Human Anatomy and Physiology
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Course Introduction
Human Anatomy and Physiology offers a comprehensive study of the structure and function of the human body. This course covers the major body systems, including the skeletal, muscular, nervous, cardiovascular, respiratory, digestive, urinary, and reproductive systems. Students will learn how these systems interact and contribute to overall health and homeostasis. Emphasis is placed on anatomical terminology, physiological processes, and the mechanisms that maintain body functions, as well as clinical applications relevant to human health and disease. Through lectures, laboratory exercises, and practical applications, students gain a foundational understanding crucial for advanced studies in health and biomedical sciences.
Recommended Textbook
Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition by Kevin T. Patton
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Chapter 1: Organization of the Body
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Sample Questions
Q1) Physiology:
A)recognizes the unchanging (as opposed to the dynamic) nature of things.
B)investigates the body's structure.
C)is concerned with organisms and does not deal with different levels of organization such as cells and systems.
D)is the science that examines the function of living organisms and their parts.
Answer: D
Q2) How many main tissue types are found in the human body?
A)4
B)8
C)11
D)6
Answer: A
Q3) The gallbladder lies in the:
A)abdominal cavity.
B)pelvic cavity.
C)dorsal cavity.
D)mediastinum.
Answer: A
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Homeostasis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Intracellular parasites that consist of DNA or RNA surrounded by a protein coat and sometimes by a lipoprotein envelope are called:
A)viruses.
B)bacteria.
C)fungi.
D)protozoa.
Answer: A
Q2) Epidemiology is the study of the _____ of diseases in human populations.
A)occurrence
B)distribution
C)transmission
D)All of the above are correct.
Answer: D
Q3) Pathogenesis can be defined as:
A)a specific disease.
B)a group of diseases.
C)the course of disease development.
D)a subgroup of viruses.
Answer: C
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Chemistry of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) The formation of sucrose involves the removal of a molecule of water. This is called:
A)hydrolysis.
B)oxidation.
C)decomposition.
D)dehydration synthesis.
Answer: D
Q2) ATP is broken down in an anabolic reaction.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) A weak acid:
A)dissociates very little in solution.
B)dissociates almost completely in solution.
C)will cause the pH of the solution to rise above 7.
D)does both B and C.
Answer: A
Q4) Explain what is meant by anabolism and catabolism, and name a process that is an example of each.
Answer: Answers will vary.
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Chapter 4: Biomolecules
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Sample Questions
Q1) The types of lipids found that form hormones, such as cortisone, estrogen, and testosterone are:
A)triglycerides.
B)phosphoglycerides.
C)steroids.
D)prostaglandins.
Q2) Chaperones are present in every body cell. Discuss the importance of these groups of proteins.
Q3) Which of the following is not true of RNA?
A)It contains ribose sugar.
B)It contains adenine.
C)It is composed of smaller molecules called nucleotides.
D)All of the above are true of RNA.
Q4) The body uses the steroid cholesterol to make hormones.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Prostaglandins are associated with the prostate gland and therefore are not found in women.
A)True
B)False
6
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Chapter 5: Cell Structure
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Sample Questions
Q1) The largest human cell, measuring about 150 mm, is a:
A)white blood cell.
B)female sex cell or ovum.
C)liver cell.
D)male sex cell or sperm.
Q2) Which of the following structures contains DNA?
A)Nucleus
B)Mitochondria
C)Ribosome
D)Both A and B
Q3) Name and give the functions of the non-membranous organelles of the cell.
Q4) Which type of cell connection acts like a "spot weld" to hold cells together?
A)Tight junction
B)Desmosome
C)Macrofilament
D)Gap junction
Q5) Ribosomes attached to the endoplasmic reticulum are responsible for making proteins to be exported out of the cell.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 6: Cell Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) The size of the molecule is an important factor in both dialysis and filtration.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The proteins in the cell membrane that can open and close are called: A)enzymes.
B)gated channel proteins.
C)glycoproteins.
D)both A and B.
Q3) A hypertonic solution contains _____ concentration of solute _____ the cell.
A)a greater; than B)the same; as C)a lesser; than
D)None of the above is correct.
Q4) Red blood cells placed in a hypertonic solution may be destroyed because the blood cells will lyse.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The "lock-and-key model" is used to describe how mRNA and tRNA base pairs align.
A)True
B)False
8
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Chapter 7: Cell Growth and Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) Normal meiosis results in daughter cells that are genetically identical to the parent cell.
A)True
B)False
Q2) If a sequence of nitrogen bases in nucleic acid were A-U-C-G-A, which of the following would be true about the nucleic acid?
A)It contains deoxyribose sugar.
B)It could be found only in the nucleus.
C)It contains ribose sugar.
D)Both A and B are true.
Q3) Describe the process of DNA replication.
Q4) In transcription, the DNA of the cell is edited and the introns are removed.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The membranous organelle in the cytoplasm that is able to replicate itself is the: A)Golgi apparatus.
B)mitochondrion.
C)lysosome.
D)ribosome.
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Chapter 8: Introduction to Tissues
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Sample Questions
Q1) Briefly describe serous membranes, and give their location in the body. Differentiate between visceral and parietal membranes, and give an example of each.
Q2) The biology of tissues is called:
A)anatomy.
B)physiology.
C)histology.
D)cytology.
Q3) Name and briefly describe the four principal types of tissue in the body.
Q4) Which type of tissue has the greatest capacity to regenerate?
A)Muscle
B)Nervous
C)Epithelial
D)All of the above tissue have about equal ability to regenerate.
Q5) The most complex tissue in the body is:
A)connective.
B)epithelial.
C)nervous.
D)muscle.
Q6) Briefly describe connective tissue membranes, and give their location in the body.
10
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Chapter 9: Tissue Types
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Sample Questions
Q1) The term squamous comes from the Latin word meaning scaly, which describes the flat, platelike cells.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Fibroblasts in loose fibrous connective tissue are able to release substances such as histamine and heparin.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Goblet cells, cilia, and microvilli are modifications of which type of epithelial tissue?
A)Simple squamous
B)Simple cuboidal
C)Simple columnar
D)Pseudostratified squamous
Q4) Which type of connective tissue helps newborns maintain body temperature by producing heat?
A)Dense fibrous tissue
B)Beige fat
C)Brown fat
D)White fat
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Chapter 10: Skin
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Sample Questions
Q1) The death of melanocytes in the hair follicle of older people causes the hair to turn gray.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Because sebaceous glands produce a substance rich in triglycerides and fatty acids, it provides a good growth medium for fungi.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Lanugo is the technical term used for adult body hair.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following is not true of the dermal-epidermal junction?
A)It is important in blocking bacteria from passing through the skin.
B)It is composed chiefly of basement membrane.
C)Its function is to "glue" the two layers of skin together.
D)All of the above are true.
Q5) Blisters can be the result of damage to the desmosomes in a layer of skin.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Differentiate among first-, second-, and third-degree burns.
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Skeletal Tissues
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Sample Questions
Q1) One function of cartilage is to act as a shock-absorbing pad between bones.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The terms haversian system and osteon are interchangeable.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Concentric rings of compact bone
A)Lacunae
B)Central canal
C)Canaliculi
D)Trabeculae
E)Lamellae
F)Transverse canal
Q4) The primary ossification center of a long bone is located:
A)in the diaphysis.
B)in the epiphysis.
C)in the medullary cavity.
D)at the epiphyseal cartilage.
Q5) Name and describe the parts of the osteon.
Q6) Describe the two chemical components of the extracellular bone matrix.
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Chapter 12: Axial Skeleton
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not found in the eye orbit?
A)The eye
B)Muscle of the eye
C)Lacrimal apparatus
D)All of the above are found in the eye orbit.
Q2) The maxilla is the largest and strongest bone of the face.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The sphenoid bone acts as the keystone for the cranium. Which bone acts as the keystone for the face?
A)Mandible
B)Zygomatic
C)Maxilla
D)Nasal
Q4) Which of the following is not a true comparison of a fetal and adult skull?
A)The face is a greater part of the skull in the adult.
B)The skull is a larger proportion of the body in the adult.
C)The skull of the fetus has fontanels, and the adult skull does not.
D)All of the above are true.
Q5) Explain the clinical significance of the cribriform plate.
Page 14
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Chapter 13: Appendicular Skeleton
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Sample Questions
Q1) The human hand has greater dexterity than the forepaw of any animal because of the freely movable joint of the: A)elbow. B)shoulder.
C)wrist. D)thumb.
Q2) The longest and heaviest bone in the body is the: A)tibia. B)fibula.
C)coxal. D)femur.
Q3) In the lower leg, the tibia is larger than the fibula. A)True B)False
Q4) Only the radius has a direct articulation with the bones of the wrist. A)True B)False
Q5) The lesser trochanter is a marking of the tibia. A)True B)False
15
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Chapter 14: Articulations
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Sample Questions
Q1) The fibrocartilage pads between the articulating ends of bones may be called menisci.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The occipital bone fitting into the atlas bone of the vertebrae is an example of a _____ joint.
A)pivot
B)condyloid
C)saddle
D)gomphosis
Q3) Which of the following structures does not characterize a synovial joint?
A)Bursae
B)Joint cavity
C)Menisci
D)All of the above structures characterize a synovial joint.
Q4) Moving a part of the body forward is:
A)protraction.
B)elevation.
C)inversion.
D)depression.
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Chapter 15: Axial Muscles
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Sample Questions
Q1) Moving from superficial to deep, the connective tissue components would be:
A)epimysium, perimysium, endomysium.
B)endomysium, perimysium, epimysium.
C)perimysium, epimysium, endomysium.
D)perimysium, endomysium, epimysium.
Q2) The prime mover can also be called the:
A)antagonist.
B)agonist.
C)fixator.
D)synergist.
Q3) The deltoid muscle is an example of a multipennate muscle. A)True
B)False
Q4) The sternocleidomastoid muscle is an example of a muscle named by the number of heads.
A)True
B)False
Q5) There are more than twice as many muscles as there are bones in the body. A)True
B)False
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Chapter 16: Appendicular Muscles
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Sample Questions
Q1) Four muscles, the deltoid, supraspinatus, infraspinatus, and teres minor, make up what is called the rotator cuff around the shoulder.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Muscles maintain posture by the property of tonicity.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Muscles located on the lower leg move the: A)thigh.
B)hip.
C)knee.
D)foot.
Q4) The muscle(s) assisting in rotating the arm outward is (are) the: A)teres minor.
B)latissimus dorsi.
C)supraspinatus.
D)All of the above are correct.
Q5) Explain how, during sleep, the muscles of the throat relax and can allow the muscles to partially close the airway, causing sleep apnea.
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Chapter 17: Muscle Contraction
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Sample Questions
Q1) Compound that supplies the energy for muscle contraction
A)Troponin
B)Myosin
C)Actin
D)T-tubules
E)ATP
F)Calcium
G)Cross-bridges
H)Tropomyosin
I)Acetylcholine
Q2) A motor neuron is considered part of the neuromuscular junction.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The cell membrane of a muscle fiber is called the sarcolemma.
A)True
B)False
Q4) List three conditions that influence the strength of muscle contraction.
Q5) ATP is made up of adenine, ribose sugar, and three phosphate groups.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 18: Nervous System Cells
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Sample Questions
Q1) There are more glia cells in the brain than there are neurons.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Consists of the brain and spinal cord
A)Afferent division
B)Autonomic nervous system
C)Central nervous system
D)Efferent division
E)Parasympathetic division
F)PNS
G)Somatic nervous system
H)Sympathetic division
Q3) There are differences between the central and peripheral nervous systems concerning the repair of damaged fibers.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Describe the somatic and autonomic nervous systems.
Q5) Name and briefly describe the types of glia cells found in the nervous system.
Q6) Name the two ways in which neurons are classified. Name and describe the types of neurons in each classification.
Page 20
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Chapter 19: Nerve Signaling
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Sample Questions
Q1) The depolarization of a neuron is caused by the influx of the positively charged sodium ion into the cell.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following antidepressants acts by blocking the action of monoamine oxidase (MAO)?
A)Phenelzine
B)Imipramine
C)Amitriptyline
D)Cocaine
Q3) Action potentials travel in only one direction along a nerve fiber.
A)True
B)False
Q4) In depolarization the membrane potential moves toward zero, whereas in hyperpolarization the membrane potential moves away from zero.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Explain a way that the nerve cell is able to respond to stimuli of different strengths.
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Chapter 20: Central Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The corpus callosum is an example of a commissural tract of the cerebrum.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Barbiturates and amphetamines are two drugs that can arouse the cerebral cortex.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The cerebrospinal fluid is absorbed into the venous blood by the median foramen of Magendie.
A)True
B)False
Q4) To describe sensory pathways as "crossed" refers to the fact that each side of the brain registers sensations from the opposite side of the body.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Based on the system of naming tracts in the spinal cord, the spinocerebellar tract would be an ascending tract.
A)True
B)False
Q6) How are the cerebral nuclei involved in Parkinson disease?
Page 22
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Chapter 21: Peripheral Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) In a healthy adult, a well-placed tap on the knee will result in a:
A)contraction of the tendon and its muscles, the quadriceps femoris, and thereby stimulation of the muscle spindles.
B)stretch of the blood vessels and decreased blood flow to the lower extremities.
C)stretch of the tendon, the quadriceps femoris, and thereby stimulation of the muscle spindles.
D)stretch of the tendon and its muscles, the rectus femoris, and thereby stimulation of the muscle spindles.
Q2) Outline the neural pathway involved in the patellar (knee jerk) reflex.
Q3) What would the result be if the phrenic nerve received an impulse from the cervical plexus?
A)The diaphragm would stop contracting.
B)Sensation to the anterior abdominal wall would cease.
C)Motor nerves to the thigh would not be able to receive impulses.
D)Motor nerves to the back of the neck would not be able to receive impulses.
Q4) The lower end of the spinal cord bears the name lumbosacral plexus.
A)True
B)False
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Page 23
Chapter 22: Autonomic Nervous System
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Q1) How does a dually innervated autonomic effector differ from a singly innervated autonomic effector?
A)A dually innervated effector receives input from both sympathetic and parasympathetic pathways. A singly innervated autonomic effector receives input from only the sympathetic division.
B)A dually innervated effector receives input from both sympathetic and parasympathetic pathways. A singly innervated autonomic effector receives input from only the parasympathetic division.
C)A dually innervated effector utilizes both acetylcholine and norepinephrine as neurotransmitters. A singly innervated autonomic effector utilizes only acetylcholine.
D)A dually innervated effector utilizes both acetylcholine and norepinephrine as neurotransmitters. A singly innervated autonomic effector uses only norepinephrine.
Q2) Explain the source and possible synapse points for the sympathetic preganglionic neurons.
Q3) Parasympathetic stimulation has no effect on sweat glands.
A)True B)False
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Page 24
Chapter 23: General Senses
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Q1) Describe each of the receptor categories, based on the types of stimuli that activate them.
Q2) Merkel disks and muscle spindles provide the body with information about muscle and the strength of muscle contraction.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Activated by heat or cold
A)Chemoreceptors
B)Mechanoreceptors
C)Nociceptors
D)Photoreceptors
E)Thermoreceptors
Q4) If you slammed your finger in a car door, it would stimulate _____ pain fibers.
A)chronic
B)acute
C)visceral
D)both chronic and visceral
Q5) Differentiate between the pain receptors in the body-both fast and slow fibers and visceral and somatic pain.
Q6) Differentiate between exteroceptors, visceroceptors, and proprioceptors.
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Chapter 24: Special Senses
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Q1) Taste buds are stimulated by chemicals called tastants.
A)True
B)False
Q2) All of the following are "primary" taste sensations except: A)sweet. B)sour.
C)spicy. D)bitter.
Q3) The retina is the incomplete innermost coat of the eyeball, in that it has no anterior portion.
A)True
B)False
Q4) High-frequency sound waves cause the narrow portion of the basilar membrane near the oval window to vibrate.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The pinna and external acoustic meatus refer to the same structure. A)True B)False
Q6) Explain why watery eyes occur when a person gets a common cold.
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Chapter 25: Endocrine Regulation
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Q1) Which of the following does not act as a second messenger for nonsteroid hormones?
A)Inositol triphosphate
B)Guanosine monophosphate
C)Calcium-calmodulin complex
D)All of the above act as second messengers.
Q2) Which of the following nonsteroid hormones bind to receptors associated with a DNA molecule within the nucleus of the target cell?
A)Thyroxine
B)Triiodothyronine
C)Prolactin
D)Both A and B
Q3) Thromboxanes and leukotrienes can be called tissue hormones.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What are prostaglandins? From what substance are they made? Name two effects prostaglandins have on the body.
Q5) Compare and contrast steroid and nonsteroid hormones, and give an example of each.
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Chapter 26: Endocrine Glands
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Q1) Also known as prolactin
A)Antidiuretic hormone
B)Adrenocorticotropic hormone
C)Follicle-stimulating hormone
D)Luteinizing hormone
E)Lactogenic hormone
F)Progesterone
G)Somatotropin
H)Oxytocin
Q2) Which is not part of the pituitary gland?
A)Sella turcica
B)Infundibulum
C)Adenohypophysis
D)Neurohypophysis
Q3) List and briefly describe the tropic hormones produced by the pituitary gland. What is a tropic hormone?
Q4) The major hormone produced by the corpus luteum is LH.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Explain why it is equally likely that males and females can produce hCG.
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Chapter 27: Blood
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Sample Questions
Q1) If the recipient's blood type is A, to avoid agglutination the donor's blood type may be either type O or type A.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Eosinophils are the least numerous of the white blood cells, numbering only 0.5% to 1% of the total leukocyte count.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Both the largest and smallest of the leukocytes are agranulocytes.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Basophils contain granules that are able to release histamine.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Which is not a formed element of the blood?
A)Albumin
B)Platelet
C)Erythrocyte
D)Neither A nor B are formed elements of the blood.
Q6) List the steps in the formation of a red blood cell.
Page 29
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Chapter 28: Heart
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Q1) A U wave on an ECG is an indication of damage to ventricular myocardial cells.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Bundles that come from the atrioventricular node
A)Interatrial bundles
B)Atrioventricular node
C)Sinoatrial node
D)Purkinje fibers
E)Bundles of His
F)Internodal bundles
Q3) The heart of the developing human embryo begins to beat regularly early in the fourth week after fertilization.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Cuspid valves open into:
A)the aorta.
B)the pulmonary artery.
C)the ventricles of the heart.
D)both A and B.
Q5) Select one heart valve. Give its name, location, and function.
Page 30
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Chapter 29: Blood Vessels
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Q1) Atherosclerosis is characterized by the deposition of lipids in the tunica:
A)intima.
B)adventitia.
C)media.
D)All of the above are correct.
Q2) Which of these blood vessels contain precapillary sphincters?
A)Venules
B)Muscular arteries
C)Arterioles
D)Metarterioles
Q3) The pulmonary artery carries oxygenated blood.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The aorta is an example of a muscular artery.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Precapillary sphincters are located in venules.
A)True
B)False
Q6) What function does the foramen ovale serve in fetal circulation?
Page 31
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Chapter 30: Circulation of the Blood
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Sample Questions
Q1) In general, as stroke volume goes up, ejection fraction goes up.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following blood vessels has the largest total cross-sectional area?
A)Capillary
B)Aorta
C)Vena cava
D)Arteriole
Q3) The resting cardiac output from the left ventricle is about 5 liters.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The right atrium would have the lowest blood pressure in the systemic circulatory system.
A)True
B)False
Q5) List two major factors that promote the return of venous blood to the heart. Explain how each facilitates venous return.
Q6) Arterial blood pressure is inversely related to blood volume.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 31: Lymphatic System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not true of the thymus gland?
A)Relative size is largest in early childhood.
B)It is the primary central organ of the lymphatic system.
C)It functions in the immune mechanism.
D)It functions mostly in adult life.
Q2) The pulp of the spleen and its venous sinuses allow it to store up to _____ ml of blood.
A)100
B)150
C)250
D)350
Q3) Michael, a 43-year-old man, was in a serious car accident. He has a rigid and tender left hypochondriac region. His blood pressure is dropping, and he is in pain. What organ might be involved in this injury, and if it is involved, what treatment would be necessary?
Q4) Which of the following is a lymphokinetic factor?
A)Arterial pulsations
B)Postural changes
C)Passive compression of the body soft tissues
D)All of the above
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Chapter 32: Innate Immunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) The agent that causes tuberculosis is surrounded by a waxy layer that prevents water-soluble proteins from penetrating it. It is known that cells in the immune system have a very difficult time killing these agents through phagocytosis. Explain why this is true.
Q2) A person's natural killer cells usually kill cells of their own body.
A)True
B)False
Q3) One reason for species resistance is the difference in molecules on the cell membrane of different species.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Tobacco mosaic virus can destroy tobacco plants. It has no effect on humans. This is an example of species resistance.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Neutrophils function in the immune system by producing immunoglobulins.
A)True
B)False
Q6) What is a natural killer cell? Explain the functioning of a natural killer cell.
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Chapter 33: Adaptive Immunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Examples of lymphocytes are:
A)B cells.
B)T cells.
C)both A and B.
D)none of the above.
Q2) Substance produced by the body that destroys or inactivates a specific antigen
A)Specific immunity
B)Antibody
C)B cell
D)Antigen
E)T cell
Q3) The antibody produced after initial contact with an antigen is:
A)IgE.
B)IgG.
C)IgM.
D)IgA.
Q4) Adaptive immunity requires two signals: antigen and chemical.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Describe the structure of an antibody molecule.
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Chapter 34: Stress
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Sample Questions
Q1) The brain is not a major target of allostatic load.
A)True
B)False
Q2) All of the following are true statements except:
A)stressors are extreme stimuli.
B)stressors are always injurious, unpleasant, or painful.
C)the emotions of fear, anxiety, and grief can act as stressors.
D)stressors differ in different individuals.
Q3) Type A individuals have been found to be at greater risk for:
A)elevated systolic blood pressure.
B)coronary disease.
C)heart attacks.
D)all of the above.
Q4) Recent research suggests that the study of stress requires a more general or holistic approach.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Define fetal programming.
Q6) Identify and briefly describe the three stages in the general adaptation syndrome.
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Chapter 35: Respiratory Tract
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Sample Questions
Q1) The palatine bone is both the roof of the mouth and the floor of the nose.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Both the right lung and the left lung are subdivided into three lobes each.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The function of surfactant is to:
A)transport oxygen from the air to the blood.
B)transport carbon dioxide from the blood to the air.
C)prevent each alveolus from collapsing as air moves in and out during respiration.
D)trap foreign particles as they enter the bronchial tree.
Q4) Which is the most proximal part of the air distribution system that no longer contains cartilage?
A)Primary bronchi
B)Secondary bronchi
C)Bronchioles
D)Alveolar ducts
Q5) List the functions of the nose.
Q6) Explain the ways in which the volume of the thoracic cavity is increased.
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Chapter 36: Ventilation
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Sample Questions
Q1) The pneumotaxic center operates mainly to prevent overinflation of lung tissue.
A)True
B)False
Q2) When the diaphragm contracts, it pulls the base of the ribs together, forcing air out of the lungs.
A)True
B)False
Q3) For air to remain in the lungs, the pressure in the lungs must be equal to or less than atmospheric pressure.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Alveolar ventilation is inspired air minus:
A)anatomical dead air space.
B)tidal volume.
C)reserve volume.
D)residual volume.
Q5) Dyspnea is often associated with hyperventilation.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Define pneumothorax, and discuss its potential effect on respiration.
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Chapter 37: Gas Exchange Transport
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Sample Questions
Q1) Carbon dioxide is carried in three forms in the blood. Ranking them from greatest to least amount carried, the sequence would be:
A)dissolved in the plasma, carbaminohemoglobin, and bicarbonate ion.
B)carbaminohemoglobin, bicarbonate ion, and dissolved in plasma.
C)bicarbonate ion, dissolved in plasma, and carbaminohemoglobin.
D)bicarbonate ion, carbaminohemoglobin, and dissolved in plasma.
Q2) The presence of hemoglobin in the blood approximately doubles the oxygen-carrying capacity of plasma alone.
A)True
B)False
Q3) About 10% of the carbon dioxide carried in the blood is simply dissolved in the plasma.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Identify the major factors that help determine the amount of oxygen that diffuses into the blood each minute.
Q5) There are six iron atoms in a single hemoglobin molecule.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 38: Upper Digestive Tract
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Sample Questions
Q1) There are three pairs of major salivary glands.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In addition to enamel, the outer shell of the tooth has two additional dental tissues: dentin and gingivae.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The soft palate forms an arch that leads into the nasopharynx and is called the fauces.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The parotid salivary gland drains into the mouth through the parotid (Stensen) ducts.
A)True
B)False
Q5) After food is digested, it enters the alimentary canal.
A)True
B)False
Q6) The pharynx functions in two systems. Name the systems and explain the function in each system.
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Chapter 39: Lower Digestive Tract
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Sample Questions
Q1) Describe the location, structure, and function of the pancreas.
Q2) The peritoneum that lines the abdominal wall is called the parietal layer.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which statement explains what happens to toxic substances after detoxification by liver cells?
A)They are used to increase pH for optimum amylase function.
B)They are used to dilute food and other substances and facilitate mixing of foods in the small intestine.
C)Small amounts are carried by mucus and sodium bicarbonate to the small intestine for use in digestion.
D)They are changed into nontoxic compounds by a series of chemical reactions.
Q4) The duodenum, jejunum, and ileum each make up about one third of the length of the small intestine.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Where in the GI tract are villi and microvilli located? What purpose do they serve?
Q6) Explain the cause of appendicitis.
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Chapter 40: Digestion and Absorption
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Sample Questions
Q1) Release of digestive juices; release of endocrine hormones that regulate digestion or metabolism of nutrients
A)Motility
B)Ingestion
C)Elimination
D)Secretion
E)Digestion
F)Absorption
Q2) The disaccharide lactose is made up of which two saccharide units?
A)Glucose and glucose
B)Glucose and fructose
C)Glucose and galactose
D)None of the above
Q3) The intestinal hormone cholecystokinin:
A)causes the pancreas to increase exocrine secretions high in enzyme content.
B)opposes the influence of gastrin on gastric parietal cells.
C)stimulates the contraction of the gallbladder.
D)does all of the above.
Q4) Most enzymes catalyze a chemical reaction in both directions. Explain what this means.
42
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Chapter 41: Nutrition and Metabolism
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Sample Questions
Q1) Most of the illegal anabolic steroids used by athletes contain some form of testosterone. Why are these steroids so effective in building muscle mass?
Q2) In the anaerobic pathway, glucose can be converted to lactate without the use of oxygen. The lactate can then enter the citric acid cycle.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A saturated fat is saturated with hydrogen atoms.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Products derived from anabolism may differ from cell to cell.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Which of the following minerals is important in stomach acid production?
A)Iron
B)Calcium
C)Chlorine
D)Sodium
Q6) What is the usual function of vitamins? Name three vitamins and explain their function.
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Chapter 42: Urinary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following ions is not normally secreted into the distal or collecting tubules?
A)Potassium
B)Hydrogen
C)Ammonium
D)Sodium
Q2) If the Tm for glucose in the nephron was 300 mg/100 ml and a person had blood glucose level of 380 mg/100 ml, there would be:
A)300 mg/100 ml of glucose in the urine.
B)80 mg/100 ml of glucose in the urine.
C)80 mg/100 ml of glucose in the blood leaving the kidney.
D)both A and C.
Q3) In the average bladder, about 500 ml of urine causes moderate distention and a desire to void.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The urochrome pigments impart a yellowish color to the urine.
A)True
B)False
Q5) List functions of the urinary bladder.
44
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Chapter 43: Fluid and Electrolyte Balance
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Sample Questions
Q1) Compare the chemical compositions of plasma, interstitial fluid, and intracellular fluid.
Q2) If a solution of sodium (Na , atomic weight = 23) and a solution of calcium (Ca² , atomic weight = 40) had equal mg%, what would be the mEq/L of each?
Q3) The release of aldosterone can cause an increase in the blood colloid osmotic pressure.
A)True
B)False
Q4) As related to the Starling law, which of the following has the greatest effect on water reentering the capillaries?
A)Blood hydrostatic pressure
B)Interstitial fluid hydrostatic pressure
C)Blood colloid osmotic pressure
D)Interstitial colloid osmotic pressure
Q5) The milliequivalent is a measure of the weight of an electrolyte.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Describe the functioning thirst center. Where is it located?
Q7) How does an electrolyte imbalance lead to fluid imbalances?
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Chapter 44: Acid-Base Balance
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Sample Questions
Q1) Ketone bodies are buffered mainly by plasma proteins.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Sulfuric acid results from the metabolism of:
A)glucose.
B)amino acids.
C)fats.
D)ribonucleotides.
Q3) The loss of chloride from the stomach will tend to lower the pH of the body.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The respiratory center is stimulated if the:
A)amount of carbon dioxide in arterial blood increases.
B)amount of carbon dioxide in venous blood increases.
C)pH of the blood goes above 7.41.
D)Any of the above will stimulate the respiratory center.
Q5) Explain the pH scale
Q6) What substances or processes in the body might cause a change in the blood pH?
Q7) Identify the main buffer pairs present in body fluids. How do these buffer pairs function to limit large changes in pH?
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Chapter 45: Male Reproductive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The structure that connects the epididymis with the ejaculatory duct is the:
A)urethra.
B)vas deferens.
C)seminal vesicle.
D)scrotum.
Q2) The anatomical structure of an epididymis consists of a head, neck, body, and tail.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Describe the structure and function of the sustentacular cells.
Q4) The rete testis is drained by the efferent ductules into the vas deferens.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Explain structure and the function of the scrotum.
Q6) A negative feedback mechanism exists between the testes and the hypothalamus in the regulation of testosterone.
A)True
B)False
Q7) Define the term vasectomy. What does this procedure accomplish?
Q8) Describe the functions of the testes.
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Chapter 46: Female Reproductive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The "G spot" is synonymous with the clitoris in the female.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The increase in blood estrogens during the postmenstrual phase of the menstrual cycle produces all of the following changes in the uterus except:
A)growth of both the endometrial glands and the spiral arteries of the endometrium.
B)decreased myometrial contractions.
C)proliferation of endometrial cells producing a thickening of the endometrium.
D)All of the above occur because of the increase in estrogen.
Q3) A woman is fertile throughout her menstrual cycle.
A)True
B)False
Q4) After ovulation, the corpus luteum secretes inhibin, which inhibits uterine contraction so the fertilized ovum has a better chance of successful implantation.
A)True
B)False
Q5) List and describe the various components of the vulva.
Q6) Explain how the process of lactation is regulated.
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Chapter 47: Growth, Development, and Aging
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Sample Questions
Q1) As we advance in age, the atrophy of muscle tissue takes place and is replaced by connective tissue.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Stan and Dan are twins. Stan suffers from kidney disease. The physicians said Stan can receive Dan's kidney with very little chance of rejection. Explain why.
Q3) Select four systems and explain the effects of aging on each system.
Q4) At ovulation, the ovum is at which stage of meiosis?
A)Telophase II
B)Anaphase II
C)Telophase I
D)None of the above
Q5) The stage of adolescence when a person becomes sexually mature is called puberty.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Nutrition typically does not have any effect on aging.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 48: Genetics and Heredity
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is codominance? Give an example of this phenomenon in your explanation.
Q2) Gene linkage and crossing over have opposite effects on genetic variation.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is not a type of RNA?
A)Mitochondrial RNA
B)Ribosomal RNA
C)Transfer RNA
D)All of the above are types of RNA.
Q4) All congenital disorders are inherited disorders.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The principle of independent assortment states that each gamete formed is likely to have the same set of 23 chromosomes.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Cleft palate can be classified as both a congenital and genetic disorder.
A)True
B)False
Q7) Why must DNA transcription stop during mitosis?
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