Human Anatomy and Physiology Practice Exam
Course Introduction
Human Anatomy and Physiology is an in-depth exploration of the structure and function of the human body. This course covers the major organ systems, including the skeletal, muscular, nervous, endocrine, cardiovascular, respiratory, digestive, urinary, and reproductive systems. Students will learn how these systems interact to maintain homeostasis and support life, while gaining an understanding of anatomical terminology, cell and tissue organization, and physiological processes. Through lectures, laboratory activities, and interactive exercises, students will develop foundational knowledge necessary for advanced study in health, medicine, and related fields.
Recommended Textbook
The Human Body in Health and Illness 3rd Edition by Barbara L. Herlihy
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Chapter 1: Introduction to the Human Body
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which region is included within the right upper quadrant (RUQ)?
A) umbilical
B) hypogastric
C) right iliac
D) right hypochondriac
Answer: D
Q2) This area is inferior to the diaphragm.
A) axillary
B) inguinal
C) occipital
D) cervical
Answer: B
Q3) Which of the following refers to the area in front of the elbow?
A) axillary
B) brachial
C) antecubital
D) popliteal
Answer: C
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Chapter 2: Basic Chemistry
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is true of an anion?
A) An anion always ionizes to form electrolytes.
B) An anion always has an atomic weight of 15.
C) An anion carries a negative charge.
D) Hydrogen ion is an anion.
Answer: C
Q2) What happens when HCl is added to a solution with a pH of 7.45?
A) The pH will be greater than 7.45.
B) The solution will become more alkaline.
C) The [H ] of the solution will increase.
D) The pH will be greater than 8.0.
Answer: C
Q3) [H ] refers to
A) an isotope of hydrogen.
B) heavy hydrogen.
C) hydrogen bonding.
D) hydrogen ion concentration.
Answer: D
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4
Chapter 3: Cells
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Sample Questions
Q1) Identify the transport mechanism: a passive process that "pulls" water from an area where there is more water to an area where there is less water.
A) filtration
B) endocytosis
C) an ATP-driven pump
D) osmosis
Answer: D
Q2) Which of the following best describes the power or driving force for active transport?
A) ATP
B) pressure
C) DNA
D) H
Answer: A
Q3) Which of the following is most associated with the ribosome?
A) ATP production
B) intracellular housecleaning
C) glycogen storage
D) protein synthesis
Answer: D
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Cell Metabolism
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following terms is most descriptive of ribose and deoxyribose?
A) steroids
B) lipids
C) sugars
D) disaccharides
Q2) Gluconeogenesis
A) increases blood cholesterol.
B) increases urea synthesis.
C) increases blood glucose.
D) causes hypoglycemia.
Q3) Adenine,thymine,cytosine,and guanine are
A) bases of DNA.
B) sugars used to synthesize nucleotides.
C) intermediates of the Krebs cycle.
D) amino acids.
Q4) With which base can adenine pair?
A) guanine
B) cytosine
C) ribose
D) uracil
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Chapter 5: Microbiology Basics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Amebic dysentery and giardiasis are
A) mycotic infections.
B) caused by salmonella.
C) worm infestations.
D) caused by protozoan parasites.
Q2) An abscess is
A) an example of a systemic infection.
B) always viral in origin.
C) an example of a mycotic infection.
D) an example of a localized infection.
Q3) Biting flies,fleas,and ticks
A) most often cause systemic infections.
B) are best described as ectoparasites.
C) are classified as helminths.
D) cause mycotic infections.
Q4) Which of the following is called the "acid-fast" bacillus?
A) Staphylococcus aureus
B) Salmonella typhi
C) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
D) Clostridium tetani
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Chapter 6: Tissues and Membranes
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Sample Questions
Q1) In which of the following is intercellular matrix most abundant?
A) bone
6-PAGE 5
Test Bank
B) simple squamous epithelium
C) blood
D) simple columnar epithelium
Q2) Which type of membrane lines the body cavities that open to the exterior of the body?
A) serous membrane
B) synovial membrane
C) mucous membrane
D) meninges
Q3) Which word refers to the flattened appearance of fish scales?
A) striated
B) stratified
C) squamous
D) glia
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Chapter 7: Integumentary System and Body Temperature
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Sample Questions
Q1) The stratum germinativum and the stratum corneum are layers of the A) epidermis.
B) hypodermis.
C) subcutaneous tissue.
D) dermis.
Q2) What is the name of the sweat glands usually associated with hair follicles and found in the axillary and genital areas?
A) ceruminous
B) eccrine
C) sebaceous
D) apocrine
Q3) Which of the following best characterizes the stratum germinativum?
A) dead
B) mitotically active
C) dermal
D) subcutaneous
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Chapter 8: Skeletal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The obturator foramen is the
A) large foramen in the coxal bone.
B) opening through which the medulla oblongata descends as the spinal cord.
C) meeting place of the ilium,ischium,and pubis.
D) space between the two iliac crests.
Q2) What bones include the calcaneus?
A) metatarsals
B) tarsals
C) phalanges
D) sacrum
Q3) At which joint do the femur and coxal bone meet?
A) hip
B) knee
C) ankle
D) wrist
Q4) Which group is incorrect?
A) sinuses:frontal,maxillary,sphenoidal,ethmoidal
B) spinal curvatures:cervical,thoracic,lumbar,sacral
C) bones of the lower extremities:femur,tibia,fibula
D) bones of the vertebral column:atlas,axis,coxal bone
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Chapter 9: Muscular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) With regard to skeletal muscle contraction,which event comes last?
A) shortening of the sarcomere
B) release of calcium from the sarcoplasmic reticulum
C) activation of the NM receptors by ACh
D) release of neurotransmitter (ACh)from the somatic motor neuron
Q2) Which of the following "muscle words" refers to chest?
A) rectus
B) latissimus
C) vastus
D) pectoralis
Q3) The levator palpebrae superioris
A) purses the lips.
B) allows one to whistle.
C) raises the eyelids.
D) wiggles the nose.
Q4) On which large muscle do you sit?
A) latissimus dorsi
B) gastrocnemius
C) gluteus maximus
D) rectus femoris
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Chapter 10: Nervous System: Nervous Tissue and Brain
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Sample Questions
Q1) What makes white matter "white"?
A) cell bodies
B) neurotransmitters
C) synapses
D) myelin sheath
Q2) The medulla oblongata descends into the vertebral cavity through the
A) corpus callosum.
B) obturator foramen.
C) central canal.
D) foramen magnum.
Q3) What is the name of the motor speech area located in the frontal lobe?
A) the brain stem
B) the pons
C) Broca's area
D) the diencephalon
Q4) Which of the following structures is most associated with "wake up"?
A) Broca's area
B) cerebellum
C) reticular activating system
D) thalamus
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Chapter 11: Nervous System: Spinal Cord and Peripheral Nerves
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Q1) Which of the following is most descriptive of the phrenic nerve?
A) concerned with the sensation of smell
B) innervates the muscles of the eyeball
C) motor nerve supplying the diaphragm
D) sensory nerve concerned with balance
Q2) Which of the following is descriptive of cranial nerve VIII?
A) motor nerve
B) spinal nerve
C) vestibulocochlear
D) concerned with vision
Q3) A hammer strikes the Achilles tendon to elicit this stretch reflex. 11-PAGE 2 Test Bank
A) Babinski reflex
B) baroreceptor reflex
C) patellar tendon reflex
D) ankle-jerk reflex
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Chapter 12: Autonomic Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is most related to the "feed and breed" system?
A) pyramidal tracts
B) sympathetic nervous system
C) craniosacral outflow
D) rapid heart rate,palpitations,sweating
Q2) Which of the following is least descriptive of thoracolumbar outflow?
A) fight or flight
B) muscarinic and nicotinic receptors
C) sympathetic nervous system
D) paravertebral ganglia
Q3) What is another term for thoracolumbar outflow? 12-PAGE 2 Test Bank
A) vagal discharge
B) parasympathetic nervous system
C) sympathetic nervous system
D) limbic system
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Chapter 13: Sensory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The choroid
A) contains the blood vessels that nourish the retina.
B) secretes aqueous humor.
C) is the window of the eye.
D) is avascular.
Q2) Contraction of the radial muscles of the iris causes
A) mydriasis.
B) pinpoint pupils.
C) both eyeballs to gaze skyward.
D) both eyeballs to deviate medially.
Q3) In this condition,the eyelid is not completely raised,thereby making the person appear sleepy.
A) glaucoma
B) cataracts
C) ptosis of the lid
D) lid lag
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Chapter 14: Endocrine System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Insulin
A) stimulates the formation of glycogen.
B) increases the transport of glucose into a cell.
C) stimulates the synthesis of proteins and fats.
D) all of the above.
Q2) Catecholamines
A) include cortisol,aldosterone,and testosterone.
B) are secreted by the adrenal cortex.
C) lower plasma glucose.
D) include epinephrine (adrenalin)and norepinephrine.
Q3) Excess secretion of epinephrine
A) relieves anxiety.
B) stimulates the synthesis of glycogen.
C) elevates blood glucose.
D) slows heart rate and lowers blood pressure.
Q4) The only hormone that lowers blood glucose is
A) glucagon.
B) insulin.
C) epinephrine.
D) cortisol.
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Blood
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is the most common cause of myelosuppression?
A) drugs,especially the anticancer drugs
B) bed rest
C) dietary deficiencies
D) hereditary abnormalities of the bone marrow
Q2) At the end of 120 days,the red blood cell
A) is removed from the circulation and broken down.
B) becomes known as a "poly".
C) becomes known as a reticulocyte.
D) is converted to fibrin.
Q3) Which of the following is most similar to fibrinolysis?
A) coagulation
B) petechiae formation
C) myelosuppression
D) thrombolytic effect
Q4) Erythropoietin
A) is secreted by the kidneys.
B) stimulates the bone marrow to produce RBCs.
C) is released in response to hypoxemia.
D) all of the above.
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Chapter 16: Heart
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Sample Questions
Q1) The pulmonic and aortic valves
A) are atrioventricular valves.
B) "see" only oxygenated blood.
C) are attached to the ventricular walls by chordae tendineae.
D) are semilunar valves.
Q2) The pericardium is a part of the
A) myocardium.
B) diaphragm.
C) epicardium.
D) endocardium.
Q3) Which of the following is least descriptive of the myocardium?
A) cardiac muscle,composed of actin and myosin arranged in sarcomeres
B) thicker in the ventricles than the atria
C) thicker in the left ventricle than the right ventricle
D) thicker in the left atrium than the right ventricle
Q4) Which of the following is least related to the mitral valve?
A) left heart
B) bicuspid
C) semilunar
D) chordae tendineae
Page 18
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Chapter 17: Function of the Heart
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Sample Questions
Q1) Sympathetic stimulation to the heart
A) decreases stroke volume.
B) increases heart rate.
C) causes bradycardia.
D) decreases cardiac output.
Q2) This term refers to a heart rate of fewer than 60 beats/min.
A) bradycardia
B) heart block
C) fight-or-flight response
D) tachycardia
Q3) Which of the following is most likely to increase ejection fraction?
A) activation of beta1 adrenergic receptors
B) vagal discharge
C) blockade of beta1 adrenergic receptors
D) blockade of the muscarinic receptors
Q4) Which of the following refers to a positive inotropic effect?
A) heart block
B) a slow heart rate
C) a rapid heartbeat
D) an increased myocardial contractile force
Page 19
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Chapter 18: Anatomy of the Blood Vessels
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is most likely to cause portal vein hypertension?
A) carotid artery occlusion
B) defective valves in the deep veins of the legs
C) cirrhosis of the liver
D) ruptured aortic aneurysm
Q2) The saphenous vein
A) is the shortest vein in the body.
B) is part of the hepatic-portal system.
C) extends from the foot to the thigh.
D) joins with the mesenteric vein to form the portal vein.
Q3) Which condition is caused by defective valves in the lower leg veins?
A) portal hypertension
B) varicose veins
C) absent pedal pulse
D) ascites
Q4) The carotid and vertebral arteries supply the A) heart.
B) liver.
C) lungs.
D) brain.
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Chapter 19: Functions of the Blood Vessels
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Q1) If the left ventricle of the heart fails,blood backs up in the pulmonary capillary,
A) decreasing plasma oncotic pressure and drying out the lung.
B) blocking the flow of lymph and drying out the lungs.
C) increasing capillary hydrostatic pressure and forcing fluid into the lungs.
D) increasing plasma oncotic pressure,causing pulmonary edema.
Q2) Which of the following is most related to the systolic reading,diastolic reading,and Korotkoff sounds?
A) cardiac output
B) blood pressure
C) the electrical activity of the heart
D) coronary blood flow
Q3) Which artery is most often used to measure the blood pressure?
A) carotid artery
B) brachial artery
C) femoral artery
D) circle of Willis
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21
Chapter 20: Lymphatic System
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the term that refers to the removal of the palatine tonsils?
A) appendectomy
B) lymph node resection
C) adenoidectomy
D) tonsillectomy
Q2) These structures are located near the opening of the nasal cavity in the upper throat and are also called the adenoids.
A) palatine tonsils
B) thymus glands
C) lingual tonsils
D) pharyngeal tonsils
Q3) This lymphoid organ is located in the ventral cavity,thoracic cavity,and mediastinum.
A) spleen
B) liver
C) thymus gland
D) adenoids
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22
Chapter 21: Immune System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which group is incorrect?
A) first line of defense:skin,mucous membrane,tears,sneezing
B) specific immunity:B cells,T cells
C) mechanical barriers:skin,mucous membrane
D) chemical barriers:tears,saliva,stomach acid,B cells,T cells
Q2) A breastfed infant is initially immune to the same diseases as her mom.Which of the following describes the infant's immunity?
A) naturally acquired passive immunity
B) naturally acquired active immunity
C) artificially acquired active immunity
D) artificially acquired passive immunity
Q3) What is the term that refers to the level of antibodies in your blood?
A) T cell count
B) titer
C) white blood cell count
D) hematocrit
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Chapter 22: Respiratory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following regulates respiratory activity?
A) PO2
B) PCO2
C) bicarbonate
D) albumin
Q2) Hypoventilation can cause
A) bleeding and hypotension.
B) alkalosis and Kussmaul respirations.
C) hypoxemia and acidosis.
D) hyperglycemia and acidosis.
Q3) The collection of mucus in the lower airways is most likely to cause
A) laryngospasm.
B) pneumothorax.
C) atelectasis.
D) pharyngitis.
Q4) Dyspnea means
A) "puffed up" alveoli.
B) pneumonia.
C) cyanosis.
D) difficulty breathing.
Page 24
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Chapter 23: Digestive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Peristalsis
A) cannot be affected by drugs.
B) is due to contraction of smooth muscle.
C) only occurs within the small intestines.
D) normally moves chyme into the biliary tree.
Q2) Which statement is true?
A) Cholecystokinin is an amylase.
B) Secretin is stored in the gallbladder.
C) Trypsin is secreted by the liver.
D) Trypsin is an enzyme that digests protein.
Q3) The portal vein carries blood that is rich in digestive end-products to this organ.
A) liver
B) pancreas
C) duodenum
D) pylorus
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25
Chapter 24: Urinary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The calyces receive urine from the
A) proximal convoluted tubule.
B) collecting ducts.
C) glomeruli.
D) peritubular capillaries.
Q2) Creatinine is
A) completely reabsorbed by the peritubular capillaries.
B) a waste product that is filtered and not reabsorbed.
C) a renal enzyme that activates angiotensinogen.
D) a renal hormone that stimulates red blood cell production by the bone marrow.
Q3) Which blood vessels are primarily concerned with reabsorption?
A) renal artery
B) glomeruli
C) renal vein
D) peritubular capillaries
Q4) What vascular structure is found between the afferent and efferent arterioles?
A) peritubular capillaries
B) renal artery
C) glomerulus
D) renal veins
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Chapter 25: Water,Electrolyte,and Acid-Base Balance
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Q1) Which fluid compartment is located between the cells and is also called tissue fluid?
A) lymph
B) plasma
C) interstitial
D) transcellular
Q2) Which of the following is not a function of the lungs?
A) oxygenation of blood
B) excretion of carbon dioxide
C) secretion of aldosterone and the regulation of Na
D) regulation of blood pH
Q3) Which of the following is most likely to develop in an anxious hyperventilating patient?
A) respiratory acidosis
B) alkalosis
C) a decrease in plasma pH
D) ketoacidosis
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Chapter 26: Reproductive Systems
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Q1) A woman is likely to develop a vaginal yeast infection after taking antibiotics because they
A) weaken the hymen and allow pathogens to enter the vagina.
B) alter the normal flora of the vagina.
C) contain pathogens that migrate to the vagina from the blood.
D) cannot kill microorganisms that grow in the vagina.
Q2) Which group is incorrect?
A) phases of the ovarian cycle:follicular phase,luteal phase
B) phases of the uterine cycle:menstrual phase,proliferative phase,secretory phase
C) reproductive hormones:estrogen,progesterone,hCG,testosterone
D) external genitals:penis,scrotum,labia,mons pubis,cervix
Q3) Which structure secretes the gonadotropins?
A) adrenal cortex
B) testes
C) anterior pituitary gland
D) the ovum
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Chapter 27: Human Development and Heredity
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Q1) Which of the following is most descriptive of a zygote?
A) fertilized ovum
B) mature sperm
C) graafian follicle
D) fetus
Q2) From week 3 to week 8,baby-to-be is called a(n)
A) zygote.
B) morula.
C) fetus.
D) embryo.
Q3) Which of the following is most related to the word ectopic?
A) tubal pregnancy
B) labor
C) lactation
D) endometriosis
Q4) Which of the following is true of implantation?
A) It is called conception.
B) It is divided into trimesters.
C) It is stimulated by FSH and LH.
D) It occurs within the uterus.
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