Human Anatomy and Physiology
Pre-Test Questions
Course Introduction
Human Anatomy and Physiology explores the structure and function of the human body, providing foundational knowledge necessary for health-related fields. This course covers the major organ systems, including the skeletal, muscular, nervous, circulatory, respiratory, digestive, urinary, endocrine, and reproductive systems. Students will examine how these systems interact to maintain homeostasis, support movement, and enable vital processes such as respiration, digestion, and reproduction. The curriculum balances theoretical understanding with practical laboratory experience, fostering skills in anatomical identification and physiological experimentation. By the end of the course, students gain a comprehensive understanding of how the human body operates and adapts in health and disease.
Recommended Textbook
Essentials of Anatomy Physiology 7th Edition by Frederic H. Martini
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Chapter 1: An Introduction to Anatomy and Physiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) The peritoneal cavity contains the A) heart.
B) small intestine.
C) lungs.
D) diaphragm.
E) thymus.
Answer: B
Q2) Which division of anatomy focuses on the form and structure of the heart,blood,and blood vessels?
A) regional anatomy
B) surface anatomy
C) cytology
D) histology
E) systemic anatomy
Answer: E
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Chapter 2: The Chemical Level of Organization
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which nitrogenous base is unique to RNA molecules?
A) uracil
B) cytosine
C) adenine
D) guanine
E) thymine
Answer: A
Q2) Reactions that ultimately result in larger molecules formed from smaller ones are called ________ reactions.
A) hydrolysis
B) reversible
C) exergonic
D) dissociation
E) synthesis
Answer: E
Q3) How does the RNA molecule differ from a DNA molecule?
Answer: RNA is usually single stranded and DNA is double stranded.RNA contains ribose sugars and DNA contains deoxyribose sugars.DNA contains the nitrogenous bases A,G,C,and T,while RNA contains A,G,C,and U.
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Cell Structure and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which enzyme is required for the synthesis of mRNA?
A) RNA polymerase
B) helicase
C) transcriptase
D) DNA polymerase
E) RNA nucleotide
Answer: A
Q2) The phosphate "head" of a phospholipid is
A) hydrophobic.
B) hydrophilic.
C) polar.
D) nonpolar.
E) both hydrophilic and polar.
Answer: E
Q3) Briefly explain the process of active transport as it relates to the sodium-potassium pump.
Answer: Active transport requires cellular energy,usually in the form of ATP.With the sodium-potassium pump,sodium is pumped out of the cell and potassium is pumped into the cell.Both ions are moving against their concentration gradient.In order to move the ions to oppose diffusion,ATP energy is utilized.
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Chapter 4: The Tissue Level of Organization
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Sample Questions
Q1) Secretions that are discharged directly into the blood are characteristic of ________ glands.
A) exocrine
B) merocrine
C) endocrine
D) apocrine
E) holocrine
Q2) Simple squamous epithelium would be found
A) at the surface of the skin.
B) lining the trachea.
C) lining blood vessels.
D) lining the stomach and small intestine.
E) lining the urinary bladder.
Q3) Which type of epithelium secretes enzymes and buffers in the pancreas and salivary glands?
A) simple squamous
B) stratified squamous
C) transitional epithelium
D) pseudostratified columnar epithelium
E) simple cuboidal
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Chapter 5: The Integumentary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Hair is formed by the repeated divisions of epithelial stem cells in which structure?
A) hair root
B) cuticle of the hair
C) medulla of the hair
D) cortex of the hair
E) hair matrix
Q2) Through which cellular interactions are the cells of the stratum basale firmly attached to the plasma membrane?
A) gap junctions
B) CAMs
C) tight junctions
D) connexons
E) hemidesmosomes
Q3) Through which mechanism does perspiration function in cooling the body?
A) conduction
B) evaporation
C) convection
D) radiation
E) diffusion
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Page 7
Chapter 6: The Skeletal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following bones contain the cribriform foramina?
A) zygomatic
B) maxilla
C) frontal
D) ethmoid
E) sphenoid
Q2) What is the function of the sphenoid bone?
A) It forms the anterior roof of the mouth or bony palate.
B) It forms the roof of the orbits.
C) It supports a prominent partition that forms part of the nasal septum.
D) It helps slow airflow in the nasal cavity.
E) It acts like a bridge uniting the cranial and facial bones.
Q3) The typical vertebra's ________,projecting laterally or dorsolaterally from the pedicles,serves as a site for muscle attachment.
A) spinous process
B) transverse process
C) odontoid process
D) articular facet
E) lamina
Q4) Differentiate between compact bone and spongy bone.
Page 8
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Chapter 7: The Muscular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Structure J represents a
A) myosin head.
B) sarcomere.
C) T tubule.
D) myofilament.
E) myofibril.
Q2) Smooth muscle
A) does not use calcium.
B) is not resistant to fatigue.
C) contracts faster than skeletal muscle.
D) does not undergo tetanus.
E) uses primarily aerobic metabolism.
Q3) Muscle cells
A) actively lengthen.
B) generate compression.
C) possess a mechanism that regulates the tension amount by changing the number of contracting sarcomeres.
D) vary tension production based on the amount of sodium ions bound to actin.
E) can only contract.
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Page 9
Chapter 8: The Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Structure L is the
A) midbrain.
B) forebrain.
C) cerebellum.
D) basal ganglia.
E) brainstem.
Q2) Which of the following neurotransmitters usually depolarizes postsynaptic neurons?
A) serotonin
B) dopamine
C) GABA
D) acetylcholine
E) monoamine oxidase
Q3) The part of the peripheral nervous system that brings information to the central nervous system is the A) motor division.
B) afferent division.
C) efferent division.
D) autonomic division.
E) somatic division.
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Chapter 9: The General and Special Senses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Ruffini corpuscles are examples of
A) tactile receptors.
B) baroreceptors.
C) chemoreceptors.
D) proprioceptors.
E) nociceptors.
Q2) Movement of the sensory receptors in the ampullae of the semicircular canals
A) produces sound.
B) allows us to hear sounds.
C) stimulates the receptor cells, alerting us to rotational movement.
D) stimulates the receptor cells to a change in body position with respect to gravity.
E) allows us to perceive linear acceleration.
Q3) Structure L is the
A) ciliary body.
B) pupil.
C) lacrimal canal.
D) macula.
E) optic disc.
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Chapter 10: The Endocrine System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which endocrine gland stores its hormone in follicle cavities?
A) anterior pituitary
B) pancreas
C) thymus
D) thyroid
E) posterior pituitary
Q2) Structure A is the A) pituitary gland.
B) hypothalamus.
C) pineal gland.
D) thymus.
E) thyroid gland.
Q3) Structure E is the A) adrenal gland.
B) parathyroid gland.
C) ovary.
D) stomach.
E) pancreas.
Q4) Explain the interactions of parathyroid hormone and calcitonin.
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Chapter 11: The Cardiovascular System: Blood
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Sample Questions
Q1) ________ is the characteristic of WBCs that allow them to enter surrounding tissue by squeezing between adjacent epithelial cells in the capillary wall.
A) Hemotaxis
B) Positive chemotaxis
C) Hemolysis
D) Diapedesis
E) Amoeboid movement
Q2) Label F represents
A) organic wastes.
B) globulins.
C) electrolytes.
D) leukocytes.
E) organic nutrients.
Q3) How long do platelets circulate before being removed by phagocytes?
A) 9-12 days
B) 6-18 hours
C) 2-3 days
D) 4-8 weeks
E) 1-2 months
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Chapter 12: The Cardiovascular System: The Heart
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Sample Questions
Q1) The property of heart muscle in which it contracts in the absence of neural or hormonal stimulation is called
A) tamponade.
B) thrombosis.
C) autorhythmicity.
D) arrhythmias.
E) tetanus.
Q2) Label M represents the A) auricle.
B) left atrium.
C) right ventricle.
D) left ventricle.
E) interventricular septum.
Q3) Label R represents the A) interventricular septum.
B) apex.
C) opening of the coronary sinus.
D) fossa ovalis.
E) interatrial septum.
Q4) Explain the significance of the thickness of the left ventricular wall.
Page 14
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Chapter 13: The Cardiovascular System: Blood Vessels and Circulation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Near the level of vertebra L ,the abdominal aorta branches to form the A) common carotid arteries.
B) common iliac arteries.
C) femoral arteries.
D) popliteal arteries.
E) tibial arteries.
Q2) Which of the following is(are)the only factor(s)that can be adjusted by the nervous or endocrine system to regulate blood flow?
A) vascular resistance
B) turbulence
C) viscosity
D) vascular resistance and viscosity
E) turbulence and viscosity
Q3) Label I represents the
A) brachiocephalic trunk.
B) aortic arch.
C) left pulmonary arteries.
D) left pulmonary veins.
E) pulmonary trunk.
Page 15
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Chapter 14: The Lymphatic System and Immunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Allowing small children to be exposed to some dirt is one way of imparting
A) naturally acquired active immunity.
B) artificially induced active immunity.
C) innate (nonspecific) immunity.
D) naturally acquired passive immunity.
E) artificially induced passive immunity.
Q2) ________ function in pinocytosis,phagocytosis,antigen processing,and antigen presentation bound to Class II MHC proteins.
A) Kupffer cells
B) NK cells
C) Microglia
D) Macrophages
E) Dendritic cells
Q3) Which of the following is separated from surrounding tissues by a fibrous connective tissue capsule?
A) palatine tonsils
B) appendix
C) lymph nodes
D) Peyer patches
E) pharyngeal tonsils
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Chapter 15: The Respiratory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Microorganisms removed from incoming air by the mucus of the respiratory tract are ultimately exposed to and destroyed by
A) toxins in the mucus.
B) the cilia.
C) stomach acids and enzymes.
D) a lack of nutrients.
E) alveolar macrophages.
Q2) Fever,coughing,chest pain,fatigue,and weight loss are signs and symptoms of A) pneumonia.
B) cystic fibrosis.
C) emphysema.
D) tuberculosis.
E) pleurisy.
Q3) Damage to the septal cells of the lungs would most likely result in
A) a thickening of the respiratory membrane.
B) an increased rate of gas exchange.
C) alveolar rupture.
D) reduction in surfactant production.
E) decreased surface tension in the alveoli.
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Page 17
Chapter 16: The Digestive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The ________ are conical teeth used for tearing or slashing.
A) incisors
B) cuspids
C) bicuspids
D) molars
E) premolars
Q2) Enzymes from the ________ do most of the digestive work in the small intestine.
A) pancreas
B) liver
C) gallbladder
D) stomach
E) large intestine
Q3) Label B represents which structure(s)?
A) circular folds
B) submucosa
C) muscularis externa
D) serosa
E) mucosa
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Chapter 17: Metabolism and Energetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Nucleotides from RNA
A) are deaminated to form ammonia.
B) can provide sugars for glycolysis, in order to form ATP.
C) can be used to synthesize proteins.
D) cannot be used as a source of energy in place of ATP.
E) cannot be recycled.
Q2) Which of the following processes of heat transfer is the result of heat loss to the air that overlies the surface of an object?
A) radiation
B) conduction
C) evaporation
D) condensation
E) convection
Q3) The ion(s)or molecule(s)labeled A is (are)
A) CO .
B) H O.
C) O .
D) H .
E) 2H.
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Page 19
Chapter 18: The Urinary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The process for regulating pH that plays only a supporting role in the ECF but is quite important in pH control of the ICF is
A) protein buffers.
B) the carbonic acid-bicarbonate buffer system.
C) the phosphate buffer system.
D) changes in the rate and depth of breathing.
E) metabolic generation.
Q2) Label T represents which of the following structures?
A) renal papilla
B) renal columns
C) renal cortex
D) major calyx
E) minor calyx
Q3) Regarding sodium balance,which is (are)the most important site(s)for regulating sodium ion losses?
A) the kidneys
B) the lungs
C) the urinary bladder
D) the liver
E) the digestive tract
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Chapter 19: The Reproductive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Sperm production occurs in the A) ductus deferens.
B) seminiferous tubules.
C) epididymis.
D) seminal vesicles.
E) rete testis.
Q2) Currently,approximately how many bacterial,viral,and fungal infections are characterized as sexually transmitted diseases (STDs)?
A) 5
B) 24
C) 15
D) 50
E) 10
Q3) The first uterine cycle occurs with the A) menopause.
B) oogenesis.
C) climacteric.
D) perimenopause.
E) menarche.
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Chapter 20: Development and Inheritance
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Sample Questions
Q1) The first extraembryonic membrane to appear is the A) chorion.
B) allantois.
C) placenta.
D) yolk sac.
E) amnion.
Q2) A(n)________ allele will always be expressed regardless of what the other allele happens to be.
A) heterozygous
B) sex-linked
C) recessive
D) dominant
E) autosomal
Q3) Paired chromosomes are called
A) homologous chromosomes.
B) autosomal chromosomes.
C) homozygous chromosomes.
D) heterozygous chromosomes.
E) alleles.
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