the enzyme that destroys acetylcholine? 10-PAGE 2
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A) dopamine
B) ACh
C) acetylcholinesterase
D) norepinephrine
Q2) Which structure is also called the "emotional brain"?
A) cerebellum
B) basal ganglia
C) medulla oblongata
D) limbic system
Q3) What is the term applied to the inability of a neuron to accept a stimulus while the neuron is still depolarized?
A) repolarization
B) threshold potential
C) resting membrane potential
D) refractory period
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Chapter 11: Nervous System: Spinal Cord and Peripheral Nerves
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Sample Questions
Q1) A spinal cord injury at the level of C2 causes
A) hemiplegia and blindness.
B) paraplegia and deafness.
C) quadriplegia and an inability to breathe.
D) ptosis of the eyelid and dilated and fixed pupils.
Q2) Which word best describes the following: spinothalamic,pyramidal,corticospinal?
A) meninges
B) plexuses
C) tracts
D) motor tracts
Q3) The ___________ nerve (tract)carries sensory information toward the brain.
A) phrenic
B) pyramidal
C) corticospinal
D) spinothalamic
Q4) Which group is incorrect?
A) cranial nerves:olfactory,optic,oculomotor,vagus
B) plexuses:cervical,brachial,lumbosacral,cauda equina
C) states of paralysis:paraplegia,quadriplegia,hemiplegia
D) nerves that affect eye movement:oculomotor,abducens,trochlear
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Chapter 12: Autonomic Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) A beta? adrenergic agonist
A) increases heart rate.
B) causes the release of acetylcholine.
C) blocks the effects of norepinephrine at its receptor site.
D) lowers blood pressure.
Q2) Which of the following is an effect of postganglionic parasympathetic discharge?
A) slowed heart rate
B) increased blood pressure
C) dilation of the pupil of the eye
D) stronger contraction of the heart
Q3) Vagal discharge activates A) muscarinic receptors.
B) alpha1 adrenergic receptors.
C) beta1 adrenergic receptors.
D) the paravertebral ganglia.
Q4) A drug that causes the heart to beat stronger and faster is called
A) parasympatholytic.
B) sympathomimetic.
C) sympatholytic.
D) anticholinergic.
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Chapter 13: Sensory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is considered the blind spot?
A) macula lutea
B) optic chiasm
C) fovea centralis
D) optic disc
Q2) Olfaction refers to the sense of
A) vision.
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B) taste.
C) smell.
D) equilibrium.
Q3) Contraction of the orbicularis oculi
A) raises the eyelid.
B) is innervated by the optic nerve.
C) closes the eye.
D) flattens the lens during refraction.
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Chapter 14: Endocrine System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following structures connects the hypothalamus and the adenohypophysis?
A) islets of Langerhans
B) portal capillaries
C) corpus callosum
D) medulla oblongata
Q2) What is the most likely effect of a deficiency of aldosterone?
A) high blood pressure
B) low level of potassium in the blood
C) low blood volume and hypotension
D) goiter formation
Q3) T<sub>3</sub>,T<sub>4</sub>,and calcitonin are
A) secreted by the thyroid gland.
B) secreted by the parathyroid glands.
C) secreted in response to declining plasma levels of calcium.
D) steroids.
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Chapter 15: Blood
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Sample Questions
Q1) An infection is most often accompanied by
A) thrombocytopenia.
B) anemia.
C) jaundice.
D) leukocytosis.
Q2) Which of the following is characteristic of the platelet?
A) granulocyte
B) bilirubin
C) O2 transport
D) stickiness
Q3) Intrinsic factor
A) is necessary for the synthesis of prothrombin.
B) is a clotting factor.
C) is necessary for the absorption of vitamin B<sub>12</sub>.
D) stimulates the bone marrow to produce red blood cells.
Q4) Which of the following best characterizes the effects of hemophilia?
A) high fever
B) infection
C) jaundice
D) bleeding
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Chapter 16: Heart
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is least true of the aortic valve?
A) It is also called the left semilunar valve.
B) It "sees" oxygenated blood.
C) Blood flows from the ventricle through this valve into the pulmonary artery.
D) An incompetent aortic valve allows blood to leak from the aorta back into the left ventricle.
Q2) What is the name of the valve that prevents backflow of blood into the right atrium when the right ventricle contracts?
A) mitral valve
B) pulmonic valve
C) semilunar valve
D) tricuspid valve
Q3) Which cavity first receives unoxygenated blood from the vena cava?
A) right ventricle
B) left atrium
C) left ventricle
D) right atrium
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Chapter 17: Function of the Heart
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Q1) What is the term that refers to an increase in stroke volume in response to the stretching of the heart?
A) Starling's law of the heart
B) a positive inotropic effect
C) heart block
D) angina pectoris
Q2) Which of the following is descriptive of a drug that causes a (+)inotropic effect,a (+)dromotropic effect,and a (+)chronotropic effect?
A) vagomimetic
B) sympathomimetic
C) antimuscarinic
D) parasympatholytic
Q3) Excess vagal stimulation to the SA node is most likely to cause
A) hypertension.
B) bradycardia.
C) tachycardia.
D) anemia.
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Chapter 18: Anatomy of the Blood Vessels
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Q1) The subclavian veins
A) receive blood from the inferior vena cava.
B) pump blood into the jugular veins.
C) are part of the hepatic portal circulation.
D) deliver blood to the superior vena cava.
Q2) Which of the following does not describe the aorta?
A) arch
B) thoracic
C) resistance vessel
D) descending
Q3) All arteries directly or indirectly emerge from this large artery.
A) pulmonary
B) aorta
C) vena cava
D) subclavian
Q4) What is the artery that supplies the head and neck region?
A) jugular
B) axillary
C) portal
D) carotid
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Chapter 19: Functions of the Blood Vessels
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Sample Questions
Q1) Both epinephrine and norepinephrine are
A) steroids.
B) secreted by the adrenal cortex.
C) vasopressors.
D) blood pressure-lowering hormones.
Q2) Blood flow is slowest in the A) aorta.
B) capillaries.
C) venules.
D) arterioles.
Q3) Which of the following increases vascular resistance,stroke volume,and heart rate?
A) stimulation of the vagus nerve
B) stimulation of the parasympathetic nervous system
C) administration of a sympatholytic drug
D) stimulation of the sympathetic nervous system
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Chapter 20: Lymphatic System
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the name of the lymph nodes that drain the head and neck region?
A) inguinal
B) cervical
C) thoracic
D) pelvic
Q2) The spleen,thymus gland,tonsils,and lymph nodes are
A) confined to the thoracic cavity.
B) lymphoid organs.
C) primarily concerned with hematopoiesis.
D) only concerned with phagocytosis.
Q3) What structure is concerned with the processing and maturation of T lymphocytes?
A) medulla oblongata
B) thymus gland
C) coronary sinus
D) pericardium
Q4) A lacteal is located within the
A) adenoid.
B) tonsil.
C) thymus gland.
D) intestinal villus.
Page 22
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Chapter 21: Immune System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is the treatment of choice for an anaphylactic reaction?
A) a bronchoconstricting agent
B) gamma globulin
C) epinephrine
D) histamine
Q2) Which of the following is (are)most related to antibody-mediated immunity?
A) tears
B) saliva
C) sneezing
D) plasma cells
Q3) Which of the following is most associated with a low plasma level of antibodies?
A) the "booster" response
B) the primary response
C) an autoimmune response
D) anaphylaxis
Q4) IgE,IgA,IgM,and IgG are
A) antigens.
B) interferons.
C) antibodies.
D) complement proteins.
Page 23
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Chapter 22: Respiratory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the effect of phrenic nerve stimulation?
A) expiration
B) relaxation of the diaphragm and the intercostals
C) inhalation
D) a decrease in chest diameter
Q2) The pleural membranes
A) line the respiratory passages.
B) form the bronchioles.
C) are serous membranes.
D) are confined to the mediastinum.
Q3) Which of the following regulates respiratory activity?
A) PO2
B) PCO2
C) bicarbonate
D) albumin
Q4) These respiratory muscles are located between the ribs.
A) diaphragm
B) bronchiolar smooth muscle
C) intercostals
D) sternocleidomastoids
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Chapter 23: Digestive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which condition is associated with the base of the esophagus,fundus of the stomach,and diaphragm?
A) pyloric stenosis
B) cholecystitis
C) portal hypertension
D) hiatal hernia
Q2) This is the site of absorption for most end-products of digestion.
A) duodenum
B) ileum
C) colon
D) stomach
Q3) The wall of this structure secretes the disaccharidases.
A) gallbladder
B) duodenum
C) pancreas
D) stomach
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Chapter 24: Urinary System
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Q1) With regard to reabsorption,which structure plays the most important role?
A) glomeruli
B) renal pelvis
C) urinary bladder
D) peritubular capillaries
Q2) The renal excretion of Na is generally accompanied by the excretion of
A) bicarbonate.
B) water.
C) albumin.
D) renin.
Q3) Which of the following is caused by a deficiency of erythropoietin?
A) oliguria
B) anemia
C) albuminuria
D) cystitis
Q4) Low levels of oxygen stimulate the kidneys to secrete this hormone.
A) renin
B) aldosterone
C) erythropoietin
D) converting enzyme
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Chapter 25: Water,Electrolyte,and Acid-Base Balance
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is characteristic of acidosis?
A) pH of 7.55
B) a decrease in the concentration of hydrogen ion in the blood
C) urinary excretion of bicarbonate
D) pH less than 7.35
Q2) Hyperventilation is most likely to cause
A) a blood pH greater than 7.45.
B) diuresis.
C) edema.
D) acidosis.
Q3) Which group is incorrect?
A) cations:sodium,potassium,calcium
B) acid-base imbalances:acidosis and alkalosis
C) lines of defense against acid-base imbalance:buffers,lungs,kidneys
D) transcellular fluids:aqueous humor,cerebrospinal fluid,plasma
Q4) Which of the following is most likely to occur when output is less than intake?
A) dehydration
B) edema
C) hypovolemia
D) polyuria
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Chapter 26: Reproductive Systems
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Q1) What is the primary secretion of the corpus luteum?
A) FSH
B) hCG
C) progesterone
D) androgen
Q2) The zygote
A) implants within the uterine lining.
B) matures into the graafian follicle.
C) is the fertilized ovum.
D) is formed within the uterus.
Q3) A woman is likely to develop a vaginal yeast infection after taking antibiotics because they
A) weaken the hymen and allow pathogens to enter the vagina.
B) alter the normal flora of the vagina.
C) contain pathogens that migrate to the vagina from the blood.
D) cannot kill microorganisms that grow in the vagina.
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Chapter 27: Human Development and Heredity
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Q1) The milk let-down reflex is most associated with A) estrogen.
B) oxytocin.
C) prolactin.
D) hCG.
Q2) Which of the following is divided into trimesters?
A) conception
B) fertilization
C) pregnancy
D) ovulation
Q3) What term describes the ectoderm,mesoderm,and endoderm?
A) inner cell mass
B) extraembryonic membranes
C) primary germ layers
D) blastomeres
Q4) Which group is incorrect?
A) primary germ layers:ectoderm,mesoderm,endoderm
B) hormones:estrogen,progesterone,hCG,prolactin,oxytocin
C) genes:dominant,recessive,codominant
D) stages of labor:dilation,expulsion,placental,embryonic
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