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Human Anatomy and Physiology is a foundational course that explores the structure and function of the human body. Students will learn about the major organ systems, including the skeletal, muscular, nervous, cardiovascular, respiratory, digestive, and endocrine systems. The course emphasizes the relationship between anatomical structures and physiological processes, providing a comprehensive understanding of how the body maintains homeostasis and responds to internal and external stimuli. Through lectures, labs, and interactive activities, students gain practical knowledge of the human body's organization, functions, and mechanisms, preparing them for advanced studies in healthcare and biological sciences.
Recommended Textbook
Holes Human Anatomy and Physiology 15th Edition by David Shier
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Q1) Patterns of growth in preserved bones and tooth decay reflect the health of the people of which they were a part.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) When the body is placed in the anatomical position, which of the following is not true?
A)The head is facing to the front.
B)The palms are facing backward.
C)The body is erect.
D)The upper limbs are at the sides.
Answer: B
Q3) Reproduction is the change in body characteristics over time.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q4) The elbow is distal to the wrist.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Q1) Two negatively charged bromide (Br )ions exist in solution. They will be attracted to each other and form an ionic bond.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) Apricots have a pH of 3.8. Therefore, they are ________.
Answer: acidic acid
Q3) A simple carbohydrate
A)has a molecular formula of C H O .
B)is a building block of protein.
C)consists of several joined chains.
D)has only one nucleotide.
Answer: A
Q4) A complete atom is electrically neutral because
A)the number of protons equals the number of neutrons.
B)the number of electrons equals the number of neutrons.
C)the number of electrons equals the number of protons.
D)the number of electrons is greater than the number of protons.
Answer: C
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Q1) Stem cells may be activated after an injury, helping to heal.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) All cell types divide at the same rate.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) Molecules bind to receptor sites and are enclosed in vesicles in the process of A)pinocytosis.
B)phagocytosis.
C)receptor-mediated endocytosis.
D)exocytosis.
Answer: C
Q4) Chromosomes duplicate during A)prophase.
B)interphase.
C)metaphase.
D)telophase.
Answer: B

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Q1) Which DNA sequence can encode the amino acid sequence ile-asp-ser-cys-his-tyr?
A)TAGCTGTCAACAGTGATA
B)TAACTGTCGACGGTGATG
C)TAACTAAGTACGGTGATG
D)All of the answer choices are correct
Q2) In what molecule are codons found?
A)mRNA
B)tRNA
C)rRNA
D)Proteins.
Q3) The term catabolism refers to
A)chemical reactions that acquire energy.
B)chemical reactions that release energy.
C)synthesis of large molecules.
D)the formation of genetic material.
Q4) Anaerobic respiration and aerobic respiration begin with the process of ________ , in which glucose is broken down.
Q5) The complete set of genetic instructions in an individual is the ________.
Q6) The correspondence between a unit of DNA information and an amino acid is the genetic ________.
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Q1) Smooth muscle is found in the wall of the A)heart.
B)bone.
C)stomach.
D)liver.
Q2) Histology is the study of A)organ function.
B)molecules.
C)cells.
D)tissues.
Q3) Cartilage cells occupy small chambers called ________.
Q4) The pyloric glands of the stomach release hydrochloric acid and other digestive juices during digestion. These glands have very short ducts and the tubes are branched. These glands are ________.
A)simple branched tubular
B)simple coiled tubular
C)simple branched alveolar
D)unicellular
Q5) The lining of the nose consists of ________ membrane.
Q6) The most abundant cells in dense connective tissue are ________.
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Q1) Cutaneous melanomas are associated with
A)short exposure to high-intensity sunlight.
B)prolonged exposure to low-intensity sunlight.
C)occasional exposure to X-rays.
D)exposure to background radiation.
Q2) The outermost layer of the epidermis is the stratum basale and the innermost layer is the stratum corneum.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Fever is
A)a result of inflammation.
B)due to exposure to heat.
C)a special case of hyperthermia in which body temperature rises in response to an elevated set point, typically in response to infection.
D)a special case of hypothermia in which body temperature falls to protect the core from infection.
Q4) A certain acne medication works by significantly slowing down production of sebum. The structures targeted by this medication are the ________ glands.
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Q1) If during the process of intramembranous ossification, the ossification center was removed, the result would be
A)no bone grows.
B)a hollow space develops in between the two layers of compact bone, as no spongy bone is produced.
C)surrounding mesenchymal cells will not condense into periosteum because the ossification center is where these cells arise.
D)blood vessels will be encouraged to invade the area.
Q2) Ribs that join the sternum directly by costal cartilages are called
A)true ribs.
B)false ribs.
C)floating ribs.
D)vertebrochondral ribs.
Q3) The tough, fibrous vascular tissue that encloses a long bone is the ________.
Q4) The deltoid tuberosity is part of the humerus.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The intervertebral discs are composed of the tissue ________.
Q6) Blood cell formation is called ________.
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Q1) Cartilaginous joints are connected by A)synovial fluid.
B)fibrous connective tissue.
C)hyaline cartilage or fibrocartilage.
D)a joint capsule.
Q2) A fibrous joint in which an interosseous ligament binds bones is a A)synchonrosis.
B)syndesmosis.
C)gomphosis.
D)symphysis.
Q3) The type of joint that joins the fibula and tibia is called a(n)________.
Q4) Joint capsules may be reinforced by bundles of strong, tough collagenous fibers called ________.
Q5) A synchondrosis
A)allows bone growth.
B)equalizes pressure between vertebrae.
C)includes a joint capsule.
D)allows free movement.
Q6) Thrusting the head forward to contact an incoming soccer ball is an example of ________.
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Q1) Muscle atrophy that progresses with aging is caused by reduction in
A)muscle strength, but not motor neuron activity.
B)motor neuron activity, but not muscle strength.
C)connective tissues.
D)the sizes of muscle fibers.
Q2) Regina began an exercise program six months ago, and the muscles of her upper limbs and lower limbs are more prominent. Exercise can lead to formation of new muscle by
A)stimulating synthesis of myoglobin.
B)stimulating skeletal muscle cells to release IL-6, which stimulates satellite cells to divide, producing more muscle cells.
C)stimulating connective tissue to differentiate as muscle tissue.
D)stimulating motor neurons to divide and innervate more muscle cells.
Q3) A motor neuron and the muscle fibers that it controls constitute a motor unit.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The pigment responsible for the reddish brown color of skeletal muscle is ________.
Q5) Muscles that assist an agonist are called ________.
Q6) The muscle that covers the upper part of the cranium is the ________.
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Q1) The resting cell membrane is more permeable to which ion?
A)Potassium
B)Sodium
C)Calcium
D)Magnesium
Q2) Convergence refers to
A)dendrites from neurons in different parts of the nervous system contacting the same neuron.
B)axons from neurons in different parts of the nervous system contacting the same neuron.
C)dendrites from the same neuron touching each other.
D)a neuroglial cell that contacts many neurons.
Q3) An impulse conducted along an axon consists of a wave of ________ ________ moving away from a point of stimulation.
Q4) A reason that the axons in the CNS and PNS differ in their ability to regenerate after injury is that
A)axons of the CNS lack myelin.
B)axons of the CNS lack neurilemmae.
C)peripheral nerves lack Schwann cells.
D)peripheral nerves lack endoneurium.

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Q1) If the gray matter of the spinal cord were to begin degenerating, which of the following structures would be breaking down?
A)Interneurons
B)Cerebrospinal fluid
C)Axons
D)Myelin
Q2) The basal nuclei include the A)putamen.
B)pons.
C)midbrain.
D)corpus callosum.
Q3) A newborn has a CT scan of the brain to identify a cause of seizures. The scan showed no convolutions (gyri)of the cerebral cortex. She has A)lissencephaly.
B)anencephaly.
C)spina bifida.
D)leakage of cerebrospinal fluid.
Q4) The cardiac center, vasomotor center, and respiratory center are located in the ________ of the brainstem.
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Q1) When the radial muscles of the iris contract, the diameter of the pupil decreases.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A person who is colorblind lacks A)retinas.
B)one type of photopigment.
C)corneas.
D)a gene that encodes the proteins in rod cells.
Q3) Impulses from taste receptors can travel in the facial, glossopharyngeal, and vagus nerves.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Lorelei thinks of the days of the week and months of the year as particular colors. She has A)synesthesia. B)neuropathy.
C)a deficiency of neurons in her visual cortex.
D)too few synapses in her hypothalamus.
Q5) The ________ ________ muscle rotates the eye away from the midline.
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Q1) A hormone whose effects last a long time has a ________ half-life.
Q2) Pheromones differ from hormones in that A)they are only found in plants and fungi. B)they act only within an individual.
C)they are transmitted between members of the same species. D)they are transmitted between members of different species.
Q3) A tropic hormone prevents endocrine glands from releasing their hormones, thereby maintaining homeostasis.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A hormone has a half-life of 20 minutes. After an hour, ________ percent of the original number of molecules remains.
A)0
B)12.5
C)25
D)50
Q5) Parathyroid hormone stimulates the activity of bone-resorbing osteoblasts.
A)True
B)False
Q6) The central region of the adrenal gland is the adrenal ________.
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Q1) The proteins that B cells produce that attack foreign molecules are
A)MHC complexes.
B)interleukins.
C)lymphocytes.
D)antibodies.
Q2) A platelet plug is formed when fibrinogen is converted to fibrin.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following are agranulocytes?
A)Basophils
B)Eosinophils
C)Neutrophils
D)Monocytes
Q4) In an adult, red blood cells are produced primarily in the ________.
Q5) The release of tissue thromboplastin initiates
A)the intrinsic clotting mechanism.
B)the extrinsic clotting mechanism.
C)platelet plug formation.
D)hemolysis.
Q6) An abnormally low white blood cell count is called ________.
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Q1) Name the layers of the heart from the inside out.
A)Myocardium, endocardium, epicardium, fibrous pericardium, pericardial cavity, parietal pericardium
B)Fibrous pericardium, parietal pericardium, pericardial cavity, epicardium, myocardium, endocardium
C)Epicardium, myocardium, endocardium, pericardial cavity, parietal pericardium, fibrous pericardium
D)Endocardium, myocardium, epicardium, pericardial cavity, parietal pericardium, fibrous pericardium
Q2) A pump is attached to the superior mesenteric artery and blue ink is pumped in. Which structures of the body will show the blue ink?
A)The neck and the facial muscles
B)The intercostal muscles and chest area
C)The arms and the hands
D)The small intestine and portions of the large intestine
Q3) The pulse of a long-distance runner is measured by a doctor. Their heart rate is 53 bpm. This heart rate demonstrates a type of arrhythmia called ________.
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Q1) The mononuclear phagocytic system includes
A)T lymphocytes and B lymphocytes.
B)monocytes, macrophages, and neutrophils.
C)basophils, neutrophils, and eosinophils.
D)mast cells and megakaryocytes.
Q2) Lymph differs from plasma in that
A)lymph has more protein than plasma.
B)plasma has more protein than lymph.
C)lymph is colorless and plasma is red.
D)lymph is thin and plasma is viscous.
Q3) Which response is slower but more specific for a pathogen?
A)Innate defenses
B)Adaptive defenses
C)Nonspecific defenses
D)Inborn defenses
Q4) Lymphatic capillaries are thin-walled, closed-ended tubes.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Disease-causing agents such as viruses and bacteria are called ________.
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Q6) Lymph is ________ that has entered a lymphatic capillary.
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Q1) From the stomach, food passes into the duodenum, then the jejunum, and then the ileum.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Changes in the mouth associated with aging include
A)overgrowth of gums.
B)thinning enamel.
C)thinning cementum.
D)shrinking dentin.
Q3) Which of the following is true about bile?
A)Cholecystokinin stimulates its production.
B)Secretin stimulates release of bile into the duodenum.
C)It contains concentrated enzymes that digest carbohydrates.
D)Bile is produced by the liver.
Q4) The ________ is the part of the digestive tract that has the most lymph nodules and bacteria.
A)duodenum
B)jejunum
C)ileum
D)colon
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Q1) A large calorie (kilocalorie)equals the amount of heat required to raise the temperature of a kilogram of water by ________ degree(s)Celsius.
A)0.1
B)1
C)10
D)100
Q2) About 75% of the minerals in the body are in bones and teeth, and include calcium and phosphorus. Homeostatic mechanisms regulate their concentrations.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The macronutrients are carbohydrates, fats, and proteins.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Deficiency of vitamin ________ causes night blindness.
A)A
B)C
C)D
D)K
Q5) Niacin can be synthesized in human cells from the essential amino acid ________.
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Q1) Cellular respiration enables cells to harness the energy from oxygen.
A)True
B)False
Q2) You are singing a song at karaoke and reach a part that requires a high pitch. To hit the high notes, you
A)change the force of the air passing over the vocal cords.
B)increase the tension on your vocal cords.
C)change the size of the laryngeal cartilages.
D)change the shape of the laryngeal cartilages.
Q3) One day, Julien is stung by a bee while he is outside and experiences anaphylaxis (a severe allergic reaction). His throat swells shut and he begins to suffocate. Luckily, a doctor finds Julien, recognizes that he cannot breathe, and decides to perform an emergency surgery that will allow him to breathe even though his throat is closed. The doctor performs a ________.
Q4) Oxygen plays a minor role in control of normal respiration because
A)oxygenated blood is < 95% saturated.
B)deoxygenated venous blood is < 5% saturated.
C)oxygenated blood is more sensitive to CO .
D)deoxygenated venous blood is 75% saturated.
Q5) The cells of an alveolus that secrete surfactant are type ________.
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Q1) Filtration rate in the glomerulus is increased by
A)vasodilation of the afferent arteriole only.
B)vasoconstriction of the efferent arteriole only.
C)both vasodilation and vasoconstriction of the efferent arteriole.
D)both vasodilation of the afferent arteriole and vasoconstriction of the efferent arteriole.
Q2) The glomerular capsule is composed of two layers of squamous epithelial cells.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Liam is a bodybuilder and frequently consumes protein powder as part of his fitness regimen. Lenny is on the Zone diet and carefully watches how much protein he eats, making sure to limit his intake. Which person will have more urea in their urine?
Q4) The efferent arteriole is stimulated to vasoconstrict. What effect will this have on glomerular filtration?
A)Glomerular filtration will be encouraged.
B)Glomerular filtration will be discouraged.
C)Glomerular filtration will stop.
D)Less water and electrolytes will pass from the capillaries into the capsule.
Q5) Nephrons whose corpuscles are near the renal medulla are called ________.
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Q1) A person in a moderate environment would lose the greatest volume of water in A)sweat.
B)mucus.
C)feces.
D)urine.
Q2) In a healthy body, the volume of water remains relatively stable at all times.
A)True B)False
Q3) Effects of hypokalemia include A)muscle weakness. B)acne.
C)sweating.
D)diabetes.
Q4) Sometimes the carboxyl groups of proteins release hydrogen ions.
A)True B)False
Q5) The concentration of calcium ions in extracellular fluid is regulated primarily by a hormone secreted by the ________ glands.
Q6) The part of the brain that helps regulate hydrogen ion concentrations is the ________ center.
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Q1) The cells that result from meiosis are diploid.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The interstitial cells of the testes produce
A)seminal fluid.
B)spermatogenic cells.
C)sperm cells.
D)androgens.
Q3) Gonadotropins include FSH and LH.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The epididymis, coiled on the outer surface of the testis, becomes the A)penile urethra.
B)rete testis.
C)tunica albuginea.
D)ductus deferens.
Q5) A positive feedback system regulates testosterone production. A)True
B)False
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Q1) Following birth, the infant's metabolic rate
A)increases and its oxygen consumption increases.
B)increases and its oxygen consumption decreases.
C)decreases and its oxygen consumption increases.
D)decreases and its oxygen consumption decreases.
Q2) Some reproductive tumors produce hormones. One sign of the presence of a reproductive cancer is a positive result from a basic pregnancy test when pregnancy is not possible/very unlikely. These cancers produce a positive test result because they are secreting
A)estrogen.
B)progesterone.
C)hCG.
D)ADH.
Q3) Amniotic fluid
A)stores nutrients for the fetus.
B)absorbs wastes the fetus excretes.
C)protects the embryo against being jarred by movements.
D)provides nutrients to the fetus from the maternal part of the placenta.
Q4) In an adult, a solid, cordlike structure called the ________ develops in the place of the former umbilical vein.
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Q1) A karyotype is
A)a diagram that represents family relationships.
B)a size-ordered chart of chromosomes.
C)a genome sequence.
D)a website that lists genes and the proteins they encode.
Q2) Different alleles of the same gene are said to be
A)homozygous.
B)heterozygous.
C)recessive.
D)dominant.
Q3) Observing a karyotype for a fetus, an obstetrician notices that for the 16 chromosome, there are 3 structures shown. What sort of chromosomal abnormality does this fetus have?
A)A monosomy
B)Incomplete dominance
C)A trisomy
D)Polyploidy
Q4) An autosomal condition affects only males.
A)True
B)False
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